Term
| _% to _% of the population gets influenza every year |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| direct monetary burden to the US caused by the flu? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where is AIDS epidemic worst in the world |
|
Definition
| Africa, some regions reaching 34% infection rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what about viruses cause cancer? |
|
Definition
| chronic inflammation from repeated infections |
|
|
Term
| this virus is associated with 99% of all cervical cancer |
|
Definition
| papilloma virus (genital warts) |
|
|
Term
| Liver cancer is associated with these two viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name how measles, HIV and herpes avoid being destroyed by the immune system? |
|
Definition
Measles and HIV = immunosuppression
Herpes hides in neurons |
|
|
Term
viruses range from __ to ___ nm in size
cells are about _____nm |
|
Definition
30-300
10,000 (10um)
[size can be used to classify viruses] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| allow for entry into cell and replication |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a protein that binds cyclosporin and inhibits calcineurin, which, in turn, prevents release of pro-inflammatory cytokines TNF & IL2.
It is housed inside if HIV and inhibits immune response. |
|
|
Term
| Influenza A has __ RNA strands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is tissue specificity of a virus called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
VEEV:
- what strain infects humans
- what other strains are there |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Papilloma virus strains 16 and 18 are significant because... |
|
Definition
| the cause 70% of cervical cancer |
|
|
Term
| Papilloma virus types 6 & 11 are significant because... |
|
Definition
| they cause 90% genital warts |
|
|
Term
| what is the function of interferon |
|
Definition
| block viral genome replication |
|
|
Term
| NOD like receptors and TLRs recognize viral components and turn on innate defenses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| number of viral particles it could take to infect a host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if there are no CPE of a virus, how can it still effect a cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- lysis
- non-lytic (apoptosis)
- syncytia |
|
|
Term
| how does measles cause neuropathic effects? |
|
Definition
| forms syncytium of neurons |
|
|
Term
| what are the CPEs of WEE EEE VEE (alphaviruses) and what family do they belong to? |
|
Definition
apoptosis-inducing (many cell types)
togaviridae |
|
|
Term
| vector for yellow fever (and family) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the major targets of most antiretroviral drugs (basic) |
|
Definition
-RNA dependent RNA and DNA pols
-virus specific proteases |
|
|
Term
| ribavirin: what is it and what does it do |
|
Definition
- antiviral drug
- increases error rate of viral pols (is a guanine analog that binds equally well to U and C) |
|
|
Term
| nelfinivir: what is it and what does it do |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enfuvirtide & Schering D: what are they |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is main concern with live-attenuated vaccines? |
|
Definition
| reversion to virulent strain |
|
|
Term
| what is disadvantage of inactivated vaccines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many segments of RNA does influenza A have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is unique about reovirus RNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Influenza A is negative or positive sense RNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| telangiectasis definition |
|
Definition
dilation of capillaries that causes them to look red or purple, often spidery in appearance 'spider angioma'. spider angiomas are caused failure of the sphincteric smooth muscle of the arterioles.
