Term
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Definition
| inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase without effect upon CNS or need for monitoring levels |
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Term
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Definition
| treat high blood pressure. Dilates small arteriols |
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Term
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Definition
| treat CHF, act as recombinant form of the 32 amino acid human B-type natriuretic peptide |
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Term
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Definition
| tyrosine kinase inhibitor |
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Term
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Definition
| a benzodiazepam drug that binds to increase action of GABA |
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Term
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Definition
| chelating agent used to treat arsenic poisoning |
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Term
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Definition
| antihistamine with anti 5HT activity. used to treat serotonine syndrome |
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Term
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Definition
| MAOi, useful for atypical depression |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| antiepileptic, can cause steven-johnson syndrome |
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Term
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Definition
| aldosterone receptor antagonist |
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Term
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Definition
| antidyrhythmics, with toxicity of visual and GI disturbances |
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Term
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Definition
| Vinca alkaloid, inhibit microtubule formation, causes neurotoxicity |
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Term
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Definition
| antitumor antibotics, inhibits topoisomerase II |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Inhibits peripheral lipolysis, decreases hepatic free fatty acid extraction, inhibits synthesis and increases clearance of VLDL carrier apolipoprotein B, mechanism of increased HDL unknow |
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Term
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Definition
| used to stop heparin, it binds to it |
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Term
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Definition
| low molecular wt heparin, activates antithrombin III and inhibit factor Xa |
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Term
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Definition
| nucleatide analog, interferes with DNA polymerase to inhibit DNA replication via chain termination |
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Term
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Definition
| long acting benzodiazepine, increase risk of daytime drawsiness |
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Term
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Definition
| reversible COMT inhibitor that prolongs half life of levodopa in Parkinsonia Pts |
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Term
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Definition
| Used to lower serum lipid, blinds to intestinal bile acids...which increases hepatic cholesterol synthesis...increased risk for gallstone |
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Term
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Definition
| similar to bisphosphonate, inhibit osteoclast activity, reducing bone resorption and turnover |
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Term
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Definition
| anticholinergic, neurotransmitter reuptake inhibitor |
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Term
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Definition
| GnRH analog, decreases LH and FSH |
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Term
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Definition
| K+ sparing diuretics. blocks Na+ channels in the cortical collecting tubule |
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Term
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Definition
| anti-seizure and metabolized to phenobarbital |
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Term
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Definition
| used to relieve the pain of peripheral neuropathy. Binds to neuronal transient potential vanilloid receptor 1, depletes substance P, decreases substance P |
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Term
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Definition
| non-selective beta blocker |
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Term
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Definition
| inhibits thyroid peroxidase activity |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| atropine and side effects |
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Definition
muscarinic antagonist
Side effects: hot as a hare dry as a bone red as a beet blind as a bat mad as a hatter bloated as a toad |
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Term
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Definition
| interferes with DNA polymerase to inhibit DNA replication via chain termination |
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Term
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Definition
| Monoclonal antibody that blinds to CD3 (epsilon chain) on the surface of T cells. Blocks cellular interaction with CD3 protein responsible for T cell signal transduction |
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Term
| erythropoietin side effect |
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Definition
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Term
| causes of cleft lip and cleft palate |
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Definition
| unknown and mutlifactorial |
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Term
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Definition
diabetes drug initially incr beta cell insulin secretion also decr reate of hepatic glucose production, incr insulin receptor sensitivity, and incr # of insulin receptors |
