Term
|
Definition
| A great circle is formed on the surface of the Earth by any plane that passes through the center of the Earth and divedes the Earth into two equal parts. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A great circle perpendicular to the polar axis and located an equal distance from the poles. |
|
|
Term
| Define Parallels of Latitude. |
|
Definition
| Parallels are circles of varying sizes that run lateraly around the Earth. They are assigned values from 90 degrees north to 90 degrees south, with the equ8ator being 0 degrees. |
|
|
Term
| Define Meridians of Longitude. |
|
Definition
| A meridian of longitude is one-half of a great circle located between the poles. |
|
|
Term
| Define Geographic coordinate position. |
|
Definition
| This is an Earth location given in north-south latitudecoordinates followed by east-west longitude coordinates. |
|
|
Term
| Difference between direction and distance. |
|
Definition
| Direction is the position of one point in space in relation to another, while distance is the amount of space separating two points. |
|
|
Term
| Difference between true and relative bearings. |
|
Definition
| The clockwise angle between true north and the direction of the aircraft is a true bearing; the clockwise angle between aircraft heading and an object is a relative bearing. |
|
|
Term
| Diference between minutes along parallels and meridians. |
|
Definition
| One minute of anrc along any meridian equals approximately 1 nm (6,076 ft); the equator is the only parallel of latitude where one minute of arc equals 1 nm. |
|
|
Term
| What two unrelated factors determine the path of an aircraft over the Earth? |
|
Definition
| The motion of the aircraft through the air mass and the motion of the air mass across the Earth's surface. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The sideward displacement of an aircraft caused by the wind. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the function of drift (angle) correction. |
|
Definition
| Drift correction adjusts the aircraft's true heading into the wind by an angle that causes the aircraft to make good its true course. |
|
|
Term
| Name two components for each of the wind trangle vectors WIND |
|
Definition
| Wind direction and speed. |
|
|
Term
| Name two components for each of the wind trangle vectors AIR |
|
Definition
| True heading and true airspeed. |
|
|
Term
| Name two components for each of the wind trangle vectors GROUND |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a vector diagram? |
|
Definition
| A graphic representation of a wind traingle shows the effect of wind on the flight of an aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| Distinguish between variation and deviation in navigation and explain what causes each. |
|
Definition
| The angle between true north and the direction indicated by the needle of a compass influenced only by the Earth's magnetic field is termed variation. Deviation is caused by the distribution of magnetic forces within the aircraft itself (both structural and electrical). |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic operating principle of VOR? |
|
Definition
| Phase comparison between th e30 Hz reference and the 30 Hz variable to dtermine bearing to the VOR station. |
|
|
Term
| How does the ground station prevent interference between the 30 Hz reference and the 30 Hz variable signals? |
|
Definition
| The 30 Hz reference is transmitted on a 9960 Hz FM subcarrier. |
|
|
Term
| Amplitutde comparison of 90 Hz and 150 Hz signals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Keyed to emit a continuous Morse code sequence of dots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Located 3,500 feet from end of runway. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Determines angle of descent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transmits a three-letter coded designator. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Determines angle of descent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information does the RMI display? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft magnetic heading and the magnetic bearing to the VOR ground station. |
|
|
Term
| When the VOR signal is unreliable, what shows on the HSI? |
|
Definition
| The HSI NAV flag and the bearing pointer parked at the 4 o'clock (3 o'clock using ARN-147 system). |
|
|
Term
| Where does the ARN-147 system park the HSI bearing pointer in ILS mode? |
|
Definition
| A the 3 o'clock position. |
|
|
Term
| In ILS mode, how much course error is represented b y the second deviation dot on the HSI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the ADI indicate a 0.6 degree GS error? |
|
Definition
| The GS displacement pointer will be positioned next to the second deviation dot. |
|
|
Term
| Which aircraft system drives the ADI pitch and bank steering bars? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A fully equipped MLS runway has how many transmitters? What are their functions? |
|
Definition
| Four signal transmitters. Two of the transmitters provide MLS azimuth functions; one of the remaining transmitters provides the elevation signal and the other provides DME information. |
|
|
Term
| What are the MLS operating frequencies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are the MLS operating frequencies in the microwave range? |
|
Definition
| To reduce sensitivity to the interfering signals and site topography. |
|
|
Term
| How many MLSs are installed on the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the main components of an aircraft MLS? |
|
Definition
| Receivers, antennas, splitters, IDCU, data bus coupler, and FDMS. |
|
|
Term
| What type of information does a TACAN provide to a plilot? |
|
Definition
| Bearing and distance information. |
|
|
Term
| How does the TACAN confirm a ground station's identification? |
|
Definition
| By using an audio conformation signal (three-letter Morse code audio tone). |
|
|
Term
| What is the operating frequency range of a TACAN system? |
|
Definition
| Ultrahigh frequency (UHF) range. |
|
|
Term
| How is range information obtained? |
|
Definition
| By measuring time interval between signals. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the antennas located on an F-16, and what do they provide? |
|
Definition
