Term
which of the following is not a side effect of ace inhibitor (captopril)?
-rash
-angioedema
-cough
-congestion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the folowing is not a side effect of the vasodilator (nifedipine)?
-nausea
-flush appearance
-vertigo
-sexual dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is not a side effect of sympathoplegics (clonidine)?
-hypertension
-asthma
-dry oral cavity
-lethargic behavior |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is not a side effect of diuretics (loop diuretics)?
-alkalosis
-nausea
-hypotension
-potassium deflicts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is not an effect of the drug clozapine?
-agranuloctosis
-antipsychotic
-used for schizophrenia
-increased appetite |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is not treated with epinephrine?
-renal disease
-asthma
-hypotension
-glaucoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is not treated with ephedrine?
-copd
-hypotension
-congestion
-incontinence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following are not treated with barbiturtes?
-seizures
-hypotension
-insomnia
-anxiety |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following are not treated with nifedipine?
-angina
-arrhythmias
-htn
-fluid retention
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following are not treated with methotrexate?
-sarcomas
-leukemias
-ectopic pregnancy
-rhuematic fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following are not treated with prednisone?
-cushings disease
-testicular cancer
-lympthomas
-chronic luekemias |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following are not treated with dexamethasone?
-inflammation
-asthma
-addisons disease
-wilsons disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug warfarin?
-kidney
-liver
-blood
-heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following drugs is associated with reactions of hepatitis?
-valporic acid
-quinidine
-isoniazid
-ethosuximide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered?
-h2 antagonist
-ace inhibitor
-antifungal
-beta agonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered?
-h2 antagonist
-ace inhibitor
-antifugal
-beta agonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered?
-antidepressant
-protease inhibitor
-beta agonist
-h2 antagonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered?
-antidepressant
-protease inhibitor
-beta antagonist
-h2 antagonist |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following drugs is associated w/ the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?
-digitalis
-niacin
-tetracycline
-fluoroquinolones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of prednisone?
-cataracts
-hypotension
-psychosis
-acne |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is considered a class 1A sodium channel blocker?
-mexilefine
-aminodarone
-quinidine
-procainamide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is considered a class 1A sodium channel blocker?
-propafenone
-disopyramide
-quinidine
-procainamide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the ____ found in the kidney?
-promixal convoluted tubule
-loop of henle
-collecting duct
-distal convoluted tubule |
|
Definition
| -distal convoluted tubule |
|
|
Term
which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of nitroglycerin?
-headaches
-tachycardia
-dizziness
-projectile vomiting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| drugs used to treat ulcers? |
|
Definition
| histamine 2 antagonist, antacids, proton pump inhibitors, antipeptic agents, prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
| actions of h2 antagonist? |
|
Definition
| blocks the release of hydrochloric acid in response to gastrin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neutralizes acids at the chemical level |
|
|
Term
| actions of proton pump inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| suppress the secretion of hydrochloric acid |
|
|
Term
| action of antipeptic agents? |
|
Definition
| coat the injured area in the stomach to prevent futher injury from acid |
|
|
Term
| actions of prostaglandins? |
|
Definition
| inhibits the secretion of gastrin and increases the secretion of mucous lining of the stomach providing a buffer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cimetidine (tagament), ranitidine (zantac), famotidine(pepcid),nizatidine (axid) |
|
|
Term
| brand name for cimetidine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| brand name for ranitidine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| brand name for famotidine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| brand name for nizatidine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does CPEBM stand for? |
|
Definition
| cross placenta enters breast milk |
|
|
Term
| when will a drug expire if the stock bottle states that the expiration date is 7/2000? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a drug was recalled because some patients died from liver failure while on the medication what type of recall was this? |
|
Definition
class 1
(class 1 recall-there is a potential for serious injury or death) |
|
|
Term
which of the following is not a mandatory component of a retail pharmacy prescription label?
-pharmacy name
-expiration date
-physicians name
-date filled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the 1st 5 digits of a NDC (national drug code) number represents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do therapeutically equivalent generics compare to brand name medications? |
|
Definition
| same active ingredients and same therapeutic effects |
|
|
Term
which of the following is not an NSAID(non steroidal anti inflammatory drug)?
-oxaprozin
-diclofenac
-motrin
-pentazosine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which law created the DEA(drug enforcement agency)? |
|
Definition
| 1970 controlled substances act CSA |
|
|
Term
| Class ll prescription records required to be kept for how many years by the DEA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a doctors DEA number is AB1212125. is this a valid DEA number? |
|
Definition
yes
1+1+1=3
2+2+2=6x2=12
3+12=15
last digit 5
(the last digit of the total has to match the last digit in the DEA number) |
|
|
Term
which of the following is not a Class ll?
-amphetamine
-oxycodone
-oxycodone with acetaminophen
-pentazosine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a list of approved drugs is also known as a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the profession of pharmacy exists today to? |
|
Definition
| safeguard the health of the public |
|
|
Term
| knowledge of the medicinal functions of natural products of animals, plants or mineral origins is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the emergence of the pharmaceutical industry threatened to reduce the role of the pharmacist to that of a ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the work that heralded the emergence of modern clinical pharmacy was the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| another name for a community pharmacy is a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the primary role of a clinical pharmacists is to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| licensing and professional oversight of pharmacist and pharmacies is carried out by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pharmacy technicians can do all the following except?
-counsel a patient
-enter information into the computer
-prepare a label
-return drug stock to the shelf |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the final responsibility for the accuracy of the pharmacy technicians work is ? |
|
Definition
| the supervising pharmacist |
|
|
Term
| the food and drug cosmetic (FDC) act of 1938 caused the creation of what agency? |
|
Definition
| food and drug administration (FDA) |
|
|
Term
| the kafauver harris amendment required that all new drugs be proven ___ before being marketed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an adverse drug reaction should be reported to? |
|
Definition
| FDA- food and drug administration |
|
|
Term
| the omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1990 (OBRA- 90) requires the pharmacist to? |
|
Definition
| offer patient counseling regarding medications |
|
|
Term
| what agency is responsible for approving new medications? |
|
Definition
| food and drug administration (FDA) |
|
|
Term
| the dietary supplement health and education act (DSHEA) limited the FDA's authority to regulate? |
|
Definition
| herbal, vitamins and nutritional products |
|
|
Term
| who has the authority to remove a pharmacy licenses or registration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a patient sues a pharmacy then who has the burden of proof in the case? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a pharmacist may be sued for _____ when he/she speaks falsely of a physician to a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a biochemical reactive component in a drug is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a national drug code (NDC) number does not identify the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a radiopharmaceutical used for imaging is an example of a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when people use the term delivery system they generally intend in addition to the dose form to refer to the? |
|
Definition
| physical characteristics of the dose form that determines the method of administration and the site of action of the drug |
|
|
Term
| a dose form used in the rectum, vagina, and urethra is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| drugs with an enteric coating? |
|
Definition
| dissolve in the intestines |
|
|
Term
| a solution containing water and ethanol would be described as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| some examples of disperions are? |
|
Definition
| suspensions and emulsions |
|
|
Term
| dose forms that are often sweetened include? |
|
Definition
| medicated syrups and elixirs |
|
|
Term
to determine generic equivalency of a brand name product which reference source would i use?
-drug facts & comparsions
-FDA electronic orange book
-physician desk reference
-homeopathic pharmacopeia of the united states |
|
Definition
| -FDA electronic orange book |
|
|
Term
| the route of administration with the fastest onset of action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
nausea and vomiting might preclude the use of?
