Term
| What is a commander’s evaluation for, and what does it consist of? |
|
Definition
TC 1-696, para 2-8; Commander’s Evaluation determines the initial RL level, it consists of a records review and possible a Proficiency Flight Evaluation. |
|
|
Term
How long does each crewmember have to present his or her individual flight records (IFRF and IATF) to the new unit to which assigned or attached for ATP purposes after reporting for duty?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___________________ determines the initial RL of newly assigned crewmembers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the initial RL cannot be determined by a records review or if the commander desires, the crewmember will undergo a proficiency flight evaluation (PFE). What tasks should the PFE include?
|
|
Definition
The PFE should include tasks from each flight mode in which the crewmember can expect to perform duties.
|
|
|
Term
| The ATP training year is divided into semiannual training periods. When does the first training period begin for Active Army and USAR crewmembers? |
|
Definition
| The first day following their birth month. |
|
|
Term
| What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 3 personnel? |
|
Definition
| No Flying requirements for FAC 3 |
|
|
Term
| What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 2 personnel? |
|
Definition
| 12 Hours, of which 4 hours must be recorded in crew station. |
|
|
Term
| What are the flying hour requirements for FAC 1 personnel? |
|
Definition
| 24 hours, of which 8 hours must be recorded in each crew station. |
|
|
Term
| FAC 1 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ___ simulation hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flying-hour requirements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| FAC 2 UAC’s may apply a maximum of __ simulation hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flying-hour requirements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to ATM, the commander directs a Proficiency Flight Evaluation to be conducted for 3 reasons. What are 2 of them? |
|
Definition
| Initial RL determination, when proficiency is in question, when currency has lapsed. |
|
|
Term
| After conducting a PFE the examiner will debrief the individual and record the event on DA form ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
According to AR 95-23, there are 4 hands-on evaluations that could be given to an UAC. Name two.
|
|
Definition
Standardization flight eval
Proficiency flight eval
Post Mishap eval
Medical eval |
|
|
Term
| What are the currency requirements for UACs? |
|
Definition
Every 60 consecutive days, 1 take-off and landing with 1 hour of flight operations of the UAS or compatible simulator.
Every 120 consecutive days, 1 take-off and landing with 1 hour of flight operations of the UAS. |
|
|
Term
| According to 95-23, ground observers will be evaluated how often? |
|
Definition
| Semi-annually, according to unit SOP and training program. |
|
|
Term
| According to 95-23, ground crewmembers will be evaluated how often? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does flying time start for a fixed-wing UAS? |
|
Definition
| When the aircraft begins to move forward on the take-off roll. |
|
|
Term
| Units deployed for contingency operations, the first ___ commander may waive launch and recovery currency requirements. Prior to resuming launch and recovery duties, personnel must demonstrate proficiency to an IO. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Commanders (LTC/O-5) and above may grant unit waivers and/or extensions, up to 180 days, to ATP requirements for units under their command during operational deployments. |
|
Definition
| FALSE. Commanders of the rank of O-6 and above may grant waivers. |
|
|
Term
Commanders and above and the state Army aviation officer (SAAO) may grant unit waivers and/or extensions to ATP requirements (for up to 180 days) for units under their command, or state and/or territory affected by operational deployments.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first commander, and above, in the individual’s chain of command.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When UACs have not flown with the past days, they will receive refresher training prescribed in the appropriate UAS ATM.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Active Army UACs have 90 consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next. Readiness level progression will exclude days lost because of 5 reasons. List 3 of the 5 reasons. |
|
Definition
Leave approved by the Commander
TDY
Grounding of UAS
Lack of equipment due to deployment / redeployment.
Medical or non-medical suspension |
|
|
Term
| How many days does an Active Army crew member have to progress from one RL level to the next? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 to RL 2 or 3 for a training deficiency does he/she still have to satisfy their APART requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 or FAC 3 for other than a training deficiency before the end of the training period (example: PCS), do their ATP requirements still apply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When could an individual deviate from regulatory guidance outlined in AR 95-23?
|
|
Definition
| During emergencies, to the extent necessary to meet that emergency |
|
|
Term
| Individuals who deviate from the provisions of AR 95-23, FAA regulations, or host-country regulations must report details of the incident directly to __________________. The incident must be reported within ________ after it occurs. |
|
Definition
| Their unit commander, 24 Hours |
|
|
Term
| When conducting an evaluation, what are the 4 evaluation steps as outline in TC 1-696. |
|
Definition
| Introduction, Academic Eval, Flight Eval, Debriefing |
|
|
Term
List 2 of the 3 reasons Commanders prorate flying-hour/simulator minimums.