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Term
Metronidazole mech clinical use toxicity |
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Definition
Forms toxic metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA. Bactericidal, antiprotozoal. treats Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella vaginalis, Anaerobes (bacteroides, clostridium). Used with bismuth and amoxicillin (or tetracycline) for "triple therapy" against H. Pylori. Toxicity: Disulfiram like reaction with EtOH, headache, metallic taste |
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Term
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Definition
for chronic gout. Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT also inhibits secretion of PCN |
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Term
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Definition
inhibit synthesis of components needed for mitosis The most serious complication of bleomycin is pulmonary fibrosis and impaired lung function |
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Term
cyclosporine mech clinical use toxicity |
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Definition
blinds to cyclophilins. complex blocks the differentiation and activation of the T cells by inhibiting calcineurin, thus preventing the production of IL-2 and its receptor. Suppresses organ rejection after transplantation, selected autoimmune disorders predisposes patients to viral infections and lymphoma, nephrotoxic(preventable with mannitol diuresis) |
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Term
tranylcypromine mech clinical use toxicity |
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Definition
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, incr levels of amine neurotransmitters. aptypical depression, anxiety, hypochondriasis. hypertensive crisis with tyramine ingestion (in many foods, suck as wine and cheese) and beta agonists; CNS stimulation. Contraindicated with SSRIs or meperidine (to prevent serotonin syndrome) |
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Term
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Definition
| a tropane alkaloid drug with muscarinic antagonist effects |
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Term
Dopamine's different at different concentrations Low Medium High |
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Definition
low: D1=D2 Medium: Beta High: alpha |
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Term
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Definition
used to treat BPH and male baldness inhibits type II 5 alpha-reductase, interfering with conversion of testosterone to DHT |
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Term
| what intrapartum antibiotics are used to treat group B strep colonization of vagina/rectum? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| diabetes drug that decreases insulin resistance |
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Term
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Definition
| binds ergosterol and also to some degree cholesterol. causes nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia |
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Term
| what do you need to watch out for when prescribing TNF-alpha inhibitor |
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Definition
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Term
| 1st generation antihistamine |
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Definition
hydroxyzine promethazine chlorpheniramine diphenhydramine
Side effects include anti-muscarinic, anti-serotonergic, and anti-alpha |
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Term
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Definition
| 2nd generation antihistamine that does not cross BBB |
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Term
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Definition
| anti-fungal, not absorbed from GI, binds to ergosterol and is the drug of choice for oropharygeal candidiasis in immuno-compromised pts |
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Term
| What is the most common cause of death by TCA? |
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Definition
death by refractory hypotension and cardiac arrhythmia. Through inhibition of fast Na cahnnel in cardiac myocyte and His Purkinje system. Treat with hypertonic sodium bicarbonate |
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Term
| What are the 5 action of TCA? what are the 5 side effects? |
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Definition
1. block NE and 5HT reuptake 2. block cardiac fast Na channel. 3. Antagonism of central and peripheral ACh receptors 4. Antagonism of peripheral alpha-1-adrenergic recepters. 5. Antagonism of H1 receptors Side effects 1. tremor, insomia 2. conduction defects, arrhythmias, hypotension. 3. hyperthermia, flushing, dilated pupils. intestinal iileus, urinary retenion, sinus tachycardia. 4. peripheral vasodilation. (orthostatic hypotension. 5. sedation |
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Term
| can prednisone cause osteoporosis? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Chelates copper and other heavy metals, removing excess; combines with cystine, resulting in more soluable compound for excretio, preventing cystine calculi. Also has anti-rheumatic mech of unknown action |
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Term
| small jaws (micrognathia), small eyes (microphthalmia), malformed and low set ears, foot malformation (rocker-bottom feet) prominent occiput, CLENCHED HANDS WITH OVERLAPPING FINGERS |
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Definition
| Ediwards syndrome (trisomy 18) |
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Term
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Definition
inhibits tubulin polymerization and microtubule formation in leukocytes->reduce nuetriphil chemotaxis and migration. many pt develop diarrhea b/c gastrointestinal mucosa are affected |
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Term
| mech of acetaminophen toxicity |
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Definition
| depletion of reduced glutathion |
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Term
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Definition
| binds intestinal bile acids |
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Term
| Can we use non-selective beta blockers for DM? |
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Definition