spider angiomas are caused by high levels of estrogen, either from pregnancy or liver failure. |
|
|
Term
| applying pressure to spider angiomas... |
|
Definition
| causes the redness to disappear, quickly returning after pressure is released |
|
|
Term
| palmer erythema is and is caused by? |
|
Definition
| high estrogen: pregnancy or cirrhosis. same causes as spider angioma |
|
|
Term
| normal levels for AST, ALT and albumin |
|
Definition
AST: 2-45 IU/L
ALT: 10-40 IU/L
albumin: 3.9-5.0 g/dL |
|
|
Term
| what percentage of the US population is estimated to be infected with HCV? How many have chronic infections? |
|
Definition
- 1.8% (3.2 million)
- ~84%, (2.7 million) |
|
|
Term
| what is the leading cause of liver transplantation |
|
Definition
| HCV end stage liver disease |
|
|
Term
| is there a vaccine for HCV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many people worldwide are infected with HCV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at it's peak, new HCV infections totaled ___thousand (1980). now, new cases are ~___thousand (2007) |
|
Definition
242,000; 17,000
1990, HCV was screened for in blood |
|
|
Term
| chronic HCV accounts for __ deaths per year in the US |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| chance of transmitting HCV in transfusion |
|
Definition
| 1 in 2 million units transferred. drastic improvement because of screening implemented in 1992 |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common mode of transmission for HCV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HCV is part of which family? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HCV: + or - sense RNA genome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where (cell types) can the HCV infection be found? |
|
Definition
hepatocytes
T-cells
B-cells
monocytes
CD81 and LDLR are possible ligands for entry |
|
|
Term
| what are possible ligands for entry of HCV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| + strand mRNA is translated into a large polyprotien, which is subsequently cleaved by proteases. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| no, damage is mediated by Th1 response, causing inflammation. cytopathic effect is thought to be caused by destruction of infected cells. |
|
|
Term
| HCV response is Th1 or Th2 mediated? |
|
Definition
| Th1. This causes chronic inflammation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
closely related viral species that undergo natural selection. high rate of mutation is inherent in the RNA-dependent RNA/DNA polymerases.
This allows viruses to select for most virulent and contagious strain. |
|
|
Term
| how many genotypes of HCV exist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which HCV genotypes are most prevalent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| genotypes 2 and 3 of HCV are present in __% of people and respond to __ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ribavirin: what is it how does it work? |
|
Definition
antiviral
guanosine analog that inhibits RNA-dependent RNA and DNA pols
can be combined with pegylated alpha-IF for 48 weeks and get a sustained response (30-50%) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an object that can transmit illness (like a mop or something) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| myalgia, pharyngitis, headache, fever |
|
|
Term
| how can influenza spread? |
|
Definition
| aerosolized droplets and fomites |
|
|
Term
| incubation time for influenza A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common cause of acute respiratory illness requiring medical intervention? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many segments and proteins does influenza A have? |
|
Definition
| 11 proteins on 8 segments (same as Influenza B) |
|
|
Term
| Influenza A: interspecies transmission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| influenza's ability to cause epidemics: in order from most likely to never |
|
Definition
A>B>>>C
B is only in humans; C is in dogs and pigs as well |
|
|
Term
| Influenza has + or - sense RNA genome? |
|
Definition
| NEGATIVE, it goes to the nucleus where it creates mRNA and steals 5' caps from host mRNA. |
|
|
Term
| an exchange of RNA between two species of Influenza in a coinfected animal, producing a new strain, is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Avian influenza (2005) was of what antigenicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
these symptoms were caused by what?
-intermittent high fevers, persistent cough, thick sputum
-later course: respiratory failure (74%), cardiac failure (42%), renal disfunction (33%).
-lymphopenia and leukopenia
- 2/3 of people progressed to ARDS, all of whom died |
|
Definition
| H5N1 avian flue epidemic of 2005 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neuraminidase inhibitor (relenza) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neuraminidase inhibitor (tamiflu) |
|
|
Term
which HAs infect humans?
which NAs infect humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an IRES site and what virus has one on its genome? |
|
Definition
internal ribosomal entry site, HCV.
The IRES site recruits cellular ribosomes to do the work of translation for the virus. |
|
|
Term
| what are some side effects of interferon treatment? |
|
Definition
| fever, myalgia and other flu-like symptoms |
|
|
Term
| how does influenza enter our body? |
|
Definition
| attachment and penetration of columnar epithelial cells or Respiratory Tract |
|
|
Term
| why do you get clear, gunky mucus with influenza? |
|
Definition
| infection of the mucus cells. (unrelated: macrophages as well as other cells may also become infected) |
|
|
Term
| what is the only DNA virus not to replicate in the genome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parvoviridae is a single or double stranded what virus? |
|
Definition
| single stranded DNA virus |
|
|
Term
| poxviridae is a single or double stranded what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Herpesviridae (EBV, CMV) is a single or double stranded what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adenoviridae is a single or double stranded what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Papillomaviridae is a single or double stranded what virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| warts, cervical hyperplasia, leukoencephalopathy (a general term that refers to brain-white matter diseases whether the cause is known or not) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis (gastritis is inflammation of stomach only), uncommon cold |
|
|
Term
| Karposi's sarcoma is cased by virus(es) in this family. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F, herpesviridae are enveloped |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This virus from the ____ family houses both DNA and RNA (but is considered a DNA virus) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how big is the CMV genome? |
|
Definition
| >230kb; >208ORFs. It encodes 3 GPCRs |
|
|
Term
| How does CMV enter a cell? |
|
Definition
| heparin sulfate is required, however the ligand is not known. It is possible that EDGFR is involved |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
glandular, CNS, hematopoetic.