|
|
Definition
Is newly designated RL 1
Has the primary UAS re-designated
Changes duty position, which involves a change in the FAC level |
|
|
Term
| Commanders in the grade of ____ and above will develop and publish policies and procedures for the mission approval process for those UAS units under their command. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefing officers and/or NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of ____ or above to identify, assess, and mitigate risk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Self briefing is not authorized unless approved by the first officer in the grade of ____or above in the chain of command. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a High Risk mission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a Moderate Risk mission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Commanders will implement the mishap prevention program set up by _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Procedures for reporting and investigating UAS mishaps are prescribed in ___________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army UA or related personnel and equipment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The commander will investigate when ATP requirements are not met.The commander will complete the investigation within ___ days of notification of the failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For UAC’s who fail to meet ATP requirements: the commander will investigate, and complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of failure. After investigating, the commander will initiate any of the following except:
a) Authorize up to one 30 day extension granted by 0-5 or above to complete the requirements
b) Request a waiver
c) Enter restrictions imposed and extensions granted into the UAC’s IATF
d) Grant the waiver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False: Simulators may not be used to reestablish currency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can an APART standardization flight evaluation be conducted on the simulator? |
|
Definition
Yes, if approved by the first 0-5 or above in the chain of command on a case by case basis. |
|
|
Term
| DA form 5484 (mission brief sheet) will be retained in unit files with the corresponding risk assessment worksheet for at least ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
No notice evaluations may be what kind of evaluations?
a) written
b) Oral
c) Flight
d) Simulator
e) All Of The Above
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Operators shall avoid overflying sensitive areas and wildlife conservation areas below _________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to AR-95-23 para (5-2C), “flight weather planning”; before takeoff operators will obtain what information? |
|
Definition
| Departure, enroute, destination, and alternate (if used) weather information. |
|
|
Term
| Warrant Officers who hold the MOS 150U and/or Officers holding a US Army aeronautical rating that _________ completed UAS qualification course _________ perform payload operator duties on a limited basis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of AR 95-23is to establish procedures rules and responsibilities for?
a) Command, control, operations, and use of DA UAS
b) The DA UAS standardization program
c) The UAS Weight and Balance
d) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ultimate responsibility for obtaining a complete weather briefing is the ______________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the acronym APART stand for?
|
|
Definition
| Annual Proficiency and Readiness Test |
|
|
Term
| During RL progression if the exclusion period exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen when an operator has not RL progressed within the required period? |
|
Definition
| UAC must re-start current RL progression |
|
|
Term
If the exclusion period exceeds _____consecutive days, operators must restart their current RL progression.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Concurrent days (example simultaneous medical suspension and TDY) may be added together. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
USAR crewmembers have __________to progress from one RL to the next.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to TC 1-696 the evaluation sequence consists of _____ phases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When must a birth month closeout of the DA form 759 in the IFRF be completed? |
|
Definition
| Within 10 working days of the end of the birth month. |
|
|
Term
| Annual chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRNE) training is mandatory for all________ and those ________positions selected by the commander. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The UAS ________________ is the commander’s technical advisor and helps develop, implement, and manage the ATP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Commanders use the DA Form _______ series to inform crewmembers of ATP flying hour, task, and evaluation requirements.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements for FAC 1 are? |
|
Definition
| 8 Hours, 3 of which must be recorded in each crew station. |
|
|
Term
| Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements for FAC 2 are? |
|
Definition
| 4 hours, of which 1 hour must be recorded in each crew station. |
|
|
Term
| Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements for FAC 3 are? |
|
Definition
| 3 hours in each crew station |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Unit Trainers are authorized to evaluate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A UAC progresses from RL 3 to RL 2 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A UAC progresses from RL 2 to RL 1 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks? |
|
Definition