-parenternal route of administration
-topical route of administration
-oral route of administration
-urethral route of administration |
|
Definition
| -oral route of administration |
|
|
Term
| in the 1st pass effect some drugs taken orally are rapidly metabolized or broken down by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the study of toxic effects of drug or other substance on the body is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most common route of administration of drugs is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| administration of a drug placed between the gums and the inner lining of the cheek is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a transdermal formulation makes use of which organ of the body for its site of absorption? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| suppositories are usually used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the word parenteral means literally outside the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
insulin needles for subcutaneous administration are usually?
-28 gauge
-22 gauge
-18 gauge
-15 gauge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the modern metric system makes use of the standardized units of the? |
|
Definition
| systeme international (SI) |
|
|
Term
| the metric prefix meaning one millionth is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a gram is equal to?
-1000 micrograms
-1000 milligrams
-1000 centigrams
-1000 nanograms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the liter is the standard measurement of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| given 1/2, the fraction 2/1 is its? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a decimal fraction has a denominator of what power? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the only unit of measure that is the same in the apothercary system and avoirdupois system is the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the proper pediatric dose of a medication depends on the childs?
-bodymass
-weight
-body surface area (BSA)
-none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
convert the following:
34.6g to mg? |
|
Definition
34600 mg
3.4g x 1000mg
34600mg |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
0.735g
735mg x 0.001g
or
735mg/1000mg
0.735g |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3.4L
3400ml x 0.001L
or
3400ml/1000ml
3.4L |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1200ml
1.2L x 1000ml
1200ml |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
0.00748g
7.48kg/1000g
0.00748g
(1000g=1kg) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.5pt
24 floz/16oz
1.5pt
(16oz=1pt) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2.08tsp
6.25tbsp/3tsp
2.08tsp
(3tsp=1tbsp) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2gal
8qt/4qt
2gal
(4qt=1gal) |
|
|
Term
| viii (arabic numerals) equals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| C (arabic numerals) equals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| technicians duties with regard to over the counter (OTC) drugs typically include? |
|
Definition
| stocking them, taking inventory of them, removing expired drugs from the shelves |
|
|
Term
| in a prescription the signa is the? |
|
Definition
| directions for the patient to follow |
|
|
Term
| the symbol Rx stands for the latin word recipe and means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a signature on a prescription for a schedule ll controlled substance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in most states a generic drug maybe substitued for a brand name or proprietary drug provided that the? |
|
Definition
| generic drug is bioequivalent to the brand name or proprietary drug |
|
|
Term
| pharmacy personnel can check to see if DEA number has been falsified by? |
|
Definition
| performing a mathematical calculation |
|
|
Term
| an important purpose of the medication/prescription history on the patient profile is to? |
|
Definition
| identify potential adverse drug interactions |
|
|
Term
a pharmacy technician can do all the following in most states except?
-receive a new prescription from a patient
-taking a new prescription over the phone & immediately reducing it to writing
-sell herbal medications
-sell diet supplements |
|
Definition
| -taking a new prescription over the phone & immediately reducing it to writing |
|
|
Term
| a schedule lll prescription may be refilled how many times? |
|
Definition
| five times or within 6 months |
|
|
Term
a reference containing manufacturer patient package inserts is the?
-FDA electronic orange book
-united states pharmacopeia (USP)
-physicians desk reference (PDR)
-national formulary (NF) |
|
Definition
| -physicians desk reference (PDR) |
|
|
Term
| a computer term for typing is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a digital computer uses what kind of numbers in processing information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a computer application that can enter, retrieve and query records is a? |
|
Definition
| database management system (DBMS) |
|
|
Term
| in a manual third party administration (TPA) system billing is typical done by means of a? |
|
Definition
| universal claim form (UCF) |
|
|
Term
| a PBM is best descibed as? |
|
Definition
| a company that contracts with several insurance companies |
|
|
Term
| if an insurance company has three different copays for each class of medications its payment structure is best described as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in medicare part d which of the following apply?
-a monthly premium added to the current medicare part a/b premium
-a $250 deductible
-no coverage for medication costs between $2250-$5100
-all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which type of purchasing arrangements will provide the lowest acquistion cost for most medications?
-direct for the manufacturer
-purchasing off the internet
-purchasing for the wholesaler
-borrowing from the hospital pharmacy |
|
Definition
| -borrowing from the hospital pharmacy |
|
|
Term
a DEA from 222 must be use to order which of the following controlled substances?
-schedule l
-schedule ll
-schedule lll
-schedule lV
-schedule V |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the average price that wholesalers charge a pharmacy for a medication is better known as? |
|
Definition
| average wholesale price (AWP) |
|
|
Term
| value of inventory divided by average daily costs of products sold equals to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| annual dollar purchases divided by average inventory equals to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| beginning inventory plus ending inventory equals to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a large amount of materials such as 2kg of epsom salt would be weighed using a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| two pharmacuetical ingredients are combined one a solid and the other a soluble volatile liquid the mixture is pulverized to reduce the particle size of the solid and the liquid is allowed to evaporate in a process known as? |
|
Definition
| pulverization by intervention |
|
|
Term
| an alternative to the ointment slab is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when measuring the amount of liquid in a graduate one should place the eyes at the level of the liquid and measure the level of the meniscus from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when using the geometric dilution method the most potent ingredient usually the one that occurs in the smallest amount is placed into the mortar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an ingredient dissolved in a solution is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a suppository mold is chilled immediately after filling to? |
|
Definition
| solidify the compound before suspended ingredients have time to settle |
|
|
Term
| the punch method is used for filling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an appropriate auxillary label for a liquid suspension is? |
|
Definition
"shake well before using" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
patient confidentiality for participation in investigational studies is a function for?
- the P&T committee
-the infection controll committe (ICC)
-the instutional review board (IRB)
-JCAHO |
|
Definition
| -the institutional review board (IRB) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an amount and dose form appropriate for a single administration to a single patient |
|
|
Term
a function unique to a hospital pharmacy compared to a community pharmacy would include?
-maintaining drug treatment records
-ordering & stocking medications & medical supplies
-dispensing and repackaging medications
-handling sterile parenteral hazardous drugs |
|
Definition
| -handling sterile parenteral hazardous drugs |
|
|
Term
| JCAHO is primarily interested in patients safety and? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| universal precautions deals with infections by disease causing microorganisms found in? |
|
Definition
| blood and other bodily fluids |
|
|
Term
| the primary role of the infections control committee (ICC) is to? |
|
Definition
| prevent noscomial infections |
|
|
Term
| when a pharmacy technician receives a stat order the medication should be sent to the nurse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| physical inventory of drugs in the hospital pharmacy is usually done every? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the provisions of the entire nutritional needs of a patient by means of intravenous (IV) infusions is known as? |
|
Definition
| TPN- total parenteral nutrition |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the germ theory of disease is credited to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| people used to believe that life forms such as microorganisms & maggots could arise miraculously out of decayed or other matter in a process known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| small microorganisms that consist of genetic material surrounded by a protein coat are known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the absence of a disease causing microorganisms is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| to prevent excessive negative pressure how many millimeters of air should be injected by syringe into multidose vial before drawing up a hazardous drug? (assume you need to withdraw 2ml of a cancer drug) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most common cause of containmination is by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| USP(united states pharmacopeia) deals primarily with? |
|
Definition
| prevention of containmination of compound sterile product |
|
|
Term
which of the following is an example of a hazardous class of drug?
-antibiotics
-antineoplastics
-antifungals
-antivirals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
cytoxic drugs should be prepared?