can infect almost all cell types |
|
|
Term
| when CMV enters the cell (fusing envelope), what happens to the capsid? |
|
Definition
| it goes to the nucleus and begins viral replication |
|
|
Term
| What types of proteins are produced early in the CMV life cycle? late? |
|
Definition
| regulatory proteins including pols; capsid proteins |
|
|
Term
| CMV is a very common infection. By age 40, how many adults are infected with CMV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common viral cause of congenital defects? |
|
Definition
CMV; CMV is the most common viral cause of mental retardation. 1/150 children are born with CMV (can be transmitted pre or perinatally. CMV can sit in the vagina and infect the neonate during delivery.
out of these children 1 in 750 develop permanent disabilities (8000 kids a year) |
|
|
Term
| what are two late onset symptoms of a congenital CMV infection? How long after the birth can this appear? |
|
Definition
| Hearing and vision loss; months or years |
|
|
Term
| what percentage of mothers who get infected with CMV for the first time during pregnancy (1-4% or all pregnancies) pass CMV vertically? |
|
Definition
33%
keep in mind there is no treatment for CMV |
|
|
Term
| through what substances is CMV spread? |
|
Definition
| bodily secretions: urine, saliva, breast milk, blood, tears, semen, and vaginal fluids |
|
|
Term
| what causes mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
| EBV (herpesviridae) and CMV |
|
|
Term
| What is the immune response to CMV? |
|
Definition
| Humoral: IgM is produced at primary infection and lasts for 3-4 months, but does not return in subsequent infections unless the patient is immunocompromised. IgG persist for life. |
|
|
Term
| Can CMV be treated in any way? |
|
Definition
yes, in immunocompromised patients, ganciclovir and valganciclovir are used. Neonates that have a very severe infection may receive these, but the side effects make it a risky treatment.
no vaccine exists, but there is a push for development. |
|
|
Term
| thrombocytopenia definition and what does it cause? |
|
Definition
| Thrombocytopenic means there's a lower than normal number of platelets in the blood. "Purpura" (PURR-purr-ah) refers to purple bruises caused by bleeding under the skin. |
|
|
Term
| what does the genome of retroviridae look like? |
|
Definition
| two + sense strands of identical RNA withe 5' cap and polyadenylated 3' end (looks a lot like mRNA. Two tRNAs are base paired to the genome, which act as a primer for RT. |
|
|
Term
| what is integrase? what has integrase? what does it do? |
|
Definition
| integrase is a protein in retroviridae that integrates its genome into the hosts genome |
|
|
Term
| oncornavirinae: what are 2 viruses in this family and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| HTLV1 & 2 (human t-lymphocyte virus). they make cell immortal. this is a subfamily of retrovirinae |
|
|
Term
| Lentivirnae: what viruses are in this subfamily of retrovirinae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| spumavirinae and human placental virus are in what family? |
|
Definition
| retrovirinae. neither of these cause disease |
|
|
Term
| Name the 3 big important proteins in HIV? |
|
Definition
| Gag (group-specific antigen, capsid protein), Pol, Env (envelope glycoproteins gp120/gp41) |
|
|
Term
| what are these: tat, rev, nef, vif, vpu? |
|
Definition
| accessory, regulatory genes in HIV |
|
|
Term
| how big is the HIV1 genome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| from time of infection to time of death from opportunistic pathogen, how many years does a HIV patient have? |
|
Definition
| ~8 years. AIDS develops when CD4+ count drops below 200 cells/ul |
|
|
Term