| 2000 Series mission tasks and additional 3000 Series Tasks |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander has up to 45 days to complete the investigation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to AR 95-23, when waiver authority is not specified in specific paragraphs, waivers to provisions in Chapters 2 through 5 may only be granted by__________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of _____ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of 50 objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. Operators must pass this exam with a passing score of _____%.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A FAC 3 demonstrated proficiency in Base tasks to an IO initially within 90 days of being designated FAC 3, how often must he now demonstrate his proficiency in Base Tasks to an IO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. A commander can change a UAC’s FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _____________ is the primary training manager and trainer for his/her unit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IAW TC 1-696, can a Local Area Orientation be conducted in a simulator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In areas where extreme environmental conditions preclude safe operation of the UAS for periods excluding 120 consecutive days is currency waiverable by the ACOM commander? |
|
Definition
| No, currency cannot be waived, but the use of the simulator can be authorized to maintain currency for up to 180 days with ACOM/ASCC/DRU/USSOCOM/ Commander Army Reserve, or Chief National Guard Bureau approval |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. A UAC who is not current may perform MC duties. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. A medically grounded UAC can perform MC duties. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Graduates of the UAS qualification course who are on their first utilization tour can be designated RL 2 or RL 1 based on a records review. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a graduate from a UAS qualification course, on their first utilization tour, completes a PFE and LAO on his/her first flight at a new unit, can the Commander via the Commanders Eval designate said person RL1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Aerial demonstrations in support of civil or military official functions are considered Special Use Missions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Static demonstrations on a military installation are considered Special Use Missions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What (re) training requirements apply when a crewmember returns to an operational flying position after not having flown within the previous 180 days? |
|
Definition
| Must be designated RL3 and receive refresher training |
|
|
Term
| Refresher training is for an operator to regain proficiency in _________ and all __________________ for the duty position. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If more than ___ months remain in the crewmembers training year, they must complete at least one iteration of each task in each mode indicated on their list.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If less than _____months remain in the crewmembers training year, the crewmember will not have task and iteration requirements unless specified by the commander. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. During a training deficiency, ATP requirements met while RL2/3 will be applied to RL 1 requirements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is simulator use authorized to conduct a Post accident flight evaluation? |
|
Definition
| Yes, it is recommended in order to more accurately duplicate the conditions related to the accident. |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. A UAC must complete a local area orientation before progressing to RL 2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Simulator requirements for a FAC 3 UAC cannot be waived. |
|
Definition
| FALSE, Should not be waived |
|
|
Term
| What must a UAC do once his currency has lapsed to reestablish currency? |
|
Definition
| Complete a PFE according to the ATM |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Unit trainers are not authorized to credit those hours they fly while performing their duties toward their semiannual flying hour minimums. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. FAC Levels and RL levels do not apply to UAS ground crewmembers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Tasks evaluated in a more demanding mode may be credited toward completion of each task required by the ATM during RL progression. “N” is considered the most demanding mode, followed by “D”, and “SM”. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| “Appropriate normal and emergency procedures training for UAS ground crewmembers is conducted by a __________.” |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Commanders reduce minimums by one month for each ____ days the crewmember was unable to fly for the following reasons: TDY, Medical Suspension, Non Medical Suspension, Grounding of the UAS, Systems are unavailable or in transit due to unit deployment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On the DA Form 7120-1-R, what does the “E” in the task and iteration section indicate? |
|
Definition
| Mandatory for annual evaluations |
|
|
Term
| Is an IATF required for a UAS ground crewmember? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does flying time start for a fixed-wing UAS? |
|
Definition
| When the UAS begins to move forward on the takeoff roll. |
|
|
Term
True or False: FAC 3 personnel do not have currency requirements, and they are not subject to readiness levels.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to TC-1-696, certain events on the DA Form 7122-R require the commander's approval and signature. What are these events? |
|
Definition
Nonmedical suspensions
Flight (or other proficiency) suspensions
Crewmember's return to duty after these two events
Extensions or waivers |
|
|
Term
| When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander will complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of the failure. After investigating, the UAS unit commander will choose one of two options. What are they? |
|
Definition
Authorize the UAC up to one 30-day extension to complete the requirements.