-in a vertical laminar flowhood
-in horizontal laminar flowhood
-at the nursing station just before administration to the patient
-in a nonsterile extemporaneous compounding area |
|
Definition
| -in a vertical laminar flowhood |
|
|
Term
| an example of an isotonic solution is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the ph of blood is considered to be slightly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the laminar flowhood should be turned on for ___ before preparing IV products? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an IV administration set commonly includes all the following except?
-peripheral catheter
-drip chamber
-clamp controller
-y-site |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
for a pediatric patient the flow rate of an IV administration set is commonly?
-10 gtt/min
-15 gtt/min
-20 gt/min
-60 gtt/min |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what size filter is needed to eliminate any bacterial in the IV solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
due to their hypertonicity most TPN solutions will require administration via?
-peripheral venous catheter
-central venous catheter
-pic line
-midline venous catheter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| potassium has an a atomic weight of approximately 39 and a valence of 1 how many mEq are in 780mg of potassium? |
|
Definition
20 mEq
780 mg / (39x1)
20mEq
(mEq = mg/(atomic weight or molecular weight) × valence ) |
|
|
Term
| an IV solution has a specific gravity of 0.9g what is the weight of 1000ml? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an IV order required for D5 1/2NS to be infused at a rate of 125ml/hr how many 1L bottles must be prepared for use over the next 24 hrs? |
|
Definition
3
X L/24hr=125ml/1hr
X=(24)125/1
X=3000
3000ml/1000ml
3L
(1000ml=1L)
|
|
|
Term
| molecular weight divided by valence equals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
filling a prescription order with toprol when the drug requested was toprol xl is an example of which type of error?
-assumption error
-selection error
-capture error
-none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when receiving a new prescription which of the following should the technician avoid doing?
-verify all drug info. w/ the pharmacist appropriate drug references and/or the prescriber when handwritting is difficult to read
-use trailing zeros when the dose written is for a whole number
-crosscheck patient info. on the written prescription w/ the patient
-verify that they patient has not experienced any new drug allergies & that all profile info. is current & correct |
|
Definition
| -use trailing zeros when the dose written is for a whole number |
|
|
Term
| where can the patient find information regarding most crucial aspects of administration & proper storage & handling of medications? |
|
Definition
| on the auxillary warning and caution label |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an unexpected occurence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the potential for the occurence to happen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| proper or polite behavior or behavior that is in good taste |
|
|
Term
a pharmacy technician should never?
-waste time walking a customer across the store to show him/her the location of an item
-dispense advice regarding the use of a medication
-attempt to speak to a customer in the customer native language
-take a written prescription from a customer
|
|
Definition
| -dispense advice regarding the use of a medication |
|
|
Term
| perferential treatment or mistreatment based on race, gender, age or other criteria is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an underage teen is on birth control pill all of the following can review this medical info. at the pharmacy except?
-parent
-physician
-pharmacist
-teen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HIPPA involves all the following except?
-medication profile
-medical diagnosis
-insurance provider
-laboratory results |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5 tbsp of milk powder is mixed to make a glass of milk how much powder is needed for 3 glasses of milk? |
|
Definition
225ml
5 tbsp x 15ml
75ml
75ml x 3
225ml
(1 tbsp=15ml) |
|
|
Term
| if 25 drams of syrup is the total dose of a patient advised by his doctor and if he wants to take it in minim quantity he must have to consider 1 dram equals 60 minims then what about the total minim quantity of his dose? |
|
Definition
1500 minims
25 dram x 60 minim
1500 minims
(1 dram=60 minim) |
|
|
Term
| a patient is taking 300 minims of paracetamol syrup for his fever per day how this minim quantity can be expressed in dram quantity? |
|
Definition
5 drams
300 minims/60 minim
5 drams
(1dram=60minim) |
|
|
Term
| a doctor is advised 1200 minims of syrup for a patient and you have to measure it cc quantity for the patient and the dose quantity per day is 5 cc how can you equalize 1 cc in minims? |
|
Definition
12 minims
60 minims/5cc
12 minims
(5cc=60minim=1dram) |
|
|
Term
| the doctor advised a patient to take 150 cc of syrup which equals 30 drams how can you equalize the minim quantity of 150 cc? |
|
Definition
1800 minims
30dram x 60 minims
1800 minims
(1dram=60minim) |
|
|
Term
| fluid ounce is commonly used measuring unit if you have to prepare a dose of 0.5 ounce how can you express it in ml? |
|
Definition
15ml
30ml/0.5oz
15ml
(30ml=1oz) |
|
|
Term
| you have to prepare a dose of medicine according to the specifications limit advised by the doctor and the dose after preparation weighs 3 pints how the 3 pints can be expressed in fluid ounces? |
|
Definition
48 ounces
16 fl oz x 3 pt
48 ounces
(16floz=1pt) |
|
|
Term
3 ounces of fluid is mixed with a powdered material to prepare the required mixture how this 3 ounces can be expressed in pint (equivalent to fluid ounces)?
|
|
Definition
0.1875 pt
3 oz/ 16 fl oz
0.1875 pt
(16floz=1pt) |
|
|
Term
| it said that certain drugs should not mix why you shouldnt mix warafin + cholestyramine? |
|
Definition
| warfarin absorbs to cholestyramine so cholestyramine decreases its absorption |
|
|
Term
| certain drugs can have some serious side effects when mixed what can sulfonamides + warfarin cause? |
|
Definition
| sulfonamides displace warafin from protein binding and inhibits its clearance causing an increase in free warfarin levels |
|
|
Term
| thyroid toxicty can be caused when thyroglobin fails to release the thyroid hormone that inhibits adenylate cyclase name the drug that is know to have this effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| administering a drug has been known to cause impaired hepatic fuction thrombocytopenia and can lead to increased hepatic enzyme activity a known GABA transaminase inhibitor what drug is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
both estrogen and progestin can be used as oral contraceptive and hormone replacement therapy which of these is not associated with estrogen and progestin?
-increased folic acid
-decreased B6
-increased transferrin
-decreased zinc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| one form of laxative is mineral oil aside from decreased fat soluble (ADEK) absorption what other result does mineral oil have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| brand name for risedronate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what types of drug contain the stem "curlum"? |
|
Definition
| drugs that are neuromuscular blocking agents |
|
|
Term
side effects of drugs include things like arrhythmias and yellow changes which of the following drugs causes both these mentioned effects?