| during latent HIV, where does most of the viral replication occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the extent of an HIV infection depends on: |
|
Definition
CD4+ count
level of viremia
p24 protein levels in blood |
|
|
Term
| what are some things that happens with full-blown-AIDS? (mostly opportunistic infections) |
|
Definition
- HIV wasting syndroms
- Karposi's sarcoma
- Severe CMV infection as well as MAC (mycobacterium avium intracellularae), and pneumocystis carinii pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| about how many adults and children have HIV worldwide? |
|
Definition
adults: 31.3 million
children: 2.1 million |
|
|
Term
| what about gp120 is really important in HIV infection? |
|
Definition
| antigenic drift and heavy glycosylation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it removes it from the equation! (DHT = delayed type hypersensitivity reaction or type IV hypersensitivity) |
|
|
Term
| NRTI abbreviation: Azidothymadine (Zidovudine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NRTI abbreviation: dideoxycitidine (Zalcitabine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NRTI abbreviation:dideoxyinosine (Didanosine) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NRTI abbreviation: Stavudine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NRTI abbreviation: Lamivudine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are Nevirapine and Delaviridine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are Saquinavir, Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are some common combination therapies for HIV? |
|
Definition
Indinavir/AZT/3TC
Ritonavir/AZT/3TC
Nelfinavir/AZT/3TC
Nevirapine/AZT/ddI
Nevirapine/Indinavir/3TC |
|
|
Term
| what part of gp120 binds to the coreceptor protein and what are these proteins in macrophages and lymphocytes, respectfully. |
|
Definition
| V3 loop; CCR5 and CXCR4, respectfully |
|
|
Term
| describe the basic outline of HIV life cycle |
|
Definition
| gp120 & gp41 bind CD4 and coreceptor (CXCR4 or CCR5) and allow for fusion of envelope-->viral genome is injected into the cell and RT transcribes the RNA genome into a DNA genome-->this moved to the nuclease where integrase integrates it into the genome-->here, HIV mRNA begins to be produced, the polyproteins are cleaved and eventually new viral particles form--> the capsid detects areas on the membrane that have high concentrations of gp120&gp41 and bud off |
|
|
Term
| how many new HIV virions are produced daily? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| lifespan of HIV in the plasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| lifespan of a HIV infected T-lymphocyte |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F, HIV downregulates MHC-I expression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HIV primarily dampens Th1 or Th2 response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where is HIV most virulent? |
|
Definition
| places antibodies penetrate poorly, i.e. CNS |
|
|
Term
| HIV ___ the immune system to increase its replication. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do tegument proteins generally do? |
|
Definition
| make cells proliferate or control cellular function |
|
|
Term
| T or F CMV does not infect the salivary glands |
|
Definition
| False! salivary glands are one of the primary sites of infection, this is why infants can get CMV postnataly by ingesting breastmilk |
|
|
Term
| 2 important cell wall components of fungi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a major target of antifungal drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| saprophytic/saprobic definition |
|
Definition
| fungi living in open environment |
|
|
Term
| what is a dimorphic fungus? |
|
Definition
a fungi that lives in a different state between it's saprophytic and parasitic forms.