| One on the top and one on the bottom of the fuselage: omnidirectional coverage. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the vertical and horizontal components of the Earth's magnetic field as you approach the poles? |
|
Definition
| The vertical component increases in magnitude, while the horizontal component decreases. |
|
|
Term
| What is magnetic variation? |
|
Definition
| The error caused by true north and magnetic north not being the same. |
|
|
Term
| why does a change of latitude cause an error in the MAD? |
|
Definition
| The horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field becomes too weak in the high altitudes. |
|
|
Term
| How does altitude affect the MAD ouput? |
|
Definition
| The horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field weakens at high altitudes. |
|
|
Term
| What factors affect the magnitude of the coriolis signal? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft speed, aircraft heading, rotation of the Earth, and geographic latitude. |
|
|
Term
| What error is caused by residual magnetism in the aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Hard iron or one-cycle error. |
|
|
Term
| What error is caused by a misalignment of the MAD during installation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes transmission error? |
|
Definition
| A electrical unbalance (voltage or impedance) in the MAD or any of the synchros that make up the compass system. |
|
|
Term
| Name three frames of reference that can be used in an INS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly explain how an INS accounts for the aircraft's present position. |
|
Definition
| The system moves one space reference at an Earth rate and another vehicle rate; the resultant is the aircraft position. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name four types of sensors that may be used as data-gathering devices in an integrated navigational system. |
|
Definition
| Inertial, radar, astrotracker (celestial), and radio. |
|
|
Term
| What type of information does a basic GPS provide? |
|
Definition
| Accurate navigation aiding data (position, velocity, and time) to suitably equipped platforms. |
|
|
Term
| Where are GPS satellites placed? |
|
Definition
| In 12-hour orbits spread over several orbital planes to provides worldwide navigation coverage. |
|
|
Term
| What does the NAVSTAR GPS require at power turn-on to achieve optimum operation? |
|
Definition
| Three data sets-GPS almanac data, GPS initialization data (latitude, longitude, altitude, speed heading, time, and date), and GPS crypto-variable (keys). |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Kalman filter in the EGI system? |
|
Definition
| It models errors in velocity, position, and calibration to provide enhanced alignment and in-flight performance. |
|
|
Term
| What is the altitude range of the CARA system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the transmitter swept CW frequency range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What warns the pilot if the aircraft flies below the VALI setting? |
|
Definition
| The low-altitude warning light comes on. |
|
|
Term
| What altitude is indicated on the digital display when self- test is activated using the SET knob? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the receiver local oscillator frequency developed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two signals are used to develop the IF frequency? |
|
Definition
Current transmitter frequency. Received RF signal from the terrain. |
|
|
Term
| What do the altitude tracking circuits use the lower sideband frequencies for? |
|
Definition
| To calculate absolute altitude and determine which segment the system will operate in. |
|
|
Term
| If it takes the transmit signal 20 microseconds to travel to the terrain and back, what IF frequency is produced in segment one? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many different altitudes can an IF frequency of 395 kHz represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the upper and lower boundary limits of segment six? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Random or unintentional electron movement. |
|
|
Term
| what does sensitivity refer to? |
|
Definition
| A receiver's ability to pick up weak signals. |
|
|
Term
| What do we mean when we say that a receiver has good stability? |
|
Definition
| Its signal will stay tuned to one channel without "drifting." |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A receiver's ability to block all frequencies except those selected. |
|
|
Term
| What supplies a radio's power output? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any porportional change or deviation of a straight-line response to an input. |
|
|
Term
| What do you call an amplfier's output not accurately following its input? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you call the total opposition that a circuit offers to the flow of AC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the maximum power transfer occur between two circuits? |
|
Definition
| When the circuit impedances match. |
|
|
Term
| What happens if you use a 75 ohm feed line to connect 50 ohm transmitter output to a 50 ohm antenna? |
|
Definition
| Standing waves (reflected energy) build between the transmitter and the antenna. |
|
|
Term
| What do you call the ability of radio circuits to mantain the original signals characteristics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The heterodyne process converts the incoming RF signal into what frequency? |
|
Definition
| A fixed intermediate frequency called IF. |
|
|
Term
| How many output frequencies does the frequency conversion process create? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two types of circuits used for creating an IF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process called of imposing information onto a carrier RF signal by varying the amplitude, frequency, or phase of the carrier wave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic types of modulation used in radios? |
|
Definition
| Amplitude modulation (AM), frequency modulation (FM), and phase modulation (PM). |
|
|
Term
| What's the meaning of the term demodulation? |
|
Definition
| To reproduce the exact signal that was originally imposed on the carrier wave. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three important characteristics of a detector? |
|
Definition
| Sensitivity, selectivity, and linearity. |
|
|
Term
