Term
| Four WWII enlisted aircrew members earned the United States' highest military decoration, the Medal of Honor, between May 1943 and April 1945. For his actions as a B-17 tail gunner during his first mission against the heavily defended submarine pens at St. Nazaire, France, he earned the first Medal of Honor awarded to an enlisted man. (2.12.1.) |
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Definition
| Sergeant Maynard H. Smith |
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Term
| On 24 February 1969, an enemy shell exploded on the right wing of an AC-47 on a night illumination mission near Long Binh, South Vietnam. Despite suffering from 40 shrapnel wounds, this Airman threw himself on an armed Mark 24 flare, dragged it to the cargo door, and heaved it outside as it ignited. President Nixon presented him with the Medal of Honor. (2.12.5.) |
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Definition
| Airman First Class John Levitow |
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Term
| As a pararescue crewmember, he evacuated nine casualties from an on-going firefight between Company C, 1st Infantry Division and a sizeable enemy force east of Saigon. He refused evacuation and remained on the ground to assist with medical care and defense and, in the fighting that followed, the perimeter was breached and American forces suffered 80% casualties, including him. He was the sixth enlisted member to earn the Medal of Honor. (2.12.6.) |
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Definition
| Airman First Class William H. Pitsenbarger |
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Term
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Definition
| 3-5 minute wavering tone on siren or similar warning device |
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Term
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Definition
| this indicates Attack is over and CBRN contamination and\ or uxo hazards are suspected or present |
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Term
| If a chemical agent gets on the skin or protective equipment, it must be removed immediately. _______ are the most effective methods of removing chemical agents. (5.13.2.3.3.) |
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Definition
| reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) and M295 individual decontamination kit |
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Term
| Base personnel will use the S-A-L-U-T-E report as a quick and effective way to communicate enemy ground attack information up the chain of command. The "E" in S-A-L-U-T-E represents: (5.13.5. and Table 5.1.) |
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Definition
| Equipment - Equipment and vehicles associated with the activity |
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Term
| Some of the most important Law of Armed Conflict rules come from the Geneva Conventions of 1949. The Geneva Conventions consist of four separate international treaties that govern the treatment of wounded and sick forces, POWs, and civilians during war or armed conflict. These treaties: (6.6.) |
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Definition
a) protect combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering
B ) protect the wounded, sick, shipwrecked, and POWs during hostilities
C ) protect civilians and private property |
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Term
| DoD policy Recommends U.S. personnel talk to terrorists about non substantive subjects such as? |
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Definition
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Term
| As defined by the Manual for Courts-Martial, fraternization is a personal relationship between _______ that violates the customary bounds of acceptable behavior in the Air Force and prejudices good order and discipline, discredits the Armed Services, or operates to the personal disgrace or dishonor of the officer involved. (6.19.3.) |
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Definition
| an officer and an enlisted member |
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Term
| Before establishing a UIF, the commander sends optional documents (LOAs, LOCs, and LORs) to the member along with an AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action. The individual then has _______ to respond before the commander makes a decision on placing the optional documents in the UIF. (7.11.2.) |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| counseling helps people develop good judgment, assume responsibility, and face and solve their problems. counseling help subordinates develop skill, attitudes , and behaviors consistent with maintaining the air force readiness |
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Term
| The individual has 3 duty days to submit rebuttal documents for consideration by the initiator |
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Definition
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Term
| Who can get punished with an article 15 |
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Definition
| any air force member can be punished by and article 15 |
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Term
| When attending a military funeral in uniform, when should the salute be rendered? |
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Definition
A. during the firing of volleys
B. during the playing of Taps
C. as the caisson or hearse passes and as the casket is carried by your position |
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Term
| 12. Superiors carrying articles in both hands need not return a salute but should nod in return or verbally acknowledge the salute. If the junior member is carrying articles in both hands, he or she should: (8.6.1.) |
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Definition
B. rearrange or stow carried articles and salute
C. stand at attention until the superior passes |
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Term
| simple things like saying "please" and Thank you" help the organization run smoother because people respond more enthusiastically when asked in a courteous manner to do something |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Enlisted PME (EPME) course must be completed in residence in order to perform duties as a reporting official and to be eligible for promotion to SSgt? (9.16.2.1.1.) |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Enlisted PME course is a 5 week course with a curriculum focused on four core graduate attributes: (1) expeditionary Airman, (2) supervisor of Airmen, (3) military professional, and (4) supervisory communicator? (9.16.2.1.2.) |
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Definition
Airman Leadership School
!0 credits |
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Term
| nco Accademy graduates earn how many credits |
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Definition
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Term
| Air force senior NCo Academy graduates earn how many credits? |
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Definition
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Term
| Leadership is the art and science of motivating, influencing, and directing Airmen to accomplish the Air Force mission. This definition highlights two fundamental elements of leadership: (10.2.) |
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Definition
| D. (1) the mission, objective, or task, and (2) the Airmen who accomplish it |
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Term
| The relationship in which a person with greater experience and wisdom guides another person to develop both personally and professionally is known as _______. (10.18.) |
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Definition
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Term
| The primary mentor for each Airman is: (10.20.1.) |
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Definition
| B. the immediate supervisor or rater |
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Term
| Air Force leaders must demonstrate certain qualities to be effective counselors. These qualities include: (10.31.) |
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Definition