| no...it will mask the adrenergic symptoms. Use beta 1 blocker if you have to |
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Term
| what happens if you take appetite suppressant like feufluramine or phetemine for a long time? |
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Definition
| Pulmonary hypertension->right ventricular hypertrophy. |
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Term
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Definition
| breaks disulfide bonds, decreasing musus viscosity; replenishes glutathione. |
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Term
| tetrodotoxin and sexitoxin |
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Definition
| from puffer fish, blocks sodium channel. causes paralysis...pt stops breathing |
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Term
| what do adenosine and Ach do to the heart? |
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Definition
| redce the rate of spontaneous depolarization in cardiac pacemaker cells |
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Term
| nitroprusside use and poisoning |
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Definition
| used for emergency hypertension. Can cause cyanide poisoning. Treat with sodium thiosulfate |
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Term
| what kind of defect does valporic acid cause for the developing fetus? |
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Definition
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Term
| can cholestyramine increase TG level? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Tobramycin and ampicillin together have synergistic effects? |
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Definition
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Term
| Pt w/ history of seizure and mental illness presents with gingival hyperplasia, what has he been using? |
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Definition
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Term
| what the life threatening side effect of clozapine? |
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Definition
| agranulocytosis, decr WBC, requires weekly WBC monitoring |
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Term
| What is the piperacillin/tazobactam combo's benefit? |
|
Definition
| Tazobactam inhbits beta lactamase |
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Term
| what's the treatment of choice for lyme disease? |
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Definition
early stage: doxycycline late stage: ceftriaxone |
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Term
| what's the treatment of choice for testicular cancer and what is its main side effect? |
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Definition
Bleomycin it causes pulmonary fibrosis |
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Term
| what color does phenolphthalein into when in acidic environment? in alkaline environment? |
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Definition
acidic: colorless alkaline: pink/red |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| An infant presents with severe lower respiratory tract infection. Tissue culture shows a virus causing development of multinucleated cells. What's the diagnosis? what drug do you use to treat? |
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Definition
Human respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) treat with ribavirin |
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Term
| What is ursodeoxycholic acid? |
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Definition
| its used for decrease concentration of bile acids |
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Term
| what drug are selective strogen receptor modifiers (SERM)? they function as receptor antagonists in breast, agonists in bone? |
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Definition
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Term
| Does raloxifene cause endometrial carcinoma? |
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Definition
| no, because it is an endometrial antagonist |
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Term
| what are the two most immediate physical symptoms of marijuana use? |
|
Definition
rapid heart rate conjunctival injection (red eye) |
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Term
| does cimetidine induce or inhibits P-450? |
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Definition
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Term
| what drug do you give to pt who has peptic ulcer who wants to cont to take NSAID? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| for insomnia...has the low risk of tolerance and dependence |
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Term
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Definition
| TCA, block uptake of NE and serotonin |
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Term
| what medication can cause body fat redistribution syndrome? |
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Definition
| HIV-1 protease inhibitor and glucocorticoids |
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Term
| What's special about fenoldopam? |
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Definition
| Used for treating malignant hypertension. Dopamine D1 receptor agonist-relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle. |
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Term
| what do you need to monitor if you are treating your DM pt with thiazolidinediones? |
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Definition
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Term
| what's the first line treatment for acute gouty arthritis? |
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Definition
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Term
| what old antihypertensive drug still used in economically disadvantaged regions causes depression by decreasing NE and 5-HT? |
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Definition
| Reserpine, it's an sympatholytic by blocking storage of adrenergic mediator in presynaptic vesicles to reduce synaptic cleft concentration of norepinephrine. |
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Term
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Definition
| for HIV, inhibits reverse transcriptase |
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Term
| how do you treat acetaminophen toxicity and what's the mech? |
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Definition