| What type of modulation does the UHF system use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many channels can be preset into the radio set? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many channels does the UHF system have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the five major sections of the UHF transceiver. |
|
Definition
| Switching unit. Synthesizer/ECCM assembly (HQ). Guard receiver. Main receiver. Transmitter. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three subassemblies of the transmitter? |
|
Definition
| Modulator. RF power amplifier. Power supply. |
|
|
Term
| How many digits are available on the channel frequency indications display? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many antenna elements are contained in each UHF antenna, and what are they used for? |
|
Definition
| Two elements; one ofr the UHF radio and one for the IFF transponder. |
|
|
Term
| What antenna select mode provides automatic cycling between the upper and lower UHF antennas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four requirements for the HQ UHF radios to communicate with the frequency-hopping capability? |
|
Definition
| Synchronized precision clocks. Programmable frequency switching patterns. Common frequency hop rates. Selectrive active network systems. |
|
|
Term
| What capability is added when using a Have quick II radio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the KY-58? |
|
Definition
| Provides for secure speech capabilities by coding and decoding UHF audio. |
|
|
Term
| What VHF mode is the only one that is extensively used mode? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the frequency range of the VHF AM communication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the frequency range of the emergency FM communication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many channels does the 116-151.975 MHz frequency range have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many channels does the 30-87.975 MHz range have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the preset channel capability. |
|
Definition
| Twenty reprogrammable channels and two emergency channels. Each can be programmed for AM or FM. |
|
|
Term
| What frequency bands are available for the emergency channels? |
|
Definition
| 38-43 MHz for FM and 119-124 MHz for AM. |
|
|
Term
| What effect does the selection of an emergency channel have on the secure speech capability? |
|
Definition
| Secure speech is disabled and normal voice communications is enabled. |
|
|
Term
| An input of 25 MHz to the IF receiver indicates what mode? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of radio wave is most imporant for HF radio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the three factors that affect refraction of electromagnetic waves. |
|
Definition
| The frequency of the wave. The angle by which the wave meets the ionosphere. The degree of ionization of the ionosphere. |
|
|
Term
| To what is the amount of refraction directly proportional? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With each refraction, is power lost or gained? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary cause of atmospheric ionization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the basic purpose of HF radios? |
|
Definition
| To provide long-range communication. |
|
|
Term
| In reference to power, what is the difference between HF and UHF radios? |
|
Definition
| HF radios require a great deal more transmitter power. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between normal AM and AME? |
|
Definition
| AME consists of the carrier and only one sideband. |
|
|
Term
| Why is an antenna coupler required in an HF system? |
|
Definition
| To match the impedance of the antenna to the selected frequency. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the channels of the ARC-190 systems. |
|
Definition
| 280,000 channels spaced 100 Hz apart in the HF band of 2.0000-29.9999 MHz. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major components of the ARC-190 radio system? |
|
Definition
| The R/T, control box, antenna coupler, R/T mount, and coupler mount. |
|
|
Term
| How does the ARC-190 generate the frequencies needed? |
|
Definition
| They are derived from a temperature-compensated oscillator. |
|
|
Term
| What does the control box provide? |
|
Definition
| Selection and indication of preset channels, frequency, mode, volume, and squelch for the system. |
|
|
Term
| How many channels are available in the HF radio set? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the LOAD switch? |
|
Definition
| This is a momentary-action push-button switchm, which causes preset information to be loaded into memory. |
|
|
Term
| What is the CONTL FAULT indicatior? |
|
Definition
| An indicator light that lights up when the R/T BITE circuitry determines the control to be the source of a problem; also indicates certain shorts between the headsets. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the tuner section of the antenna coupler pressurized? |
|
Definition
| To prevent high-voltage arcing at high altitudes, provide a uniform cooling medium, and prevent the entry of corrosive elements. |
|
|
Term
| When does the R/T's external blower come on? |
|
Definition
| When the R/T is keyed and for bout a minute after it is unkeyed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the HF radio operating power and where does it come from? |
|
Definition
| 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3-phase; aircraft power. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the general signal path for a receive operation. |
|
Definition
| After initial tuning, the radio is ready to receive a signal. The signal arrives at the antenna at the antenna and gets routed to the coupler. After passing through the RF tuner and discriminator modules in the coupler, the RF signal goes the the 1A2 receiver-exciter module. The receiver-exciter module uses two balanced mixers (dual conversion) to convert the signal to a 97.8 MHz IF, and then to a 1.8 MHz IF. After some amplification, the audio exits the R/T to be routed by the intercom to the operator's headsets. The received signal is in the form of voice, tone, or datea, depending on which mode is used. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the general signal path for a transmit operation. |
|
Definition