-acetaminophen
-erythromycin
-thioridiazine
-digoxin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hot flashes decreases in patients with acute opioid abstinence syndrome which drug does cause this decrease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| there is a drug which causing breast cancer it is responsible for hot flashes what is the name of the that drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the potency of a drug is directly related to hydrophobicity it induces CP450 what is that drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| one of your employees asks you what sertraline and SSRI(Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are what do u tell her? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a client comes into your pharmacy to speak with you about what kind of drugs he can take to relieve his depression and to help him stop smoking you recommend buproprin by what other names is this drug known? |
|
Definition
wellbutrin and wellbutrin SR-antidepressant
zyban-smoking cessation |
|
|
Term
| what is another name for fluvoxamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of drug is venlafaxine and by what other names is it known? |
|
Definition
| it is an antidepressant and its also called effexor or effexor XR |
|
|
Term
| a type of tricyclic called desipramine what other names is this drug known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of drug is celexa and what other name is it known? |
|
Definition
| it is an SSRI(Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) and its also called citalopram |
|
|
Term
| what type of drug is nefazodone and what other name is it called? |
|
Definition
| an antidepressant called serzone |
|
|
Term
| what type of drug is amitriptyline and by what other name is it called? |
|
Definition
| tricyclic and called elavil or endep |
|
|
Term
| how many dl and how many ml are there in 1L how do you answer? |
|
Definition
1L= 10dl = 1000ml
(1000ml=1L)
(1000ml=10dl) |
|
|
Term
| how often must a laminar flow hood be checked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| psuedoephedrine a common ingredient in cold preparations is contraindicated in which specific disease state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the abbreviation "PCN" means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the purpose of p&t committee is to? |
|
Definition
| established and maintain drugs for many systems recommend policies regarding investigational drugs collect data from drug utilization review |
|
|
Term
| when a drug is filtered by the kidney into the bladder this process is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the appearance of crystals in mannitol injection indicates? |
|
Definition
| that the solution is cold & the crystals maybe redissolved |
|
|
Term
| what is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flowhood? |
|
Definition
| clean the hood from side to side starting from the back of the hood towards the front of the hood |
|
|
Term
| name a drug that is likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| amoxicillin oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a vial reconstituted adriamysin breaks inside a vertical flow hood what should the tech. do? |
|
Definition
| clean up the spill using a "spill kit" |
|
|
Term
| what government agency is responsible for the safety of the workplace? |
|
Definition
| OSHA- occupational safety health administration |
|
|
Term
| heparin is available in a vial labeled 20,000 U/ml how many ml are required for a 12,500 U dose? |
|
Definition
0.625 ml
xml x 12,500/1ml x 20,000
xml=12,500/20,000
0.625ml |
|
|
Term
| cleocin suspension is available in a concentration of 75mg/5ml how many ml are requried for a 300mg dose? |
|
Definition
20ml
300mg/X divided by 75mg/5ml
X=75mg/(300)5ml
X=75/1500
X=20
|
|
|
Term
| what is "syrup of ipecac" indicated for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| grinding of tablets into a fine powder in a porcelain mortar is an example of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the middle set of the national drug code (NDC) number represents? |
|
Definition
| product strength and dosage form |
|
|
Term
| name three beta blocking agents? |
|
Definition
| normodyne(labetalol), tenormin(atenolol), lopressor(metoprolol) |
|
|
Term
| what dosage form is formulated to dissolve in the intesines rather than the stomach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what solution is recommended for cleaning the laminar flowhood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name a coronary vasodilator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drug is used as a "rescue" from toxicity of methotrexate? |
|
Definition
| leucovorin(wellcorovin,citrovorum factor, folinic acid) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| codeine, meperidine and oxycodone belong to which controlled substance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name two drug classes that have cross sensitivity? |
|
Definition
| penicillin and cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
| estradem is available in which dose form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| heparin belongs to which pharmacological catergory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how far within a hood should the pharmacy tech. work? |
|
Definition
| at least 6 inches within the hood |
|
|
Term
| digoxin belongs to which drug classification? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the process where by a drug is transformed by the liver is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of prescription balance must be used for compounding 120gm of a 1% topical antifungal cream? |
|
Definition
| class A prescription balance |
|
|
Term
| which drug information source would the pharmacy tech. check for possible drug interactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting a chemotherapeutic agent? |
|
Definition
| 2 pairs of gloves,a gown and a mask |
|
|
Term
| the process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a written request made by a practitioner that directs the pharmacist to supply an item to a patient |
|
|
Term
| a medication used to reduce a fever is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a hospital born infection is also known as _____? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the form used for ordering schedule ll drug is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what should the last digit be of this DEA number AB431762_? |
|
Definition
five
4+1+6=11
3+7+2=12x2=24
11+24
35
5
(the last digit=the last digit in the DEA number) |
|
|
Term
| thiazide diuretics are used to do what? |
|
Definition
| manage the retention of water |
|
|
Term
| an example of a major drug-drug interaction would be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
of the following schedules which one deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the US and have high abuse potential?
-schedule l
-schedule ll
-schedule lll
-schedule lV
-schedule V |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which act deals with the issue on safety caps on prescription bottles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| propranolol is the same as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the material safety data sheet (MSDS)? |
|
Definition
| provides information concerning hazardous substances |
|
|
Term
define these:
absorption? |
|
Definition
| drug gets absorbed into the bloodstream |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drug goes where it is needed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drug is broken down by the liver |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
most popular drug form
dissolution- must be dissolved into the stomach before it can elicit it pharmacological effect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chewed and dissolved in the mouth prior to swallowing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| special coating over tablet to prevent the dissolution within the stomach the tablets are meant to dissolve in the intestines only |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| placed "under the tongue" where the active ingredient is quickly absorbed into the bloodstream |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "between cheek and gums" drug is dissolved slowly over a period of time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| special coating that makes the objectable odor or taste prevents deterioration due to light and air |
|
|
Term
| sustained timed released tablets? |
|
Definition
| active ingredients is released at a constant rate for a prolonged period of time, "long acting" "delayed release" "prolonged action" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "troches or pastilles" meant to dissolve slowly in the mouth to keep the drug in contact with the mouth or throat longer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cylinder shaped tablets for implantation just under the skin for continuous drug absorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drug is enclosed within a gelatin shell, after 10 to 30 minutes within the stomach the gelatin capsule dissolves and the drug is released |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| high concentration of sugar hinders bacteria growth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drug is uniformly dispered throughout the liquid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| medication is in soluble in the liquid these medications require a shake well sticker |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sweetened water with alcohol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| highest concentration of alcohol |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "azepam"? |
|
Definition
benzodiazepine
class of psychoactive drugs considered minor tranqulizers useful in treating anxiety, insomnia, agitation, seizures, muscle spasm as well as alcohol withdrawal |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "astine"? |
|
Definition
antihistamine
h1 antihistamines are clinically used in the treatment of histamine medicated allergic conditions |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "azosin"? |
|
Definition
alpha 1 adrenergic blockers
alpha blockers are used in the treatment of several conditions
|
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "bamate"? |
|
Definition
tranqulizers
substances that depresses the central nervous system (CNS) resulting in calmness, relaxation, reduction of anxiety, poor judgement and slow uncertain reflexes |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "barb"? |
|
Definition
barbiturates
drugs that act as a central nervous system depressant mild sedation to anesthesia some are also used as anticonvulsants |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "caine"? |
|
Definition
local anesthetic
an agent that interrupts pain impulses in a specific region of the body w/o a loss of patient consciousness |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "ceph", "cef", "cefp"? |
|
Definition
cephalosporins
group of antibiotics used to treat infections in a variety of places in the body |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "cillin" |
|
Definition
penicillin
beta lactam antibiotics used in the treatment of bacterial infections caused by susceptible usually grampositive organisms |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "cod"? |
|
Definition
narcotic analgesic
acts in the central nervous system (CNS) to relieve pain |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "azole"? |
|
Definition
antifungal agents
drug used to treat fungal infections |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "cort"? |
|
Definition
steriodial anti inflammatory
many steriods specifically glucocorticoids reduce inflammation by binding to cortisol receptors |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "cycline"? |
|
Definition
tetracycline antibiotics
group of broad spectrum antibiotics whose general usefulness has been reduced with the onset of bacterial resistances |
|
|
Term
what drug classification is associated with "dopa"?