an example is histoplasma capsulatum, hyphal during saprophytic, yeast-like during parasitic |
|
|
Term
| histoplasma capsulatum causes what? |
|
Definition
| cave's disease. its an infection that occurs primarily in immunocompromised patients. it's symptoms resemble TB |
|
|
Term
| zygomycosis is primarily seen in? |
|
Definition
| severe diabetics or neutropenic patients |
|
|
Term
| How do fungi reproduce during parasitic phase? |
|
Definition
| asexually: budding-->fission-->endosporulation-->elongation |
|
|
Term
| what is a mat or aggregation of hyphae called? |
|
Definition
mycelium
hyphae are the asexual buds of fungal growth. These buds grow out of moulds. these moulds can form fruiting heads called conidia. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fruiting heads of a mould. |
|
|
Term
| T or F, most moulds have aseptate or pauciseptate hyphal forms? |
|
Definition
| False, most moulds have septate hyphae. Zygomycetes is one of the only to have aseptate hyphae |
|
|
Term
5 clinical forms of what:
- asymptomatic
- allergic
- superficial
- necrotizing granulomas
- invasive, disseminated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Th1 response is really important for what type of fungi? |
|
Definition
| dimorphic: aspergillus and histoplasma |
|
|
Term
| Candida, Aspergillus and zygomyces are susceptible to what cell type in first line defense? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is cryptococcus acquired? |
|
Definition
| inhalation in immunocompromised patients. Diabetics a a bit susceptible indicating that neutrophils are somewhat important for defense against crypto. |
|
|
Term
| meningoencephalitis is the most common clinical manifestation of this fungal disease: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F, fungal diseases are easily diagnosed as cancers |
|
Definition
| True. The granulomatous formations look like tumors on x-rays and neoplasms on histology. |
|
|
Term
| exogenous fungi have their primary infections where, usually? |
|
Definition
| Lungs, however they are usually not detected/asymptomatic. In immunocompromised patients, this primary infection will disseminate. |
|
|
Term
| Fusarium will usually infect who? |
|
Definition
| fusarium is a fungus that infects burn patients |
|
|
Term
| dermatophytes cause primarily what type of infection? |
|
Definition
| dermatophytes are fungi that primarily cause cutaneous infections |
|
|
Term
| Zygomycetes is a phylum of fungi that include what type of highly pathogenic fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aspergillus, zygomycetes, dermatiacius, fusarium, and dermatophytes are what? |
|
Definition
| the most common pathogenic fungi |
|
|
Term
| Aspergillus is most commonly acquired through: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NAME THAT FUNGUS!:
-Ubiquitous: soil, decaying fruit and vegetables
-Acquired via infection of paranasal sinuses, lung, GI tract, injured skin
-Disease predisposition
-Neutropenia
-Uncontrolled diabetes
-Aggressive, invasive and rapidly progressive disease
-Indolent progressive, relatively rare form |
|
Definition
| zygomycetes (mucormycosis) |
|
|
Term
| T or F: the mycellium form occurs during infection |
|
Definition
| FALSE. either yeast-like or spherule forms occur during infection. Saprophytic fungi or fungi in culture form mycellium |
|
|
Term
| what is the infective form of fungi? |
|
Definition
| the spore! this is formed during the saprophytic phase (sporulation) |
|
|
Term
NAME WHAT'S IMPORTANT ABOUT THESE FUNGI:
Coccidioides immitus
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Paracoccidioides braziliensis
Sporothrix schenkii
Penicillium marneffei |
|
Definition
| they are all dimorphic, coccidioides immitus and histoplasma capsulatum are the two most important (or, covered in lecture) |
|
|
Term
NAME THAT DIMORPHIC FUNGI:
-Mycelial stage likes dry, arid climes
-Portal of entry lung
-Spectrum of disease
-Subclinical granuloma
-Chronic necrotizing granuloma
-Disseminated
which one is exactly the same except is found in bird droppings and bat guano? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what size do transmissible agents that cause disease that start with a pulmonary etiology have to be? |
|
Definition
| <5uM. for example, the conidia of dimorphic fungii (coccidioides and histoplasmosis) |
|
|
Term
NAME THAT FUNGI!:
-Once classified as a protozoan but now believed to be more closely related to fungi (ascomycetes)
-Symptomatic infections limited to debilitated children (rare today) and severely T cell immunocompromised patients (mostly AIDS, some transplant patients)
-Causes interstitial pneumonia; severe hypoxia and respiratory failure may occur in AIDS
-Has a cyst-like stage (that may be the sexual form of the fungus) and extracystic trophic forms (formerly called trophozoites) |
|
Definition
| pneumocystis carinii (jiroveci/jerovecii) |
|
|
Term
| what fungus has a cyst-like stage (that may be the sexual form of the fungus) and extracystic trophic forms (formerly called trophozoites) |
|
Definition
| pneumocystis carinii (jiroveci/jerovecii) |
|
|
Term
| how do you diagnose pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) |
|
Definition
| cystic inclusion of induced sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bind to ergosterol, causing osmotic stress and oxidative stress on the cell. Amphotericin B is an important one. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibit ergosterol synthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| antifungal drug, a lipopeptide, that inhibits B-1,3 glucan synthesis |
|
|
Term
| this fungus's primary cause of disease is meningoencephalitis, however in aids patients, it can affect every organ. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when aspergillus goes unchecked, and is invasive, it will go into vessels and... |
|
Definition
| irritate the vessels and cause thrombi to form |
|
|
Term
| zygomycetes have septate hyphae? |