| XMT Voice or XMT Data from the intercom system enters the receiver-exciter module where it is amplified and sent to a balanced modulator. There are four stages of amplification, producing a total of 46 dB gain. To get good transmissions, the impedance match between the antenna coupler and R/T must be precise. To achieve this, you must first key the transmitter briefly to get tuning started. This causes the R/T to transmit a reduced-power signal of approximately 100 watts, which is applied to the antenna coupler for tuning. Once in the coupler, the signal goes through a discriminator and filet and sampling network designed to eliminate harmonics. The antenna coupler finally sends it to the antenna to be radiated. |
|
|
Term
| What three purposes does the intercommunications system provide? |
|
Definition
1. Provides crew-tocrew- communications. 2. Provides the ability to select, key, and modulate radio R/Ts. 3. Provides the means to monitor received audio signals from radio and navigational system receivers. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A method of intercommunication requiring a PTT switch. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A method of crew-to-crew communication not requiring a push of a button to activate the MIC. It works in a "hands-free" fashion. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A method of intercommunication used in an emergency. It requires a PTT switch and the audio is amplified. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It's connected to the aircraft chassis/frame. It is used in aircraft wiring to prevent shock hazards by providing the same ground potential for all LRUs. All other grounds (battery and audio common) ultimately connect to the aircraft at the chassis ground. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Or system ground completes the path for current flow back to the power source. All battery grounds connect to the aircraft chassis at the chassis ground. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Also known as audio common and is the return line for all audio voltages. It's connected to aircraft (chassis) ground at one distinct point, and all audio return lines are connected to this point. Audio common is used for noise reduction. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the intercommunication set control would the operator use to select, key, and modulate any one of six different radios? |
|
Definition
| The rotary select switch. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the CALL switch? |
|
Definition
| Used for emergency or high-priority communications between crew members. |
|
|
Term
| What two switches are required to activate HOT-MIC transmit and receive? |
|
Definition
1. HOT-MIC TALK. 2. HOT-MIC LISTEN. |
|
|
Term
| What switches enable crew members to individually monitor and adjust the audio level of eight different inputs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Keying the MIC involves what action by the crew member? |
|
Definition
| Placing the PTT switch into transmit mode of operation using the one- or two-button mode of operation. |
|
|
Term
| What three lines are routed by the rotary select switch of the intercommunication set control? |
|
Definition
1. Control. 2. MIC audio. 3. Receiver audio. |
|
|
Term
| Why is the passive satellite not as effective as the active? |
|
Definition
| Passive satellites do not have any means for amplifying weak signals. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the movement of the geosynchronous satellite. |
|
Definition
| Geosynchronous satellites move at the same velocity as a specific point on the Earth. |
|
|
Term
| What is the power range of satellites generally used in AFSATCOM systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is satellite communications used for most critical communications needs? |
|
Definition
| Because its reliable,k invulnerable, secure, and flexible communications. |
|
|
Term
| How many narrow-band channels are available in the Type 1 terminal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the output power for the Type 1 terminal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| WHAT GROUP? LOS transceiver, Control indicator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| WHAT GROUP? Radio set control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| WHAT GROUP? SATCOM control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What major component is used to prepare and send messages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term used to describe automated channel sharing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are satellite channels allocated? |
|
Definition
| On the basis of current needs and priorities. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of CDMA? |
|
Definition
| A method of supporting multiple users over a single channel by precoordinating the unique frequency each transmitter and associated receiver will use. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of TDMA? |
|
Definition
| A method of supporting multiple users over a single channel by precoordinating the time period each user will be given to transmit on the channel. |
|
|
Term
| What is the term used when two terminals attempt to transmit at the same time and interfere with each other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of ranging? |
|
Definition
| The process where the terminal determines its distance to the satellite. |
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? The IFF equipment is tied with radar equipment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? The IFF indicator is identical to the radar indicator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? The two transmissions from the ground are the IFF interrogation pulse and the radar pulse. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? If the code is incorrect, only the radar echo appears on the radar scope. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? The ground IFF transmission follows the ground radar transmission by 2 microseconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? The airborne IFF equipment replies to a coded ground interrogation signal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True for AIR-TO-GROUND IFF? IFF equipment provides azimuth, range, and identification information. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What item of equipment must be added to an IFF system to obtain SIF capabilities? |
|
Definition