|
|
Definition
dopamine receptor agonists
drug used to treat parkinsons disease that mimick the action of naturally occuring dopamine |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "ectin"? |
|
Definition
antiparastitic
effective in the treatment of parasites |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "estro"? |
|
Definition
estrogen hormone
estrogen is a hormone manufactured by a womans body |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "floxacin"? |
|
Definition
quinolone antibiotics
quinolones and flouroquinolones form a group of broad spectrum antibiotics they are derived from nalidixic acid |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "glitazone"? |
|
Definition
antidiabetic agents
preventing or relieving diabetes
|
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "micin"? |
|
Definition
aminoglycoside antibiotics
a class of antibiotics which act by interferring with bacterial proteinsynthesis within the bacteria which results in the death of the bacteria |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "mycin"? |
|
Definition
macrolide antibiotics
group of drugs typically whos activity stems from the presence of macrolide ring |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "nitr"? |
|
Definition
coronary vasodilator
drugs used to cause dilation of the coronary blood vessels |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "olol"? |
|
Definition
beta blockers
group of medications that act to block adrenergic receptors in the nervous system |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "olone"? |
|
Definition
steriodial anti inflammatory
many steriods specifically glucocortoids reduce inflammation by binding control receptors |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "pril"? |
|
Definition
ace inhibitors
ace inhibitors treat high blood pressure and other conditions |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "profen"? |
|
Definition
non steriodial anti inflammatory(NSAID)
medications used primarily to treat the inflammation mild to moderate pain and fever |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "semide"? |
|
Definition
loop diuretics
type of drug that removes water from the body loop diuretics are a particular powerful diuretic used for treating heart failure |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "statin"? |
|
Definition
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
lowers cholesterol levels in people w/ or at risk of cardiovascular disease |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "sulfa"? |
|
Definition
sulfa antibiotics
synethetic antimicrobials agent that contains the sulfanomide group |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "thiazide"? |
|
Definition
thiazide diuretics
family of drugs that remove water from the body |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "tidine"? |
|
Definition
h2 antagonist blockers
h2 antagonists are clinically used in the treatment of acid related gastrointestinal conditions |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "triptan"? |
|
Definition
antimigraine medication
medications used to treat migraines |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "triptyline"? |
|
Definition
tricyclic antidepressant
tricyclic antidepressant are used in numerous applications: mainly indicated for the treatment of clinical depression neuropathic pain nocturnal enuresis and ADHD |
|
|
Term
| what drug classification is associated with "vir" "vudine"? |
|
Definition
antiviral
medication used specifically for treating viral infections |
|
|
Term
| what is the primary site of activity for warfarin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| trace elements are used in the following solution__? |
|
Definition
| TPN- total parenternal nutrition |
|
|
Term
| KCl is the abbreviation for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect on the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| administer controlled analgesics |
|
|
Term
| the drug prilosec is classed as a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drug is associated with the reaction of hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| online processing of a third party claim to determine payment is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a glass compounding slab is used for? |
|
Definition
| a smooth surface to mix ointments and creams |
|
|
Term
| gentamicin can be given in which forms? |
|
Definition
| intravenous and opthalimic |
|
|
Term
| the term prophylaxis means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the drug betagan(levobunolol) would be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the medication that needs to be protected from light in a special container is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the intravenous medications that can be mixed with NS(normal saline)? |
|
Definition
| cefazolin, ampicillin and primaxin |
|
|
Term
| the program under the FDA that allows healthcare professionals to report any adverse reactions is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what agency is responsible for the accrediation of an institutional facility? |
|
Definition
| JCAHO- joint commission accrediation healthcare organization |
|
|
Term
| when stocking shelves with a new stock you should? |
|
Definition
| remove all out of date stock first then rotate stock placing the longer expiration dates to the back |
|
|
Term
| of the diagnostic devices which one is used for urinalysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what do the digits on a NDC (national drug code) represent?
Ex.00456-0122-30 |
|
Definition
| the 1st 5 digit manufacturer the next 4 digits drug name and strength and the last digits package size |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| generic name vasotec it is an ace inhibitor used to treat htn(hypertension) |
|
|
Term
| what does "allergic rhinitis" mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the term "mic" stand for? |
|
Definition
| minimum inhibition concentration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| protein hormones secreted gonatrope cells of the pituitary glands of vertebrates |
|
|
Term
| what is the form DEA 41 used for? |
|
Definition
| once controlled drugs are destoyed the DEA requires the submission of this form |
|
|
Term
| what does hematoria mean? |
|
Definition
| hematoria is the presence of blood in urine |
|
|
Term
| what is form DEA 106 used for? |
|
Definition
| when a robbery or theft occurs at a pharmacy the DEA requires pharmacies to submit a DEA 106 with a detail account of what was lost/stolen |
|
|
Term
| how to check if a DEA number is valid? |
|
Definition
add together the 1st,3rd,5th digits and
then add 2nd,4th,6th digits together multiply total of(2nd,4th,6th digits) by 2 then add the total { 1st+3rd+5th digits & (2nd+4th+6th digits x2) and the last digit in the total should be the last digit in the DEA number |
|
|
Term
define these routes of administration:
intravenous (IV) means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| intracerebroventricular means? |