| treated w/ sulfhydryl group supplementation. N-acetylcysteine provides that. |
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Term
| what's the advantage of using buspirone for generalized anxiety disorder? |
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Definition
| it's an partial 5-HT agonist, therefore does not cause sedation, addiction, or tolerance. |
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Term
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Definition
| binds to platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors, inhibiting aggregation. |
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Term
| what drug is used to suppress organ rejection after transplantation, blinds to cyclophilins. Complex blocks the differentiation and activation of T cells by inhibiting calcineurin, thus preventing the production of IL-2 and its receptor? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| pyrimidine analog bioactivated to 5F-dUMP, which covalently complexes folic acid. This complex inhibits thymidylate synthase -> decr dTMP -> decr DNA and decr protein synthesis |
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Term
| How does hydroxyurea work? |
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Definition
| inhibits ribonucleotide reductase -> decr DNA synthesis (S-phase specific) |
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Term
| to speed recover from muscle relaxant such as tubocurarine, what two drugs are used? |
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Definition
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Term
| what is risperidone used to treat? |
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Definition
Schizophrenia it blocks 5HT2, alpha, H1 and dopamine receptors. |
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Term
| what's the drug of choice in diagnosing/abolishing supraventricular tachycardia and is also very short acting? |
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Definition
adenosine incr K+ out of cell->hyperpolarizing the cell + decr intracellular Ca |
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Term
| what's mefloquine used for? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| partial agonist at serotonin receptor |
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Term
| what's glyburide and what does it do? |
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Definition
| it's a sulfonylurea and closes K+ channel in beta cell membrane, so cell depolarizes -> triggering of insulin release via incr'd Ca++ influx |
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Term
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Definition
low molecular weight heparin blinds to antithrombin III and accelerates activity, inhibiting thrombin and Factor Xa. Less monitoring required than heparin |
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Term
what's sulfasalazine what is it used for? mech? |
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Definition
for ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease only works in terminal ileitis, or colon. don't worry about exact mech, it's activated by colonic bacteria |
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Term
| if a pt with DM2 and HTN is put on Niacin, how should his/her DM2 and HTN meds be adjusted? |
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Definition
increase DM2 meds due to insulin resistance decrease HTN meds due to flushing |
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Term
| a pt is diagnosed with a vascular tumor that features CD31...what tumor is it? |
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Definition
CD21 is aka PECAM1 Liver angiosarcoma |
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Term
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Definition
| a PDE inhibitor used in Pt w/ intermittent claudication. In addition to inhibition of platelet aggregation, cilostazol is also a direct arterial vasodilator. |
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Term
| what's the mech of colchicine? |
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Definition
| blocking tubulin polymerization and thus disrupt chemotaxis and phagocytosis |
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Term
| what are the toxicities of statin drugs? |
|
Definition
hepatotoxicity and myopathy elevation of creatinine kinase |
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Term
| if statin and fibrate are used together, what are the risks? |
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Definition
| elevated risk of myopathy |
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Term
|
Definition
| it stimulates dopamine receptor |
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Term
|
Definition
| it's a partial opioid agonist |
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Term
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Definition
| inhibit formation of cortisol, corticosterone and alsosterone |
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Term
| what are the two classic drugs that induce lupus and through what mech? |
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Definition
| hydralazine and procainamide. through N-acetylation in liver. |
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Term
| what causes the rapid plasma decade of bartiturates for pt under going anesthesia? |
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Definition
| redistribution of the drug to other tissues |
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Term
| what drugs can you give a demented pt to help sleep? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| what's halothane's toxicity? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| what antibiotic is used for meningococcal prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs are inhibitors of P-450? |
|
Definition
(SICKPAGE) Sulfonamides Isoniazid Cimetidine Ketoconazole Protease inhibitors Acute alcohol use Grapefruit jice Erythromycin |
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|
Term
| what durg treats both BPH and HTN at the same time? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug do you use to control carcinoid syndromes? |
|
Definition
| octreotide (synthetic somatostatin analog) |
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|
Term
| which bile acid resins also happen to bind to C. diff toxins? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| which lipid lowering drug actually has the side affect of incr plaque thickness? |
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Definition
|
|