| Adding an antenna on top of the radar antenna. |
|
|
Term
| Besides determining azimuth and aircraft identification, what additional information does SIF equipment provide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define the abbreviation AIMS. |
|
Definition
| Air traffic control radar beacon system, IFF, Mark XII System. |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic series of operations of the IFF transponder? |
|
Definition
| It receives RF interrogations from two antennas, decodes the interrogations into the proper mode, encodes the selected reply, and transmits the coded RF reply. |
|
|
Term
| What IFF mode uses side-lobe suppression pulses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are considered the normal IFF interrogation pulses? |
|
Definition
| Two pulses, each approximately 0.8 microseconds wide. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the information pulses located in a normal reply? |
|
Definition
| Between the framing pulses. |
|
|
Term
| What are the special replies? |
|
Definition
| Identificatino of position and emergency. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four modes of operation of the IFF transponder. |
|
Definition
| Standby, normal, low, and emergency. |
|
|
Term
| What does the audio output indicate? |
|
Definition
| The transponder is being interrogated in Mode 4. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the Mode 4 monitor switch? |
|
Definition
| Controls the REPLY light indications and Mode 4 audio monitoring. |
|
|
Term
| What IFF mode permits a special code to be transmitted for aircraft identification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Mode 3/A SIF code when emergency mnode is selected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the IFF caution light active? |
|
Definition
| Only when a Mode 4 computer is installed. |
|
|
Term
| What term is given to the part of an airfoil facing into the wind during flight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the pressure over the top of an airfoil when the velocity of the airflow is increased? |
|
Definition
| The airflow travels farther and faster, causing the pressure to decrease. |
|
|
Term
| The chord is a straight line drawn from where to where? |
|
Definition
| The most distant part of the leading and trailing edges. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main reasonss why airfoils differ in design. |
|
Definition
| To meet lift and speed requirements. |
|
|
Term
| From where is the angle of attack (AOA) derived? |
|
Definition
| From the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how a high AOA adds to the total lift. |
|
Definition
| Dynamic pressure created on the bottom of the airfoil adds to the total lift. |
|
|
Term
| What is a stall condition. |
|
Definition
| Lift over the airfoil is destroyed. |
|
|
Term
| What four aerodynamic forces affect an aircraft during flight? |
|
Definition
| Gravity, lift, thrust, and drag. |
|
|
Term
| Which force attracts a body to the ground? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What force is produced by an aircraft's power plant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What force does the friction and turbulence of the air produce as it passes over an aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a high AOA necessary at slow-flight airspeeds? |
|
Definition
| Because at slow speeds more lift is required to overcome drag and gravity. |
|
|
Term
| Define the longitudinal axis. |
|
Definition
| An imaginary line that extends from the nose to the tail. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An imaginary line that extends from the left wing tip to the right wing tip. |
|
|
Term
| Define the vertical axis. |
|
Definition
| An imaginary line that extends vertically through the intersection of the X and Y axes. |
|
|
Term
| Left wing down or right wing down is a movement about which axis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the movement about the lateral axis called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the movement about the vertical axis called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Movement about the vertical axis is referenced to what part of the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the ailerons located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do the ailerons move in reference to each other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does symmetrical movement of the stabilators provide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does differential movement of the stabilators control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what is stabilator movement referenced? |
|
Definition
| Trailing edge of the stabilator. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the rudder located? |
|
Definition
| On the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer. |
|
|
Term
| About what axis does the rudder provide control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What control surface prevents an aircraft from stalling when it's slowing down for a landing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For safety reasons, how are flaps activaded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The F-16 aircraft uses what type of control surface in place of ailerons to control roll? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the hydromechanical flight control system use to position flight control surfaces? |
|
Definition
| Mechanical linkage and hydraulic actuators. |
|
|
Term
| What systems provide inputs to the hydraulic actuators? |
|
Definition
| Hydromechanical and control augmentation systems. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the control stick? |
|
Definition
| It provides mechanical inputs to the pitch and roll channels. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the rudder pedals? |
|
Definition
| They provide the pilot with inputs to the directional yaw channel. |
|
|
Term
| What F-15 system provides damping on all three axes? |
|
Definition
| Automatic flight controls system's control augmentation system (CAS). |
|
|
Term
| What components generate electronic signals for the F-16 FLCS? |
|
Definition
| Stick, rudder pedals, and manual trim panel. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main component of the F-16 FLCS? |
|
Definition
| Flight control computer (FLCC). |
|
|
Term