|
Definition
| into the cerebral ventricles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| intraosseous infusion means? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| infusion or injection into the peritoneum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| infusion is into the urinary bladder |
|
|
Term
| intracavernosal injection means? |
|
Definition
| into the base of the penis |
|
|
Term
express the following arabic numerals as roman numerals:
38? |
|
Definition
XXXVlll
X=10
V=5
l=1
XXXVlll |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
XCl
X=10
C=100
l=1
XCl
10-100+1
91 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
XLlll
X=10
L=50
l=1
XLlll
10-50+3
43 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
convert the following roman numerals to arabic numerals:
MXL? |
|
Definition
1040
M=1000
X=10
L=50
1000-10+50
1040 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
99
X=10
C=100
lX=9
10-100+9
99 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
41
X=10
L=50
l=1
10-50+1
41 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
650
D=500
C=100
L=50
500+100+50
650 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
149
C=100
X=10
L=50
lX=9
100+10-50+9
149 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
240
C=100
X=10
L=50
100+100-10+50
240 |
|
|
Term
perform the following operations and provide the answers in arabic numerals:
Vll + LXlV? |
|
Definition
71
V=5
l=1
L=50
X=10
lV=4
5+2=7
50+10+4=64
7+64=71 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2464
X=10
l=1
C=100
10+10+2=22
100+10+2=112
22x112
2464 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
431
C=100
D=500
L=50
X=10
lX=9
100-500+50=450
10+9=19
450-19
431 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
32
M=1000
D=500
CCXL=240
3000+500+200+40=3740
100+20=120
1040/120
32 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1985
X=10
lX=9
M=1000
C=100
L=50
Vl=6
10+9=19
1000-100+1000+50+16=1966
19+1966
1985
|
|
|
Term
complete the following and provide the results in roman numerals:
12+16? |
|
Definition
XXVlll
X=10
V=5
l=1
Xll + XVl
28
XXVlll |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
LlX
L=50
l=1
X=10
XXIV + XXXV
59
LlX |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CCCXLllll
C=100
D=500
L=50
X=10
CLXXXll + CXXXll + XlV + V
334
CCCXLllll
(100-500+50+10) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
XClX
X=10
C=100
lX=9
CXX - XXll
99
XClX |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MDL
M=1000
D=500
L=50
MDLXXIX - XXXIX
1550
MDL |
|
|
Term
interpret the quantity in each of the following:
caplets no. XXV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
170
C=100
L=50
X=10
CLXX=100-50+10+10
CLXX=170 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1650
M=1000
D=500
C=100
L=50
MDCL=1000+500+100+50
MDCL=1650 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
45
X=10
L=50
V=5
XLV= 10-50+5
XLV=45 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
69
L=50
X=10
lX=9
LXlX= 50+10+9
LXlX=69 |
|
|
Term
| convert the normal body temp. of 98.6 degress F to degrees C? |
|
Definition
37 degrees C
C= (F - 32)* 5/9
C= 98.6-32=66.6* 5/9(0.556)
C=37
|
|
|
Term
| the freeze drying of a protein solution can be done at -150 degrees F convert to degrees C? |
|
Definition
-101 degrees C
C= (F-32) * 5/9
C=-150-32 * 5/9(0.556)
C=-101 |
|
|
Term
| the freezing point of water is 0 degrees C convert to degrees F? |
|
Definition
32 degrees F
F= (C * 9/5) + 32
F= 0 * 9/5(1.8)=0 + 32
F=32
|
|
|
Term
| convert -35 degrees C to degrees F? |
|
Definition
-31 degrees F
F= (C*9/5) + 32
F= (-35 *9/5(1.8))=-63+32
F=-31 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| child dose = (age in yrs+1/age in yrs+7) x adult dose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| child dose= (age in yrs/age+12) x adult dose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| child dose= (age in yrs x adult dose)/ 12 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| child dose= (age in months x adult dose)/150 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| child dose= (child weight in lbs/ 150) x adult dose |
|
|
Term
| the adult dose of a drug a is 9gr/day using youngs rule calculate the dose for a 6 year old child? |
|
Definition
3gr
(6/6+12) x 9
(6/18) x 9
0.3333333 x 9
2.99 rounds to 3gr |
|
|
Term
| using clarks rule calculate the dose for a 30 lb child if the average adult dose is 500mg/day? |
|
Definition
100mg
(30/150) x 500
0.2 x 500
100 |
|
|
Term
| using frieds rule calculate the dose of medication A for a 15 month old infant if the adult dose is 100mg? |
|
Definition
10mg
(15x100)/150
1500/150
10 |
|
|
Term
give the meaning of the following abbreviations:
-aa
-ad
-cc
-dtd
-Eq
-g
-gal
-gr |
|
Definition
-aa-of each
-ad-up to, to make up tp
-cc-cubic centimeter
-dtd-dispense such dose, give such dose
-Eq-equivalent
-g-gram
-gal-gallon
-gr-grain |
|
|
Term
-gtt
-h, hr
-kg
-L
-lb
-mcg
-mEq
-mg
-mg/kg |
|
Definition
-gtt-drop
-h,hr-hour
-kg-kilogram
-L-liter
-lb-pound
-mcg-microgram
-mEq-milliequivalent
-mg-milligram
-mg/kg-milligram of drug per kilogram of bodyweight |
|
|
Term
-ml
-mOsmol
-#
-qs
-qs ad
-pt
-qt
-ss
-tbsp
-tsp |
|
Definition
-ml-milliliter
-mOsmol-milliosmole
-#-number
-qs-a sufficent quantity
-qs ad- a sufficent quantity to make up to
-pt-pint
-qt-quart
-ss-one half
-tbsp-tablespoon
-tsp-teaspoon |
|
|
Term
-U
-amp
-cap
-ECT
-elix
-fl
-fl oz
-inj
-IV
-IVP |
|
Definition
-U-unit
-amp-ampsule
-cap-capsule
-ECT- enteric coated tablet
-elix-elxir
-fl-fluid
-fl oz-fluid ounce
-inj-injection
-IV-intravenous
-IVP-intravenous push |
|
|
Term
-IVPB
-MDI
-oint
-sol
-supp
-susp
-syr
-tab
-TDS
-TPN |
|
Definition
-IVPB-intravenous piggyback
-MDI-metered dose inhaler
-oint-ointment
-sol-solution
-supp-suppository
-susp-suspension
-syr-syrup
-tab-tablet
-TDS- transdermal delivery system
-TPN- total parenteral nutrition |
|
|
Term
-ung
-D5LR
-D5NS
-DW
-D5W
-D10W
-D20W
-NS
-1/2 NS
-O/W
|
|
Definition
-ung-ointment
-D5LR-5% dextrose in lactated ringers solution
-D5NS-5% dextrose in normal saline solution
-DW-distilled water
-D5W-5% dextrose in water
-D10W-10% dextrose in water
-D20W-20% dextrose in water
-NS-normal saline
-1/2 NS- half strength normal saline
-O/W-oil in water |
|
|
Term
-RL,R/L
-SWFI
-W/O
-abd
-ad
-as
-au
-buc
-IA
-ID |
|
Definition
-RL, R/L-ringers lactate soution
-SWFI-sterile water for injection
-W/O-water in oil
-abd-abdomen
-ad-right ear
-as-left ear
-au-each ear
-buc-buccal (in the cheek)
-IA-intraarterial
-ID-intradermal |
|
|
Term
-IM
-IT
-IV
-npo
-od
-os
-ou
-per
-po
-pr |
|
Definition
-IM-intrmuscular
-IT-intrathecal
-IV-intravenous
-npo-nothing by mouth
-od-rigt eye
-os-left eye
-ou-each eye
-per-by, through
-po-by mouth
-pr-by rectum |
|
|
Term
-R
-pv
-SC, SQ, subq
-SL
-top
-vag
-a
-ac
-ad lib
-am |
|
Definition
-R-rectum
-pv-by vagina
-SC, SQ, subq- subcutaneously
-SL-sublingual
-top-topical
-vag-vaginal
-a-before
-ac-before meals
-ad lib- at plessure, freely
-am-morning, before noon
|
|
|
Term
-ATC
-bid
-noct
-p
-pc
-pm
-post-op
-pp
-prn
