Term
| isoniazid and rifampin, fluroquinolones |
|
Definition
| Extensively drug-resistant TB is resistant to almost all drugs that are used to treat TB. These drugs include ___ and ___, ___ and at least 1 of the 3 injectible drugs. |
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Term
| 5-10%, Mtb infected persons w/no disease are not contagious |
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Definition
| __-__% Mtb infections develop TB. |
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Term
| IV = inhalation or severe cutaneous, topical = mild cutaneous |
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Definition
| IV Ciprofloxacin is used to treat ___ or severe ___ anthrax. Topically it treats mild ___ anthrax. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ is used if there is a resistance developed to ciprofloxacin. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is bacterial or viral inflammation of the meninges leading to increase in WBCs in CSF. |
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Term
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Definition
| Confusion, delirium and declining consciousness level are signs of ___ ___. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ is the most frequently observed etiologic agent of bacterial meningitis. |
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Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Strep pneumoniae is part of the normal flora of the nasopharynx. It is also an important opportunistic pathogen in pneumonia, meningitis, sinusitis and otitis media. |
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Term
| penumoniae, meningitis, sinusitis, otitis media |
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Definition
| Strep pneumoniae is an important opportunistic pathogen in ___, ___, ___ and ___ ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Strep pneumoniae produces ____ a cytotoxic toxin for phagocytic and respiratory epithelial cells. It activates complement and induces production of TNF alpha and interleukin 1. |
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Term
| False! It produces few toxins, HAS a capsule and causes an intense inflammatory process. |
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Definition
| T/F: Strep pneumoniae produces few toxins, has no capsule and generates an intense inflammatory process. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Pneumovax (PCV23) is a pneumococcal vaccine made from capsules of ___ different serotypes. |
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Term
|
Definition
| PCV__ is recommended for children 2months to 23 months. It prevents meningitis and cuts down on otitis media. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is encapsulated, g(-) diplococcus virus with a lipooligosaccharide endotoxin. |
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Term
| False! It is commonly found in the nasopharnyx. |
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Definition
| T/F: Neisseria meningitidis is not commonly found in the nasopharynx of healthy people. |
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Term
| 1. leg pain, 2. cold hands/feet, 3. abnormal skin color |
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Definition
| Name 3 important clinical features of neisseria meningitidis. |
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|
Term
| LOS (lipooligosaccharide) |
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Definition
| ____ endotoxin is associated with rash in neisseria meningitidis infections. |
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Term
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Definition
| Mortality of neisseria meningitidis = ___% if untreated. |
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Term
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Definition
| Neisseria meningitidis' antibiotic of choice is ____. Alternatives include chloramphenicol or cephalosporins. |
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Term
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Definition
| The Hib vaccine immunizes against ____ ____. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ are small, pleiomorphic g (-) bacteria. |
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Term
| haemophilus influenzae, type b |
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Definition
| ___ ___ is part of the normal flora in 80% of humans and usually is nonencapsulated. It has 6 different types with type ___ being the most pathogenic. |
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Term
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Definition
| Clinical disease caused by S. pneumoniae is likely to be any of the following except: a) meningitis b) otitis media c) osteomyelitis d) sinusitis e) pneumonia |
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Term
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Definition
| Epidemic meningitis on a college campus is most likely due to infection with ____ ____. |
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Term
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Definition
| HGCV or Hib vaccine is administered to infants to prevent ____. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The most significant virulence factor possessed by Haemophilus influenzae is its ____. |
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Term
| both b/d otitis media and sinusitis |
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Definition
| Non-encapsulated Haemophilus influenzae found as part of the normal nasopharyngeal flora are most associated with which of the following infections: a) influenza b) otitis media c) meningitis d) sinusitis e) both b/d |
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|
Term
| haemophilus influenzae type b |
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Definition
| Immunization has been most successful to date in reducing the incidence of meningitis due to ____ ____ type ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The primary target population for the pneumococcal vaccine (PCV7) licensed in 2000 is children ___ ___ years. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The most common cause of bacterial meningitis today is ____ ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| A patient with meningitis has g(-) diplococci isolated from CSF. The causative agent is ___ ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The recently approved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine PCV7 is recommended for ___-___ months of age. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ is typically caused by certain members of the oral flora, haemophilus influenzae and streptococcuz pneumoniae. |
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Term
| haemophilus influenzae type b |
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Definition
| ___ ___ has its maximum carriage rate between ages 3-5 yrs and in over-crowded conditions. |
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|
Term
| bacterial meningitis caused by haemophilus influenzae type b |
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Definition
| ___ ___ usually begins as a mild URTI leading to seizures, hemoparesis and altered mental status. |