| What mechanical device provides for correct rudder pedal feel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What components make up the air data system? |
|
Definition
| Air data computer, air datat instruments, and air sensors-pitot-static-AOA, and total temperature |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of the ADC? |
|
Definition
| To produce reference data for almost all other aircraft systems. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two pneumatic inputs to the ADC? |
|
Definition
| Indicated static pressure (Psi) and pitot pressure (Pt). |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the heating element in the pitot tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Temperature sensed by the probe. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Difference between Ps and Pt. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Measured angle of the aircraft in flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The undisturbed air through which the aircraft flies. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The pressure measured at the tip of the pitot tube. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pressure corresponding to a given value of static pressure at the aircraft's current altitude. |
|
|
Term
| DEFINE Calibrated airspeed. |
|
Definition
| A function of impact pressure (Qc) when the static pressure (Ps) position error has been compensated for. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The speed of the aircraft relative to the undisturbed air surrouding it. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The angular relationship of the aircraft to the air through which it's traveling as sensed by the AOA transmitter. |
|
|
Term
| What self-contained flight instrument shows aircraft heading with respect to magnetic north? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What unit provides signals to the vertical velocity indicator (VVI)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What systems use the radar altitude for terrain following and low-altitude warning? |
|
Definition
| Automatic flight control system (AFCS), autopilot, LANTIRN navigation pod and the central computer. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two modes of operation for the altimeter? |
|
Definition
| ELECT (primary) and PNEU (secondary). |
|
|
Term
| What are the inputs to the airspeed/Mach indicator? |
|
Definition
| Total and static pressure. |
|
|
Term
| What doe sthe HSI's HDG set know provide? |
|
Definition
| Rotates the heading reference marker. |
|
|
Term
| What does the HSI's bearign pointer provide? |
|
Definition
| Bearing information to the TACAN or INS destination. |
|
|
Term
| What type of information is displayed by the ADI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the ADI OFF warning flag indicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long after power loss can the standby attitude indicator provide usable information? |
|
Definition
| Approximately nine minutes. |
|
|
Term
| What systems are controlled by the display system in addition to the monitoring of vital aircraft systems? |
|
Definition
| Navigation, communications, weapons delivery, and mission data systems. |
|
|
Term
| What method does the multipurpose display processor (MPDP) use to generate and overlay display symbology on the multipurpose displays (MPD) and the multipurpose color displays (MPCD)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What display unit initiates and controls data transfer with the HUD, MPD, and MPCD? |
|
Definition
| Multipurpose display processor (MPDP). |
|
|
Term
| What format is used to dsplay all information on a MPD? |
|
Definition
| Monochromic (green) format. |
|
|
Term
| How many MPDs/MPCDDs are located in each cockpit? |
|
Definition
| Two MPDs in each cockpit, one MPCD in the front cockpit, and two MPCDs in the rear cockpit. |
|
|
Term
| What doe the legends, positioned adjacent to each pushbutton, provide to the crew? |
|
Definition
| Modes and options selectable for operation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of color-coding the displayed data? |
|
Definition
| Aids in quick interpretation of complex formats such as HSI and ADI. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the MPDs and the MPCDs pushbuttons? |
|
Definition
| Controls system selection and data to be displayed. |
|
|
Term
| What type of information is diplayed on the head-up display (HUD) system? |
|
Definition
| Attack symbology and steering information. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the information displayed when using a HUD system? |
|
Definition
| On a combiner glass in the forward field of view. |
|
|
Term
| What is a major benefir of having a HUD system? |
|
Definition
| It keeps the pilot from constantly looking down into the cockpit. |
|
|
Term
| What avionic system optimizes weapon delivery capabilities for a one-man operation? |
|
Definition
| Integrated fire control avionics system. |
|
|
Term
| What F-16 LRUs provide attack mode control and weapon selection? |
|
Definition
| Upfront controls and multifunction displays. |
|
|
Term
| What are the main functions of the fire control computer (FCC)? |
|
Definition
| INterfacing and primary bus controller for the AMUX, BMUX, and DMUX acts as the central computer, performs weapons delivery, navigation functions, and malfunction analysis capabilities. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the upfront controls? |
|
Definition
| Provides a simplified, centralized, head-up means of controlling the most frequently used functions of the communications, navigation, and IFF systems. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary function of the data entry display (DED)? |
|
Definition
| It provides a visual display of switch actions made via the upfront controls. |
|
|
Term
| What system is the heart of the F-15? |
|
Definition
| Central computer complex. |
|
|
Term
| What types of computations does the very high speed integrated circuit (VHSIC) central computer (CC) make? |
|
Definition
| Mission oriented from data recieved from control panels and subsystems aboard the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| What enables the VHSIC CC to retain boresight values? |
|
Definition
| Batteries enable it to retain variable data. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the avionics interface units (AIU)? |
|
Definition