Request a waiver of requirements
per paragraph 4-2b. |
|
|
Term
| The mission approval process consists of three phases, last step being the final mission approval. What are the first two steps? |
|
Definition
Initial Mission Approval
Mission Planning and Briefing |
|
|
Term
What are contour lines on a map?
|
|
Definition
| Lines that depict elevations on a map. |
|
|
Term
| What are three of the five major terrain features on a map? |
|
Definition
Hill
Valley
Saddle
Ridge
Depression |
|
|
Term
| What are two of the three minor terrain features on a map? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two supplementary terrain features on a map? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the minimum visibility and cloud clearance for operations within Class D airspace? |
|
Definition
3 Statute Miles
1,000ft Above
500ft Below
2,000ft horizontal |
|
|
Term
| According to 95-23, at takeoff, the aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of what? |
|
Definition
VFR Day: 30 Minutes
VFR Night: 45 Minutes |
|
|
Term
| Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival through _____after estimated time of arrival. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. VFR flight is authorized in Class A airspace provided there is 5 SM visibility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the visibility requirements for Class B airspace? |
|
Definition
| 3 Statute Miles, Clear of Clouds |
|
|
Term
| What are the visibility requirements for Class C airspace? |
|
Definition
3 Statute Miles
1,000ft Above
500ft Below
2,000ft Horizontal |
|
|
Term
| What are the visibility requirements for Class E airspace below 10,000ft MSL? |
|
Definition
3 Statute Miles
1,000ft Above
500ft Below
2,000ft Horizontal |
|
|
Term
| What are the visibility requirements for Class E airspace above 10,000ft MSL? |
|
Definition
5 Statute Miles
1,000ft Above
1,000ft Below
1 Statute Mile Horizontal |
|
|
Term
Name two types of weather forecasts.
|
|
Definition
TAF: Terminal Aerodome Forcast
AF: Area Forcasts |
|
|
Term
| What weight and balance classification is Gray Eagle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For Weight and Balance purposes, the MQ-1C is classified as a Class 2 aircraft. There are 5 events that would require a class 2 aircraft to be re-weighed, name two of the five reasons. |
|
Definition
Overhauls or major airframe repairs have been accomplished.
Modifications of 1 percent or greater of the UAs basic weight have been applied.
Any modifications or component replacements (including painting) have been made
for which the weight and center of gravity cannot be accurately computed.
Weight and center of gravity data records are suspected to be in error.
The period since the previous weighing exceeds 24 months for a class 2 UA.
|
|
|
Term
Each unmanned aircraft will be weighed when the period since the previous weighing reaches _______ months for a Class 2 unmanned aircraft.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On what form would an individual find out when the next scheduled maintenance is due on the aircraft?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Army Aviator’s Flight Records form is also known as a DA form____________? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The _____is responsible for accurately completing the DA Form 2408-12.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form is used to permanently record all individual crewmember evaluations, summaries of DA Form 4507-R and any other change in crewmember status or other significant events? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the FM 3-04.300, what DA form series is used to maintain flight records and provide the unit commander a means to track total hours while monitoring compliance with aircrew training programs (ATPs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Crewmember flight records folder |
|
|
Term
| When must a crewmember certify/sign the DA Form 7120-3-R? |
|
Definition
| At the end of the ATP year, to certify that the CM has or has not completed ATP requirements. |
|
|
Term
| When must a crewmember certify/sign the DA Form 7120-R? |
|
Definition
| Initially at the beginning of the training year, after the commander. |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DCMA) form 644? |
|
Definition
| Request for flight approval |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DD) form 2627? |
|
Definition
| Request for Government Approval for Aircrew Qualification and training. |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DD) form 2628? |
|
Definition
| Request for Approval of Contractor Crewmember |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is the (DD) 1821 form (s)? |
|
Definition
| Contractor Crewmember Records |
|
|
Term
When making turns of greater than 3 degrees, taxi speeds and turn rates should be limited to what? |
|
Definition
| 5 knots ground speed, 20 degrees per second |
|
|
Term
| What is the MQ-1C maximum ramp weight? |
|
Definition
1.7L engine: 3200lbs
2.0L engine: 3600lbs |
|
|
Term
| At what point should the AO declare a fuel emergency? |
|
Definition
| If it becomes apparent that the aircraft will land with less than 30 lbs |
|
|
Term
| What is the MQ-1C landing gear operating speed (VLO)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Maneuvering Speed ( Va) for the MQ-1C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum tailwind allowed for ATLS landings, IAW AWR and TM-10? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Best Endurance Airspeed can be found in what VIT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Never exceed speed ( Vne ) for the MQ-1C? |
|
Definition
| 130 KIAS or 180 KTAS, whichever is lower |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum runway length at or below 9000ft DA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aircraft will not be intentionally flown into known or forecast ___________turbulence or into known ___________ turbulence.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircraft will not be flown into _______ or ________ severe icing conditions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do the following weather acronyms stand for?