|
Definition
| no, mucormycosis are aseptate |
|
|
Term
| Ascaris Lumbricoides is the ___ ___ and is a ___ cause of ____ world-wide |
|
Definition
| largest; nematode (helminth); leading; morbidity |
|
|
Term
| hookworm is a significant cause of what? |
|
Definition
| blood loss. there are old and new world hookworms, but they are both clinically important for this reason |
|
|
Term
| strongyloides stercoralis: what is it and what does it cause. |
|
Definition
| it's a helminth (nematode) and it is usually innocuous, but is fatal in the immunosuppressed. |
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Term
| Enterobius vermicularis: what is it and what does it cause? |
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Definition
| nematode (common name=pinworm); it's all around the world and causes anal pruritus (pruritus ani is anal itching) |
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Term
| Trichuris trichiuria is what and causes what? |
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Definition
| nematode; is usually innocuous but can be associated with anemia and rectal prolapse. |
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Term
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Definition
flatworms or tapeworms.
they are hermaphrotic and lack a digestive tract (unlike nematodes that have an intact one) |
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Term
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Definition
| phylogenic 'class' of worms (flukes). schistosoma is an important one, it causes a lot of morbidity and mortality worldwide. |
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Term
| The phylogenic class of tapeworms is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| sexual complete (both male and female organs) segments of cestodes (tapeworms) |
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Term
| giardia lamblia: what is it and what does it cause |
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Definition
| it's a Flagellate protozoan; it causes giardiasis, beaver fever. giardiasis causes diarrhea and can be deadly in immunocompromised hosts. |
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Term
| entamoeba histolytica: what is it? |
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Definition
| it's a protozoan, amoeba. |
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Term
| plasmodium, toxoplasma and cryptosporidium are all what? |
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Definition
| protozoal sporozoa (apicomplexa) |
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Term
| after returning home, how long would it take a malarial infection to produce symptoms? |
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Definition
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Term
| after returning home, how long would it take a giardia/cryptosporidia infection to produce symptoms? |
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Definition
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Term
| after returning home, how long would it take a cysticerosis/echinococcus/strongyloides infection to produce symptoms? |
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Definition
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Term
| if you eat ____ you may get trichinosis. (3 animals) |
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Definition
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Term
| if you eat ___ you may get tapeworm. (3 things) |
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Definition
| raw fish, undercooked beef or pork |
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Term
| pica and ingestion of things like soil may cause this type of infection. |
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Definition
| nematode, visceral larva migrans |
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Term
| pinworm (enterobius vermicularis, a nematode) and taenia solium (a tapeworm that causes cysticercosis) are transmitted... |
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Definition
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Term
| If you were doing this activity in an endemic area, you may get schistosomiasis. |
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Definition
wading in freshwater
schistosomiasis is typically a chronic disease, that can be asymptomatic in a large number of infected, however can also cause widespread organ damage. The symptoms are general for an illness (fever, diarrhea, cough, stomach pain), but the blood may be highly eosinophilic. |
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Term
| Chaga's disease and Leishmaniasis are transmitted through... |
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Definition
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Term
| cryptosporidia, microsporidia and toxoplasma most commonly affect which type of person? |
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Definition
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Term
| high eosinophilia is indicative of... |
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Definition
| parasitic infeciton, there is a very very high correlation to nematode infection! |
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Term
| what is the scotch tape test? |
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Definition
| used to detect pinworms. you put the tape on the anus and look at it under the microscope. if pinworm eggs are seen then you get a diagnosis. |
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Term
| duodenal aspirates ("enterotest") are used for what type of parasite? |
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Definition
| giardia and strongyloides |
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Term
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Definition
an infection of entamoeba hystolitica.