| Controls, processes, and routes interfacing signals between multiple aircraft systems. |
|
|
Term
| What F-15 LRU provides the major interface and controls of avionics systems in both the front and rear cockpits? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The procedure of transmitting many digital signals over a single pair of wires. |
|
|
Term
| What is the time-sharing concept of multiplexing |
|
Definition
| All the information being processed takes turns on the same communication line. |
|
|
Term
| How are information bits processed on MUX lines? |
|
Definition
| Alternately, only one system talking on the line at a time. |
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for the information exchange on a MUX line? |
|
Definition
| It must be quickly and accurately processed, controlled, and routed between systems. |
|
|
Term
| What is considered the central point of a MUX bus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must occur for a remote terminal to communicate on a MUX bus? |
|
Definition
| It has to receive the proper computer word from the bus controller. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a bus controller? |
|
Definition
| It initiates and directs data transfers on the MUX bus. |
|
|
Term
| What type of device is used as a bus controller? |
|
Definition
| A computer that performs all control and computing functions. |
|
|
Term
| What performs the secretarial function on the MUX bus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of computer words used by the MUX bus system? |
|
Definition
| Command, data, and status words. |
|
|
Term
| What device can transmit both command and data words? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of words does the remote terminal transmit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the basic operating principle of all radar? |
|
Definition
| To create a signal and detect its echo. |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics of radio frequency energy make it possible to measure distance in terms of time? |
|
Definition
| RF energy: (1)travels in straight line, (2) at a constant velocity (1nm per 6.2 micro seconds), and (3) it's partially reflected by objects it strikes. |
|
|
Term
| How does a frequency-modulation radar system establish range? |
|
Definition
| It measures the time interval by comparing the frequency of the transmitter with the frequency of the received echo. |
|
|
Term
| What two dimensions must be considered in determining direction of a radar target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pulse property gives Range accuracy, minimum and maximum range, and target resolution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pulse property gives Minimum range and average power? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pulse property gives maximum range and average power? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two types of navigational data that an airborne Doppler radar system provides. |
|
Definition
| Ground speed and drift angle. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly explain the frequency shift for a target moving away |
|
Definition
| Frequency shift decreases. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly explain the frequency shift for a stationary target. |
|
Definition
| Frequency shift remains constant. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly explain the frequency shift for a target closing in. |
|
Definition
| Frequency shift increases. |
|
|
Term
| What component sends trigger pulses to various units to control system operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component generates short bursts of RF energy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component reflects the radar echo into the duplexer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component amplifies the pulse, changes it to video, and sends it to the radar indicator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component operates on a time base that translates into range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three advantages a waveguide has over a two-wire transmision line. |
|
Definition
(1) Less dielectric loss. (2) Less radiation loss. (3) Greater power-handling capability. |
|
|
Term
| Identify the principle disadvantage of a waveguide. |
|
Definition
| Impractical size requirements (dimensions) at lower frequencies (below 3,000 MHz) |
|
|
Term
| Generation and radiation of electromagnetic energy for ECM purposes is the definition of what countermeasure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What characteristic of most radar systems make them vulnerable to jamming? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe an electronic alternative to blocking a radar receiver with highly concentrated RF energy. |
|
Definition
| Inject confusing and/or misleading information. |
|
|
Term
| Chaff is what type of jamming device? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a weakness of chaff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does RAM act as a countermeasure? |
|
Definition
| By absorbing radar energy and attenuating the return. |
|
|
Term
| Flying in the shadow area of radar is an example of what kind of countermeasure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What countermeasure method is assigned to aircraft specially equipped with radar-homing missiles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State the functions provided by a digital stores management system. |
|
Definition
| Stores identification, inventory, and status; weapons activation and control; weapons release, launch, and stores jettison; stores sequencing and weapons delivery rates; verification of stores and weapons; and armament system integrity. |
|
|
Term
| What component of a digital stores management system stores, sends, and computes information used by the entire system? |
|
Definition
| The main computer or computers. |
|
|
Term
| What process is normally used by a digital stores management system to transfer data from computer to computer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What SMS-related system responds to commands by diplaying information on an aircraft's MFD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What aircraft panel is responsible for distributing power throughout the entire aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Through what panel is the selection of gun firing rates normally made? |