WS, OVC, SKC, BR
|
|
Definition
WS: Wind Shear
OVC: Overcast
SKC: Skies Clear
BR: Mist |
|
|
Term
| Explain this weather report: “08020G38KT” |
|
Definition
| Winds from "080" degrees, at 20kts gusting to 38kts |
|
|
Term
| Anytime an operational limit is exceeded, what must crewmembers do at the end of the flight? |
|
Definition
| Anytime an operational limit is exceeded, an appropriate entry shall be made on DA Form 2808-13-1. Entry shall state what limits or limits were exceeded ( i.e. Range time beyond limits) and any additional data that might aid maintenance personnel in any required maintenance actions. |
|
|
Term
| When the aircraft is in the Automatic Take-off and Landing System (ATLS) and engine failure occurs at a range less than __________ or within _________ from touchdown point, the operator should continue the landing approach. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the extended emergency checklist procedure for Dual Alternator Failure, step 7 directs you to monitor battery voltage. Where can you monitor the battery voltage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What AR covers flight restrictions due to exogenous factors?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define the medical term “exogenous” |
|
Definition
| Caused by factors or an agent outside the organism or system |
|
|
Term
| How long will you be restricted from flying duties after an immunization shot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are four classes of a Flight Duty Medical Exam (FDME). Which class is required for military UAS personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for __ hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia and for a minimum of __ hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you have a reaction to that any immunization shot, how long will you be restricted from flying duties? |
|
Definition
| Until cleared by a flight surgeon or APA |
|
|
Term
| Following blood donation (200 cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of __ hours. Following plasma donation, aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of __ hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
TRUE OR FALSE. Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircrew members requiring corrective lenses in order to achieve 20/20 vision will be restricted from flying duties unless they are wearing either __________ or _________________ which provide 20/20, or better, near and far vision bilaterally. |
|
Definition
| spectacles, contact lenses |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of vision? |
|
Definition
| mesopic, photopic, scotopic |
|
|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. A crewmember can wear contact lenses during flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mission Brief is at 0500 for a 0700 takeoff, what time do you have to stop drinking alcoholic beverages the night prior? |
|
Definition
| (1700) Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of 12 hours after the last drink consumedand until no residual effects remain. |
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Term
| The non-specific response of the body to any demand placed upon it is known as: |
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Definition
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Term
| Any stimulus or event that requires an individual to adjust or adapt in some way emotionally, physiologically, or behaviorally is known as : |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of stressor would life events be? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of stressor can be remembered by using the acronym DEATH which stands for drugs, exhaustion, alcohol, tobacco, and hypoglycemia?
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Definition
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Term
| What type of stressor is described by how one perceives a given situation or problem? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of stressor consists of stress caused by altitude, airspeed, hot or cold environments, aircraft design, airframe characteristics, and instrument flight conditions? |
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Definition
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Term
| There are four types of response to stress IAW TC 3-04.93 name three of the four. |
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Definition
| Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive, Physical |
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Term
| Stress-coping mechanisms are psychological and behavioral strategies for managing the external and internal demands imposed by stressors. What are the 4 coping mechanisms/strategies? |
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Definition
| Avoiding Stressors, Changing Thinking, Learning to Relax, ventilating Stress |
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Term
| Many Crew members engage in maladaptive behaviors that are potentially debilitating and threaten aviation safety, categorized as Physiological stressors (self imposed stressors). This category can be remembered using the acronym DEATH. What are the 5 “self-imposed stressors”? |
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Definition
Death
Exhaustion
Alcohol
Tobacco
Hypoglycemia |
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Term
| Which of the following is indicative of a normal reaction to stress? |
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Definition
| Rapid and exact response within the limits of the students experience and training. |
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Term
| Reactions to stress may produce an abnormal response in some people, name one abnormal response to stress, IAW the FAA IPH. |
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Definition
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Extreme over cooperation
Pain staking self-control
Inappropriate laughter or singing
Very rapid changes in emotion
Sever anger directed toward the flight instructor, service personnel, and others.
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Term
| What are the 3 types of fatigue? |
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Definition
| Acute, Chronic, Motivational Exhaustion (Burnout) |
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Term
| __________ is the state of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from prolonged mental or physical work, extended periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environments, or loss of sleep. |
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Definition
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Term
_______ fatigue is characterized by:
Inattention.