aspiration of intestinal ulcers is an excellent way to diagnose this infection. |
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Term
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Definition
| it's the stage of parasitic development where they are absorbing nutrients from the host |
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Term
| LV-PVA is good for diagnosing what? |
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Definition
protozoan trophozoites and cysts.
LV-PVA = low viscosity polyvinyl alcohol: it's a fixative that you put a fecal specimen in in order to preserve it for diagnostic purposes. |
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Term
| Neutral Formalin is good for diagnosing what type of parasitic infection? |
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Definition
fecal preservation of eggs and cysts.
it's used as a preservative of fecal specimens for concentration or wet preparations with iodine. |
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Term
if you suspect a parasitic infection, you should examine which fluid/excrement with the following symptoms:
- Diarrhea/dysentery
- fever, chills
- lymphadenopathy |
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Definition
- feces: look for motile objects
- blood and tissue pathogens
- blood and tissue pathogens |
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Term
| what's up with antibody testing for parasites? |
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Definition
it's not that great: usually only good for patients that aren't from an endemic area. the presence of antibodies does not indicate an active infection.
Antigen testing (using antigen specific antibody) is way more useful. |
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Term
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Definition
| filarial disease is a disease caused by a type of nematode (roundworm) transmitted through biting flies& mosquitos |
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Term
| when should you check for malaria? |
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Definition
| right before the next fever spike (blood sample) |
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Term
| At night, these types of parasites are found at higher concentrations in the blood. |
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Definition
filarial parasites (this makes since, because they are transmitted by mosquitos and biting flies, which are probably more prevalent at nightgamal)
filariasis is caused by a type of nematode |
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Term
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Definition
| the asexually reporducing oocysts of toxoplasma gondii. they can be found in the intestine and disseminated around the body and brain (most of them are killed off) |
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Term
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Definition
| they are the encased form of tachyzoites from a toxoplasma gondii infection. |
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Term
| this parasite can cause prenatal infection (only if primary) or be acquired by eating raw meat, as well as something else. |
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Definition
| toxoplasma gondii. the other way to get it is through cat feces (oocystic form). Eating bradyzoite cysts in raw meat is how you get it. |
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Term
| FNA or lymph node biopsy of toxoplasma induced lymphadenopathy can mimic what other type of disease? |
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Definition
| Hodgkin lymphoma. This is because the infection is rarely seen, but the expansion of cells will look like hodgkin's. It is really important not to start treatment for hodgkin's when it is toxo because toxo will go away and hodgkin's treatment is rough. 4 |
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Term
| toxoplasma can look like what other type of infection? |
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Definition
| mononucleosis (EBV-like) viral infection. |
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Term
| What type of T-cell response is (and what cytokines are) important for fighting off toxoplasma gondii? |
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Definition
Th1; IL12 and IFN-gamma are important for killing off tachyzoites. If Th1 is suppressed, bradyzoites can reactivate, releasing tachyzoites and causing severe illness.
Primary infection in immunocompromised hosts is very dangerous |
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Term
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Definition
| inflammation of the choroid plexus of the eye. Can be a symptom of congenital toxoplasma infection. |
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Term
| If the T in TORCH is acquired late in pregnancy, what is the likelihood of transmitting it to the baby? What if it is within the first trimester? What happens if the baby gets it early? |
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Definition
~65% in 2-3 trimester with minimal symptoms to the baby (chorioretinitis is possible);
~15% in early pregnancy, but an infection could mean a number of congenital problems including microcephaly, mental retardation and hydrocephalus. |
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Term
| how do you diagnose toxoplasma gondii? |
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Definition
serology (IgM/IgG) or PCR (for disseminated case)
identification of tachyzoites by histology is not as common in this country |
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Term
what disease:
class: coccidia; genus: plasmodium |
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Definition
|
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Term
These are parasites that cause what?:
P. falciparum
P. vivax
P. ovale
Which one causes ~15% of all infections and is repsonsible for almost all the deaths?