|
Definition
| Main armament control panel. |
|
|
Term
| Through what stick grip switch on an aircraft releases munitions? |
|
Definition
| The armament release switch. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of a video display in an aircraft's cockpit? |
|
Definition
| It displays information about the status of the aircraft's weapon system and the munitions that are installed on the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of release priority systems? |
|
Definition
| They control the sequencing of weapons release when more than one station is selected for weapons delivery. |
|
|
Term
| What two aircraft panels are used with each other to facilitate emergency jettison of nuclear weapons? |
|
Definition
| Emergency jettison control panels and the special weapons control panels. |
|
|
Term
| What function is provided by system override panels? |
|
Definition
| They provide a circuit that bypasses the need for the landing gear to be in the UP position before the armament system is able to receive power. |
|
|
Term
| Normally, what is the only connection an EO-guided bomb control system has with the SMS? |
|
Definition
| Weapon and station selection and release activation. |
|
|
Term
| What si the purpose of the nuclear system on nuclear-capable aircraft? |
|
Definition
| To prevent accidental or unauthorized prearming of nuclear weapons and, if necessary, accommodate their delivery. |
|
|
Term
| Weapon system management is accomplished by which LRUs on an F-15? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What F-16 LRU provides the interface between the CIU and the weapon stations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State the two types of bombing systems used in our aircraft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic types of releases incorporated into all aircraft bombing systems? |
|
Definition
| Manual, manual-computed, and automatic (computed). |
|
|
Term
| How is manual release equal to a single-selected weapons release? |
|
Definition
| Manual release alows the release of one bomb from one stations. |
|
|
Term
| What is produced by a manual input to the bombing system during manual-computed weapons release? |
|
Definition
| Release pulses are distributed to the various selected weapons stations. |
|
|
Term
| In what type of release is the proper weapons release time calculated using previously inputted data? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two basic modes of operation in missile systems? |
|
Definition
| Air-to-air and air-to-ground. |
|
|
Term
| How are AIM-7 AIM-9 missiles fired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to nonselected aircraft missile system stations during missile release? |
|
Definition
| They'll automatically be passed over during the firing sequence. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two basic modes of operation in aircraft jettison systems? |
|
Definition
| Selective and emergency jettison. |
|
|
Term
| What type of operation can emergency jettison be equated to? |
|
Definition
| An override mode of operation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Air Force standard system for the movement of concentrated cargo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the dimensions of a 463L pallet? The usable area dimensions? |
|
Definition
| 108 ins. x 88 ins. x 2.25 ins.' the usable cargo area is 104 ins. by 84 ins. |
|
|
Term
| What is the total weight a pallet of cargo secured with nets can weigh? |
|
Definition
| 10,355 lbs. (10,000 lbs. cargo weight + 290 lbs. pallet weight + 65 lbs. side nets and top net weight). |
|
|
Term
| When low-profile cargo is loaded on a pallet that does not permit the use of side nets, on what conditions can a top net be used? |
|
Definition
| Total weight of pallet does not exceed 2,500 lbs., the belly band is positioned to prevent small cargo from sliding out from under the net, the height of the cargo does not exceed 45 in.s from the surface of the palle, and all top net hooks are fastened to the pallet tie-down rings. |
|
|
Term
| Pallets must be in good condition. for what reasons would you reject a pallet for transportation? |
|
Definition
| Pallets with excessive mud, dirt, or oil on them. Palets/nets with missing |
|
|
Term
| Describe what is unique about the 10K adverse terrain forlift's steering. What is such steering called? |
|
Definition
| Steering is accomplished by pivoting the front frame with respect to the rear frame. This is called an articulated frame or steering. |
|
|
Term
| How long must forlift tines be to be used with 463L pallets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When rolling stock has loose items, what must you ensure about this cargo? |
|
Definition
| It must be carefully checked to ensure all losse itmes are secure. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a type of aidrop and a method of airdrop? |
|
Definition
| Method of airdrop refers to the way the loads exit the aircraft. Type of airdrop refers to the rate of descent of the loads. |
|
|
Term
| On a high-velocity drop, what type of parachute is used and why? |
|
Definition
| Stabilizing parachute-attatched to the top of the load to hold it upright. |
|
|
Term
| What type of airdrop uses a large, clear drop zone and why? |
|
Definition
| Low-velocity. This type of drop requires a large, clear drop zone because it usually consists of larg, complex loads. |
|
|
Term
| Waht method of airdrop is being used when the load has to be pushed out of the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method of airdrop is being used when the aircraft is flown at nose-high attitude at the release point? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between HALO and HAHO? |
|
Definition
| The only difference between these to free-fall jumps, is the altitude at which the parachutes are opened HALO is low altitude and HAHO is higher altitudes. |
|
|
Term
| What C-17 subsystem provides control for the cargo handling and missions system? |
|
Definition
| System integration subsystem. |
|
|
Term
| What copmponents make up the forward loadmaster subsystem? |
|
Definition
| Pilot,copilot ADS control panel, and the ADS backup control pane, and forward CDSCS. |
|
|
Term
| What panel serves as the primary interface between operating personnel and the aircraft cargo delivery system? |
|
Definition
| Forward cargo delivery system control-status panel (CDSC-SP) |
|
|