Distractibility.
Errors in timing.
Neglect of secondary tasks.
Loss of accuracy and control.
Lack of awareness of error accumulation.
Irritability.
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Definition
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Term
__________ fatigue is characterized by some or all of the following characteristics:
Insomnia.
Depressed mood.
Irritability.
Weight loss.
Poor judgment.
Loss of appetite.
Slowed reaction time.
Poor motivation and performance on the job. |
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Definition
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Term
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IAW FM 3-04.301 there are nine recommendations for the prevention of Fatigue, name 5.
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Definition
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a. Take naps
b. Maintain optimal working conditions
c. Control the sleep environment
d. Adjust to shift-work
e. Maintain good health and physical fitness
f. Practice good eating habits
g. Practice moderate controlled use of alcohol and caffeine
h. Plan and practice good time management
Practice realistic planning |
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Term
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What is the NOHD for the Laser Designator with unaided vision?
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Definition
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Term
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What is the NOHD for the Laser Designator when using magnifying optics?
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Definition
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Term
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What are the four fundamental forces acting on an aircraft?
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Definition
| thrust, drag, weight, lift |
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Term
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Newton’s law of ___________________ states the force required to produce a change in motion of a body is directly proportional to its mass and rate of change in its velocity. This means motion is started, stopped, or changed when forces acting on the body become unbalanced.
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Definition
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Term
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Ailerons on a conventional aircraft operate in opposite directions. To bank an aircraft to the right, the left aileron is ______________________ while the right aileron is ____________________________.
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Definition
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Term
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Bernoulli’s principle says as _________________ increases, static pressure decreases.
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Definition
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Term
| Air in motion equal to and opposite the flight-path velocity of the airfoil is the definition of: |
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Definition
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Term
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For a fixed wing aircraft, the angle between the airfoil chord line and longitudinal axis or other selected reference plane of the airplane is the definition of _________________.
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Definition
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Term
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A ______ is a basic maneuver in which the aircraft loses altitude in a controlled descent with little or no engine power; forward motion is maintained by gravity pulling the aircraft along an inclined path, and the descent rate is controlled by the aviator balancing the forces of gravity and lift.
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Definition
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Term
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With a _______, the aircraft glides farther because of the higher groundspeed; with a ______, the aircraft does not glide as far because of the slower groundspeed.
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Definition
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Term
| True or False.Variations in weight do not affect the glide angle provided the aviator uses the correct airspeed. |
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Definition
| TRUE,Since it is the lift over drag (L/D) ratio that determines the distance the aircraft can glide, weight does not affect the distance. |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. The glide ratio is based only on the relationship of the aerodynamic forces acting on the aircraft. The only effect weight has is to vary the time the aircraft glides. The heavier the aircraft the higher the airspeed must be to obtain the same glide ratio. |
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Definition
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE:If two aircraft having the same L/D ratio, but different weights, start a glide from the same altitude, the heavier aircraft gliding at a higher airspeed arrives at the same touchdown point in a shorter time. Both aircraft cover the same distance, but the lighter aircraft takes a longer time. |
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Definition
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Term
| The best speed for the glide is one at which the aircraft travels the greatest forward distance for a given loss of altitude in still air. This ___________ corresponds to an attack angle resulting in the least drag on the aircraft and giving the best lift-to-drag ratio (L/Dmax). |
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Definition
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Term
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IAW FM 3-04.203 Fundamentals of Flight, there are 2 types of pressure associated with fluid/air flow. What are the 2 types of pressure?
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Definition
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Term
| As velocity of the airflow increases, does static pressure above and below the airfoil increase or decrease? |
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Definition
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Term
| Knowledge of relative wind is essential for an understanding of aerodynamics and its practical flight application for the aviator. Define relative wind. |
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Definition
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Relative wind is the airflow relative to an airfoil. Movement of an airfoil through the air creates relative wind. Relative winds moves in a parallel but opposite direction to movement of the airfoil.