Which one causes ~80% of all the infections? |
|
Definition
- malarial parasites.
- plasmodium falciparum causes 15% of infections and almost all deaths
- plasmodium vivax causes ~80% of cases |
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Term
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Definition
| genus of mosquitos (culicidae), that transmit malaria. There are about 460 species, 100 of which are vectors. |
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Term
| malaria causes ___ million deaths per year. ___% of cases are in ____ |
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Definition
|
|
Term
name that parasite:
Replicate (merozoites) in liver (exoerythrocytic stage) and some may remain dormant (hypnozoites) in liver |
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Definition
| plasmodium (vivax & ovale for hypnozoite stage) (malaria) |
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Term
| rupture of RBCs in malaria corresponds to what symptoms? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| describe the febrile paroxysm of malaria |
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Definition
- begins with chills/rigor 1-2 hours
- fever with warm, dry skin 2-6 hours
- sweats, and drop in temperature to normal 2-4 hours
these symptoms can mimic the prodrome of influenza |
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Term
| chloroquine is used as what? what is the mechanism of its action? |
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Definition
malarial prophylaxis. it prevents plasmodium from neutralizing the iron group after it's digestion of Hg. The iron is toxic to the parasite, as well as damaging the RBC and causes clearance.
side effects can include crazy nightmares as well as stomach ache, headache, and blurred vision |
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Term
| primaquin is used for what? |
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Definition
| primaquin is an antimalarial drug that is used for the eradication of the dormant hepatic forms of P vivax and P ovale (hypnozoites). a 14 day course is recommended to remove all hypnozoites. the mechanism of action is unknown. |
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Term
| where is chloroquin resistant plasmodium falciparum found? |
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Definition
| central and south africa, panama, and most of south america |
|
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Term
|
Definition
two organisms living together:
commensalism
mutualism
parasitism |
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|
Term
what are special about these buggers:
Entamoeba coli
Endolimax nana
Entamoeba harmanni
Entamoeba dispar
Trichomonas hominis |
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Definition
| they are commensal enteric protozoa |
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|
Term
what are special about these buggers:
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia (intesinalis, duodenalis)
Cryptosporidium parvum |
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Definition
| parasitic enteric protozoa |
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Term
|
Definition
| frequent or persistent urge or need to empty the bowl. it is caused by inability to empty the bowl and can be extremely painful. |
|
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Term
| how is entamoeba histolytica transmitted? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| An amoeba that ingests RBCs is characteristic of what? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| what do the neutrophils look like in a E. histolytica infection? |
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Definition
| they are not around the parasite. this is very characteristic of this type of infection |
|
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Term
| entamoebas hystolitica is transmitted by? |
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Definition
| fecal-oral (flies), anal intercourse |
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Term
| T or F: E. Histolytica can cause intermediate bouts of diarrhea. |
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Definition
True. entamoeba histolytica can be asymptomatic and just passively pass cysts through feces, or can cause intermediate or constant diarrhea.
In severe cases E. Histolytica can cause livier ulcers that can rupture and be mistaken for skin cancer on gross appearance. |
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Term
| Why don't you see neutrophils around E. Histolytica? |
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Definition
| because they've developed a lectin that lyses neutrophils |
|
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Term
| histologically, what do you typically see around amoebas? |
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Definition
| granular eosinophilic cellular debris, and darker nuclear debris |
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Term
| strongyloides stercoralis is most commonly found in what part of the united states? |
|
Definition
| southern. but it is found all around the world. |
|
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Term
| describe the typical lifecycle of a strongyloides stercoralis |
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Definition
| infection through skin-->in blood-->to lung-->through alveoli-->up trachea-->swallowed-->excreted |
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