| respect for Airmen, self-awareness, cultural awareness, empathy, and credibility |
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Term
| The techniques needed to provide effective counseling vary from person to person and session to session. However, general skills needed in almost every situation include _______. (10.32.) |
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Definition
| active listening, responding, and questioning |
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Term
| Different people and different situations require different counseling approaches. Three approaches to counseling include: (10.34.) |
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Definition
| nondirective, directive, and combined |
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Term
| The counselor should be flexible when conducting a counseling session. Even when not prepared for formal counseling, the four basic components of a counseling session should be addressed: (10.35.3.) |
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Definition
| open the counseling session, discuss the issues, develop a plan of action, record and close the session |
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Term
| The most important aspect to consider when preparing for a feedback session is to: (11.14.1.) |
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Definition
| routinely observe the ratee's performance |
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Term
| the Rater should focus not the Ratee's? |
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Definition
| strengths and accomplishments as well as the recommended improvement areas |
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Term
| When the ratee is an A1C or below, raters submit an EPR when the ratee: (11.18.1.) |
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Definition
| has 20 months or more of TAFMS and 120 days of supervision |
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Term
| When the ratee is an A1C or below, raters submit an EPR when the ratee has 20 months or more of TAFMS, has not yet had a report, and 120 calendar days of supervision have passed. The reason for the report is _______. (11.18.1.) |
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Definition
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Term
| When the ratee is a SrA or above, an EPR is due when the ratee: (11.18.2.) |
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Definition
| has not had a report for at least a year and 120 days of supervision have passed |
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Term
| When the ratee is a SrA or above, an EPR is due when the ratee has not had a report for at least a year and 120 calendar days of supervision have elapsed. The reason for the report is _______. (11.18.2.) |
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Definition
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Term
| In addition to other submission requirements, raters may submit an EPR to document unsatisfactory or marginal performance or a significant improvement in duty performance when 120 calendar days of supervision have elapsed. The reason for this type of report is _______. (11.18.4.) |
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Definition
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Term
| In addition to being required annually, EPRs are also required when a member is placed on or removed from the control roster and 60 calendar days of supervision have elapsed. The reason for this type of report is _______. (11.18.3.) |
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Definition
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Term
| For PCS moves from CONUS to Overseas, First Term Airmen must have at least ______ Time on Station. (15.9.9.2.) |
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Definition
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Term
| After an Airman is selected for PCS, cancellation of the assignment could impose a hardship on the Airman. Normally, a PCS is not cancelled within 60 days of the projected departure date unless: (15.9.12.1.) |
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Definition
| the Airman cannot be used at the projected location |
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Term
| Only military personnel, their family members, and retirees may file military EO complaints. Additionally, to file a complaint, an individual must: (16.27.1.) |
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Definition
| be the subject of the alleged unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment |
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Term
| Men's hair must have a tapered appearance on the sides and back. Their hair will not exceed _______ in bulk, regardless of length. (17.5.1.1.) |
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Definition
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Term
| Men's hair will not exceed 1 and 1/4 inches in bulk, regardless of length, and will not exceed _______ at the natural termination point. (17.5.1.1.) |
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Definition
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Term
| Fingernails must be clean, well-groomed, and: (17.5.4.) |
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Definition
A. not interfere with duty performance
B. not exceed 1/4 inch in length past the tip of the finger
C. not prevent the proper fit of safety equipment or uniform items |
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Term
| Excessive tattoos and brands must not be exposed or visible while in uniform. Excessive is defined as: (17.6.2.) |
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Definition
A. any tattoo or brand that exceeds 1/4 coverage of the exposed body part
B. tattoos above the collarbone and visible when wearing an open-collar uniform |
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Term
| The Service Uniform consists of the light blue, long or short sleeved shirt/blouse and trousers/slacks or skirt. Mandatory accouterments are: (17.10.1. - 17.10.4.) |
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Definition
| D. name tag, chevrons, and aeronautical, space, cyber, and chaplain badges |
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Term
| . A successful aerobic fitness/cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of: (18.4.) |
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Definition
| frequency, intensity, duration, and mode |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
| The Air Force implements and maintains the Information Assurance program to secure its information and information technology (IT) assets. The Air Force achieves this by employing three core information assurance disciplines: (19.2.3.) |
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Definition
| communications security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and emissions security (EMSEC) |
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Term
| There are four Security Protection levels. Protection Level 1 (PL1) is assigned to those resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.1.) |
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Definition
| result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States |
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Term
| There are four Security Protection levels. Protection Level 2 (PL2) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.2.) |
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Definition
| cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States |
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Term
| Protection Level 3 (PL3) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.3.) |
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Definition
| damage United States war-fighting capability |
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Term
| The lowest protection level is Protection Level 4 (PL4) which is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of PL1, PL2, or PL3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.4.) |
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Definition
| adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force |
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