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Term
| ____________________ is the angle between the airfoil chord line and resultant relative wind. |
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Definition
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Term
| The ________________________ pressure differential on the upper and lower surfaces produces about 75% of the aerodynamic force, called lift. |
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Definition
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Term
| The remaining 25% of lift is produced as a result of ______________________ from the downward deflection of air as it leaves the trailing edge of the airfoil and by the downward defection of air impacting the exposed lower surface of the airfoil. |
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Definition
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Term
| ________is the force opposing the motion of an airfoil through the air. |
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Definition
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Term
| There are 3 types of Drag name 2 of the 3. |
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Definition
| Parasite, Induced, Profile |
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Term
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What type of drag is the dominant type at high speeds? |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________________________ drag is incurred from the nonlifting portions of the aircraft. |
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Definition
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Term
| ______________________________ drag is incurred as a result of production of lift. |
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Definition
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Term
| There are seven colors used on a military map. List 4 of them. |
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Definition
| Black, Red-Brown, Blue, Green, Brown, Red, Other |
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Term
| There are three types of north used on maps. What are they? |
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Definition
| Grid North, Magnetic North, True North |
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Term
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Definition
| The opposite direction of the azimuth |
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Term
| What does the acronym HIRTA stand for? |
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Definition
| High Intensity Radio Transmission Area |
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Term
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Definition
| When employing munitions with the intent to kill or destroy the enemy facilities and equipment, the unintentional kill or injury of friendly forces. |
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Term
| What are the 3 primary causes of fratricide? |
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Definition
| Lack of positive ID, Lack of situational awareness, other |
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Term
| What does the acronym SALUTE stand for when reporting on targets? |
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Definition
| Size, Activity, Location, Unit/Uniform, Time, Equipment |
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Term
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What does METT-TC stand for?
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Definition
| Mission, Enemy, Time, Troops and support, Terrain and weather, civil considerations |
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Term
| MIJI reports must be reported to higher Headquarters as soon as practicable. What does MIJI stand for? |
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Definition
| Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, Interference |
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Term
| The normal call for fire is sent in three parts consisting of six elements. List the first four elements in the order of which they are transmitted. |
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Definition
1. Observer Identification
2. Warning Order
3. Target Location
4. Description Of Target |
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Term
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Definition
| Downed Aircraft Recovery Team |
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Term
| The 2 methods of tactical airspace control are ____________ and _____________. |
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Definition
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Term
| How many key pads are in a killbox? |
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Definition
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Term
| When dealing with the Air Tasking Order, what are SPINS? |
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Definition
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Term
| The 3 types of airspace separation in Tactical Airspace are? |
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Definition
| Vertical, Lateral/Horizontal, Time |
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Term
What does the acronym LASER stand for? |
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Definition
Light
Amplification by
Stimulated
Emission of
Radiation |
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Term
| What are the four things that affect the amount of IR energy an object will radiate? |
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Definition
| Reflectance, Transmittance, Absorbtance, Emissivity |
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Term
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Which characteristic does the following statement describe? The ratio of radiant energy that, having entered a body, reaches its farther boundary.
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Thermal Imaging Systems (TISs)/Forward Looking Infrared (FLIR) operations depend on the ability of the system to detect temperature difference. What is the lowest thermal difference that can be resolved called?
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Definition
| Minimum Resolvable Temperature |
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Term
| ____________________ is a natural phenomenon that occurs twice a day. In the morning and evening, targets without internal heating come to a relative equal temperature with the surrounding background environment. |
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Definition
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Term
| The electromagnetic energy spectrum includes the range of wavelengths, such as gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, IR, microwaves, and radio waves or frequencies of electromagnetic radiation. Where does infrared begin in the electromagnetic spectrum? |
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Definition
| Begins right after the visible light color red. |
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Term
| Does the Sun emit energy across the entire electromagnetic spectrum or just the visible light spectrum? |
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Definition
| Entire Electromagnetic Spectrum |
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Term
| When is the aircraft strobe light required to be on? |
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Definition
| While UAS engines are operating, except when there may be other hazards to safety. |
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Term
| IAW AR 95-23, when do aircraft position lights need to be on? |
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Definition
| Between official sunset and sunrise |
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Term
| IAW FM 3-04.203, which of the following is NOT a variable affecting the ability to see with thermal imaging systems? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three types of Icing? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 4 levels of intensity for Icing? |
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Definition
| Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe |
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Term
| If a flight is to be made into known or forecast moderate icing conditions, the aircraft must be equipped with ___________ or ___________. |
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Definition
| Adequate operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment |
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Term
| When there are intermittent (destination) weather conditions, ________ weather will apply. |
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Definition
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