-q |
|
Definition
-ATC-around the clock
-bid-twice a day
-noct-night
-p-after
-pc-after meals
-pm-evening, afternoon
-post-op -postoperative
-pp-after meals
-prn- as needed
-q-every |
|
|
Term
-qd
-qh
-q4h
-q6h
-q8h
-qid
-qod
-tid
-wk
-ABC |
|
Definition
-qd-every day
-qh-every hour
-q4h-every 4 hrs
-q6h- every 6 hrs
-q8h-every 8 hrs
-qid-four times a day
-qod-every other day
-tid-three times a day
-wk-week
-ABC-abacavir
|
|
|
Term
-APAP
-ASA
-ATV
-BCP
-CBV
-ddc
-ddl
-d4t
-DES
-DLV |
|
Definition
-APAP-acetominophen
-ASA-aspirin
-ATV-atazanavir
-BCP-birth control pill
-CBV-zidovudine/lamivudine(combivir)
-ddc-zalcitabine(hivid)
-ddl-didanosine(videx)
-d4t-stavudine(zerit)
-DES-diethylstilbestrol
-DLV-delavirdine(rescriptor) |
|
|
Term
-EES
-EFV
-FPV
-FTC
-HC
-HCTZ
-HRT
-IDV
-INH
-LPVIR |
|
Definition
-EES-erthroymycin ethylsuccinate
-EFV-efavirenz(Sustiva)
-FPV-fosainprenavir
-FTC-emtricitabine
-HC-hydrocortisone
-HCTZ-hydrochlorothiazide
-HRT-hormone replacement therapy
-IDV-indinavir(Crixivan)
-INH-isoniazid
-LPVIR-lopinavir w/ ritonavir(Kaletra) |
|
|
Term
-MOM
-MS
-MTX
-MVI
-NFV
-NTG
-NVP
-PCN
-PTU
-RTV |
|
Definition
-MOM-milk of magnesia
-MS-morphine sulfate
-MTX-methotrexate
-MVI-multivitamin
-NFV-nelfinavir(Viracept)
-NTG-nitroglycerin
-NVP-nevirapine (Viramune)
-PCN-penicillin
-PTU-propylthiouracil
-RTV-ritonavir(Norvir) |
|
|
Term
-SMZ/TMP
-SQV-HGC, SQV-SGC
-T20
-TDF
-TRZ
-TVD
-ZnO
-3TC
-5FU
-AIDS |
|
Definition
-SMZ/TMP-sulfamethoazole/trimethoprim
-SQV-HGC, SQV-SGC-saquinavir (Fortovase,Invirase)
-T20-enfuvirtide
-TDF-lenofovir DF
-TRZ-zidovudine/lamivudine/abacavir
-TVD-emtricitabine
-ZnO-zinc oxide
-3TC-lamivudine(epivir)
-5FU-5-fluorouracil
-AIDS-acquired immune deficency syndrome |
|
|
Term
-BM
-BP
-BPH
-BS
-CA
-CAD
-CHF
-COPD
-CP
-CVA
|
|
Definition
-BM-bomel movement
-BP-blood pressure
-BPH-benign prostatic hypertrophy
-BS-blood sugar
-CA-cancer
-CAD-coronary artery disease
-CHF-congestive heart failure
-COPD-chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
-CP-chest pain
-CVA-cardiovascular accident |
|
|
Term
-DT
-DJD
-DM
-GERD
-GI
-GT
-GU
-HA
-HBP
-HIV |
|
Definition
-DT-delirium tremens
-DJD-degenerative joint disease
-DM-diabetes mellitis
-GERD-gastroesophageal reflex disease
-GI-gastrointesines
-GT-gastrostomy disease
-GU-gastrourinary
-HA-headache
-HBP-high blood pressure
-HIV-human immunodeficency virus |
|
|
Term
-HR
-HT, HTN
-JRT
-NKA
-NKDA
-N&V, N/V
-OA
-OCD
-P
-PTT |
|
Definition
-HR-heart rate
-HT,HTN-hypertension
-JRT-juvenile rhuetoid arthritis
-NKA-no known allergies
-NKDA-no known drug allergies
-N&V, N/V- nausea
-OA-osteoarthritis
-OCD-obsessive complusive disorder
-P-pulse
-PTT-prothrombin time |
|
|
Term
-PVC
-RA
-RBC
-SCT
-SOB
-sx
-TED
-Tx
-UA
-URI |
|
Definition
-PVC-premature ventricular contractions
-RA-rhuematoid arthritis
-RBC-red blood cells
-SCT-sickle cell trait
-SOB-shortness of breat
-sx-symptoms
-TED-thromboembolic disease
-Tx-treatment
-UA-uric acid, urinalysis
-URI-upper respiratory infection |
|
|
Term
-UTI
-VS
-WBC
-C
-c
-DAW
-dil
-disp
-F
-KVO |
|
Definition
-UTI-urinary tract infection
-VS-vital signs
-WBC-white blood cells
-C-celsius
-c-with
-DAW-dispense as written
-dil-dilute
-disp-dispense
-F-fahrenheit
-KVO-keep vein open |
|
|
Term
-m ft
-non rep
-NR
-RN
-Rx
-s
-sig
-T
-ut dict, ud |
|
Definition
-m ft-mix and make
-non rep-do not repeat
-NR-no refills
-RN-registered nurse
-Rx-take
-s-without
-sig-write on label
-T-temperature
-ut dict, ud-as directed |
|
|
Term
| what are 4 popular lipid lowering medications? |
|
Definition
| lipitor(Atorvastatin), simvistatin (zocor,vytorin), crestor(Rosuvastatin), vytorin(Ezetimibe) |
|
|
Term
generic name of medications give me the brand names:
acetaminophen-codeine? |
|
Definition
| phenergan with codeine/ tylenol with codeine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| proventil, ventolin,Proventil-HFA, AccuNeb, Vospire, ProAir |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| wellbutrin, wellbutrin SR,wellbutrin XL, zyban |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| miacalcin,Fortical, Calcimar |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cetrizine-pseudophedrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| clotrimazole-betamethasone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| conjugated estrogen medroxy progesterone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dextroamphetamine-amphetamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-desogestrel? |
|
Definition
| cyclessa, desgen, kariva, mircette, ortho-cept |
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-drospirenone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-levonorgestrel? |
|
Definition
| levlen, nordetter, seasonale, tri-levlen, tri phasil, trivora 28 |
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-norelgestromin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-nonthindrone? |
|
Definition
| estro fe, femhrt, loestrin fe, ovcon, ortho-novum |
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-norgestimate? |
|
Definition
| orthro tri cyclen, orthro tri cyclen lo |
|
|
Term
| ethinyl estradiol-norgestrel? |
|
Definition
| lo/ovral, low-ogestrel, ovral |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| actiq, sublimaze, duragesic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| fexofenadine-pseudoephedrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| folvite, foliamin, apo-folic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| diabeta, glynase, micronase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| esidrex, apresazide, hydrodiuril |
|
|
Term
| hydrocodone-acetaminophen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hydrocodone-chlorpheniramine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| irbesartan-hydrochlorothiazide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| losartan hydrochlorothiazide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| concerta, metadate, ritalin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| laser, naprosyn,anaprox,aleve |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| procardia,adalat,afeditab,nifediac |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| minitran, nitrolingual, nitrostat |
|
|
Term
| NPH(neutral protamine hagedorn) isophane insulin? |
|
Definition
| humulin N,Novolin N,Novolin NPH, NPH Lletin II |
|
|
Term
| regular insulin; isophane insulin (NPH)? |
|
Definition
| humulin 70/30,Humulin 50/50, Novolin 70/3,Innolet ReliOn 70/30 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| propoxyphene-acetaminophen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| timoptic,timacor,blocarden |
|
|
Term
| tobramycin/dexamethasone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| triamterene hydrochlorothiazide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| valsartan hydrochlorothiazide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| calan, coveratts, isoptin, verelan |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
brand name drugs given give the generic names of the following?