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Term
| HbCV or Hib for haemophilus influenzae type b |
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Definition
| ___ or ____ are capsular polysaccharides conjugated to protein vaccine given intramuscularly. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Strep ___ is a GBS and common cause of meningitis is neonates. It is usually transmitted from mother during birth. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is a g(+) bacillus usually transmitted via contaminated food. There is no vaccine and it causes listerosis. |
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Term
| listeria monocytogenes, listeriolysin O |
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Definition
| ___ ___ is a g(+) facultative coccobacilli that does not form spores. It grows in macrophages, epithelial cells and cultured fibroblasts. Virulent strains produce a hemolysin, ___ ___. |
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Term
| T/F... It is found in soil and such, but it usually only causes disease in neonates, elderly, pregnant women, immunocompromised |
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Definition
| T/F: Listeria monocytogenes is isolated from soil, water and vegetation and commonly causes disease in healthy patients. |
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Term
| listeria monocytogenes (listeriosis) |
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Definition
| ____ caused a multistate outbreak in 1998, killing 6 adults and aborting 2 women's pregnancies... there was a recall on deli meats. |
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Term
| penicillin or ampicillin alone or combinded with gentamicin, alternative: erythromycin |
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Definition
| What is the antibiotic of choice for listeria infections? What is the alternative? |
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|
Term
| strep pneumoniae and haemophilus influenzae |
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Definition
| ___ ___ and ___ ___ are the most common causes of sinusitis and otitis media. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is a g(-) nonmotile, strictly aerobic coccobacillus. It produces several toxins, has LPS heterogenous and is highly potent. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ causes the whooping cough. It has 3 phases and is most severe in infants. |
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Term
| catarrhal phase, convalescent phase, paroxysmal/spasmodic phase |
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Definition
| ___ phase of pertussis is indistinguishable from other URT infections. ___ phase is when the patient is in recovery. ____ phase is when the patient experiences violent repetitive coughing where the lungs are forcefully emptied with a whooping inspiration. |
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Term
|
Definition
| How is pertussis transmitted? |
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Term
| False! The whole cell has worse adverse effects, such as erythema/swelling/pain at injection site, drowsiness, convulsions, acute encephalopathy. |
|
Definition
| T/F: The acellular pertussis vaccine has a higher incidence of adverse reactions than the whole cell pertussis vaccine. |
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|
Term
| inactivated pertussis toxin |
|
Definition
| What does the acellular pertussis vaccine contain? |
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|
Term
| 2, 4, 6 primary; 15-18 months, 4-6 years |
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Definition
| The primary DtaP series is given at ___ months, ___ months and ___ months. Boosters are given at ___-___ months and ___-___ yrs or every 10 years after that. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Protective immunity to pertussis lasts __-__ years. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The new ACIP recommendations for the DtaP vaccine are adolescents age __-__ years and adults age ___-___ years. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ is a g(+) facultative pleiomorphic, club-shaped bacteria that has no flagella, spores or capsules. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___'s cell wall contains meso-diaminopimelic acid (peptidoglycan) and is related to mycobacterium. |
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|
Term
| corynebacterium diptheriae |
|
Definition
| ____ ____ is the only major pathogen of man in this genus. It is endemic in humans, transmitted by inhalation or skin contact. |
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|
Term
| False! It is not invasive... everything else is true. |
|
Definition
| T/F: Corynebacterium diphtheriae is invasive, causes a mild inflammatory reaction and its virulence comes from the tox + gene of the betaphage (prophage). |
|
|
Term
| corynebacterium diphtheriae |
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Definition
| ___ ____'s toxin blocks protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells and its production is inversely related to iron. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ diphtheria causes a toxin-induced pseudomembrane which develops on posterior oral cavity/oropharynx and is usually white/glossy --> gray/dirty --> green/black. |
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Term
|
Definition
| T/F: The green/black necrosis of respiratory diptheria is caused by necrotic coagulum of fibrin, WBCs, RBCs, respiratory epithelial cells and bacteria. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ diphtheria is common in the tropics and patient rarely shows signs of intoxication. This actually acts as immunizing agent. |
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Term
| True! penicillin or erythromycin and diphtheria antitoxin produced in horses |
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Definition
| T/F: Treatment for diphtheria includes an antibiotic and an antitoxin. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is a g(-) aerobic bacillus with a single flagella and multiple pili. It can inhabit water, is tolerant to chlorine and is transmitted by aerosolization, aspiration and instillation into lungs. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Pontiac fever was an outbreak of ____ ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Legionnaires' disease is treated with which antibiotic? |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ is the smallest free living bacteria, has no cell wall, requires sterols for growth and is resistant to penicillin and cephalosporins. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ causes walking pneumonia. It has a prolonged IP and its cough is a hallmark of this type of infection. It is treated with erythromycin/axithromycine or tetracycline/doxycycline. |
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|
Term
| chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, chancroid |
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Definition
| Rank the following in order of reported cases: syphilis, chlamydia, gonorrhea, chancroid. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ____ is a g(-) obligate intracellular bacteria. Its cell wall has inner and outer membrane but lacks peptidoglycan layer. It possesses LPS, but lacks the ability to produce ATP. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is responsible for trachoma, conjunctivitis, PID and STDs. |
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Term
|
Definition
| __% of females and ___% of males have asymptomatic chlamydia trachomatis infections |
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|
Term
| tetracycline or erythromycin for 21 days or a single dose of azithromycin |
|
Definition
| Which antibiotics are effective in treating chlamydia? |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| T/F: If a patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea, you treat for chlamydia. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___% of women that have untreated chlamydia develop PID. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is aerobic, g(-) diplococcus bacteria with LOS instead of LPS. It has pili, a capsule and has the ability to invade epithelial cells. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ produces IgA1 protease and beta-1 lactamase. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___% of males with gonorrhea have acute symptoms (purulent discharge and dysuria) |
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Term
|
Definition
| The primary site of gonorrheal infections in females is the ____. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ is the inflammation of the fallopian tubes. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Ceftriaxone, cefixime or a fluoroquinolone are recommended for the treatment of ____. It is also recommended to combine that treatment with doxycycline or azithromycin for treating ____ as well. |
|
|
Term
| pseudomonadaceae (pseudomonas) |
|
Definition
| ____ is a g(-) facultative anaerobic bacteria that utilizes few CHOs (does not ferment sugars), produces pigments and possesses cytochromeoxidase and a capsule. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ can survive in moist environments, more resistant to chemical disinfectants that other vegetative bacteria, has a low prevalence in the normal flora and often causes opportunistic nosocomial infections. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ has a pili, polysaccharide capsule, endotoxin and exotoxin A which inhibits protein synthesis. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| P. aeruginosa's ____ ___ inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating elongation factor 2. |
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Term
|
Definition
| T/F: Pseudomonas and respiratory infections have capsules. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ causes respiratory infection, infective endocarditis and soft tissue infections. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ skin infections have a characteristic blue-green exudate and pathognomonic fruity/rotten peaches odor. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is primarily a nosocomial infection and is treated with ceftazidime or extended spectrumpenicillins or imipenem/cilastatin |
|
|
Term
| ciprofloxacin hydrochloride |
|
Definition
| A pseudomonas aeruginosa UTI is treated with ___ ___. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Healthy individuals infected with Legionella pneumophilia are most likely to develop symptoms of ___ ___. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| A frequent cause of death in patients with diphtheria is ____. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Whooping cough is caused by ___ ___. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| “Walking pneumonia” often has a cough as the primary manifestation and is caused by ____ ____. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| The microscopic finding of gram negative diplococci in smears from pus or exudate is a valuable tool in the diagnosis of ____. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Patients diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for ___. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| PID and loss of fertility in women may result from untreated a) gonorrhea b) chlamydia c) both d) neither |
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Term
|
Definition
| Asymptomatic infection is most common in _______ with ________. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Neonatal conjunctivitis may develop in infants exposed to which of the following during passage through the birth canal? a) chlamydia trachomatis b) neisseria gonorrhoeae c) treponema palladium d) a/b only e) all of the above |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is caused by normal flora in the vagina. |
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Term
|
Definition
| A ubiquitous, free living gram negative bacillus which is responsible for a variety of infections in debilitated and compromised patients and is a major cause of burn wound sepsis, hospital acquired UTIs, and respiratory infection in cystic fibrosis patients is ___ ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| The most common STD in the US with the greatest # of new cases each year is ___. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is a spirochete that causes syphilis. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ ___ is a thin, helical g(-) bacteria that causes the 3rd most common bacterial STD in the US. It is extremely labile and does not survive exposure to drying or disinfectants. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ is not highly contagious and transmission is most likely during its primary stage. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ syphilis presents with a chancre where spirochete is inoculated. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ syphilis presents with a flu-like snydrome and papulosquamous/pustular rash that slowly resolves over weeks-months. |
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Term
|
Definition
| T/F: You can have asymptomatic syphilis. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ syphilis presents with granulomatous lesions called gummas found in skin, bone and other tissues. It is no longer infectious at this stage. |
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Term
|
Definition
| ___ is diagnosed by darkfield microscopically examining exudate from skin lesions. It cannot be cultured in vitro. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ is the drug of choice for syphilis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transmission of congenital syphilis is rare prior to the ___ month of gestation. It is usually associated with primary or secondary syphilis. |
|
|
Term
| Early congenital syphilis |
|
Definition
| ___ congenital syphilis presents with osteochondritis, snuffles, desquamative rash, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ congenital syphilis presents with frontal bosses, saddle nose, short maxilla, protruding mandible, interstitial keratitis and 8th nerve deafness. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ congenital syphilis presents with high palatal arch, hutchinson's incisors, and mulberry molars. |
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|