-hyrodiuril? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
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| lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide |
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| acetaminophen-hydrocodone (APAP) |
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| what are the parts of a prescription? |
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| prescriber information, date, patient information, Rx, inscription, subscription, signa, additional instructions, signature, DEA number |
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| what is the prescriber information? |
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| name, address, telephone number and other information identifying the prescriber including state licenses number |
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| what does the date mean on parts of a prescription? |
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| date on which the prescription was written |
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| what is the patient information? |
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| name, address, date of birth and other pertinent information about the patient who receives the prescription |
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| what does the symbol Rx mean on parts of a prescription? |
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| Rx for the latin word recipe, meaning take |
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| medication prescribed including generic or brand name, strength and amount |
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| what is the subscription? |
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| instructions to the pharmacist on dispensing the medication |
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| what is signa on parts of the prescripton? |
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| directions for the patient to follow commonly called the sig |
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| additional instructions on parts of a prescription is? |
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| any additional information that the prescriber deems necessary |
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| what is the signature on parts of a prescription? |
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| the signature of the prescriber |
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| what is the DEA number on parts of a prescription? |
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| number that identifies the prescriber as someone authorized to prescribe controlled substance |
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| what are the parts of the patient profile? |
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| identifying information, insurance/billing information, medical history, medication/prescription history, prescription preferences, refusal of information |
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| what is the identifying information on parts of a patient profile? |
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| patients full name with middle intial, address, telephone number, birth date and gender |
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| what is the insurance/billing information on parts of a patients profile? |
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| information necessary for billing |
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| what is the medical history on parts of a patients profile? |
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| information concerning existing conditions and known allergies and adverse reactions the patient has experienced |
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| what is the medication/prescription history on parts of a patients profile? |
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| any prescription and OTC medications currently being taken and a list of previous prescription filled for this patient including information on refills |
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| what is the prescription preference on parts of a patients profile? |
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| patient preference as they apply to his/her prescriptions |
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| what is the refusal of information on parts of a patients profile? |
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| statement of refusal by the patient to provide any or all of the previous information |
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| typical duties performed by the pharmacy technician:? |
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| dispensing, record keeping, pricing, receiving written prescriptions and conveying them to the pharmacist, answering and properly directing telephone calls, preparing records including patient profiles and billing records |
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| preparing doses of precompounded medications? |
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| retreiving medications from shelf/supply cabinet, selecting container, preparing labels, counting/pouring medications, reconstituting prefabricated medications, pricing prescriptions |
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| preparing doses of extemporaneous compounded, nonsterile medications? |
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| retreving medication from shelf/supply cabinet, selecting equipment for the compounding operation, weighing and measuring, compounding, preparing labels, selecting containers, packaging, maintaining and filing of records of extemporaneous compunding, cleaning area and equipment |
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| preparing doses of extemporaneously compounded, sterile medications? |
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| retreiving medications from shelf/supply cabinet selecting equpiment for the compounding operation, using aspetic equipment and procedures, weighing and measuring, admixing parental products, preparing labels, selecting containers, packaging, maintaining and filing of records of extemporaneous compounding, cleaning area and equipment |
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| transporting medications to and from wards? |
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| preparing cart, tray or other means of conveyance, delivering controlled drugs, maintaining delivery records, distributing medications to wards, organizing medications for administration to patients, retreiving, reconciling and recording credit for unadministered medications, returning unadministered medications to unit dose bins and injectables to stock,replenishing floorstock, checking for expiration dates, removing overstock |
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| is the act of reducing to small fine particles |
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| is the act of combining two substances |
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| is the process of rubbing, grinding or pulverizing a substance to create fine particles generally by means of mortar and pestle |
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| is typically used when reducing the particle size of a solid during the preparation of an ointment |
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| what is pulverization by intervention? |
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| is the process of reducing the size of a particle in a solid with the aid of an additional material |
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| is the process of combining substances by means of a spatula generally on an ointment tile |
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| direct purchasing requires? |
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| a completion of a purchase order generally on a preprinted form with a unique number on which the product name, amount and price are entered. |
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| advantages of direct purchasing? |
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| is a lower cost and the lack of add on fees |
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| disadvantages of direct purchasing? |
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| is the committment of time and staff on the part of the pharmacy since there are multiple requistions to be completed and mailed to multiple pharmaceutical companies |
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| wholesaler purchasing enables? |
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| the pharmacy to use a single source to purchase numerous products from numerous manufacturers |
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| advantages of wholesaler purchasing? |
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| include reduced turnaround for orders, lower inventory, lower associated cost and reduced commitment of time and staff |
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| disadvantages of wholesaler purchasing? |
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| include higher purchase cost, supply difficulties, loss of the control provided by in house purchase orders and unavailability of some pharmaceuticals |
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| prime vendor purchasing involves? |
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| an agreement made by pharmacies for a specified percentages or dollar volume of purchases |
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| advantages of prime vendor purchasing? |
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| lower acquistion costs, competitive service fee, electronic order entry and emergency delivery services |
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| just in time (JIT) purchasing involves? |
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| frequent purchasing in quantities that just meet supply needs until the next ordering time |
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advantages of just in time
(JIT) purchasing? |
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| reduced the quantity of each product on the shelves and thus reduces the amount of money committed to inventory |
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| disadvantages of just in time (JIT) purchasing? |
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| this system can be used only when supplies are readily available and pharmaceutical need can be accurately predicted |
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pharmacy laws:
pure food and drug act of 1906? |
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| was to prohibit the interstate transportation or sale of adulterated and misbranding food and drugs |
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| food drug and cosmetic (FDC) act of 1938? |
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| created the FDA(food and drug administration) and required pharmaceutical manufacturers to file a new drug application(NDA) with each new drug before marketing manufacturers must prove that the product is safe for human use the FDC act of 1938 also extended and clarified the definitions of adulterated and misbranded drugs this act also defined the relevant "official compendia" as the united states pharmacopeia and the national formulary under this act the FDA has the power not only to approve or deny new drug applications (NDA) but also to conduct inspections of manufacturing plants to ensure compliance |
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| durham-humphrey amendment of 1951? |
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| states that drug containers do not have to include "adequate directions for use" as long as they bear the legend "caution:federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription" the dispensing of the drug by a pharmacist with a label giving directions from the prescriber meets the law requirements this amendment thus established the distriction between so called legend, prescription, drugs and over the counter(OTC) or non prescription drugs it also authorized the taking of prescriptions verbally rather than in writing and the refilling of prescriptions however the refilling of prescriptions subject to abuse was limited under this amendment prescriptions for such substances could not be refilled without the expressed consent of the prescriber |
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| kefauver-harris amendment of 1962? |
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| it extended the FDC act of 1938 to require that drugs not only be safe for humans but also be effective the amendement require drug manufacturers to file with FDA an investigational new drug application (INDA) before initiating a clinical trial in humans after extensive in which a product is proven both safe and effective the manufacturer may then submit an NDA that seeks approval to market the product |
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| comprehensive drug abuse prevention and control act of 1970 referred to as the contolled substances act(CSA) of 1970? |
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| CSA was created to combat and control drug abuse and supersede previous federal drug abuse laws the act classified drugs with potential for abuse as controlled substances and ranked them into five catergories or schedules ranging from those with great potentially for abuse to those wih liitle such potential the agency made primarily responsible under this act is the drug enforcement administration(DEA) an arm of the department of justice the DEA charged with enforcement and prevention related to the abuse of controlled substances such as many narcotic pain medications schedule ll narcotics are most highly regulated and sudden increases in usage in a particular pharmacy may cause the DEA to investigate after upon reccommendation from the manufacturer and the FDA, the DEA classifies new drug into a schedule and will even reevaluate drugs that have been on the market for sometime to determine whether they warrant being changed to a schedule drug |
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| poison prevention packaging act of 1970? |
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| to prevent accident childhood poisoning from prescription and non prescription products it is enforced by the consumer product safety commission and requires that most over the counter(OTC) and legend drug be packaged in child resistance that cannot be opened by 80% of children under 5 but can be opened by 90% of adults the law provide that on request by the precriber or by the patient the pharmacist may dispense a drug in a noncompliant containers the patient many older patient with rhuematoid arthritis will request a nonchild resistance container |
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| drug listing act of 1972? |
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| gives the FDA the authority to compile a list of currently marketed drugs under this act new drug is assigned a unique and permanent product code known as a national drug code(NDC) consisting of 10 characters that identify the manufacturer, the drug formulation and the size and type of packaging the FDA requests but does not require that the NDC appear on all drug labels including labels of prescription containers using this code the FDA is able to maintain a database of drugs use manufacturer and active ingredients and of newly marketed, discontinued and remarketed drugs the bar coded information is also used to double check the accuracy of prescriptions filled by automation |
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| an orphan drug is one that is intended for use in a few patients with a rare disease or condition developing and marketing such a drug would be prohibitively expensive the orphan drug act of 1983 encourage the development of of orphan drugs by providing tax incentives and allowing manufacturers to be granted exculsive licenses to market such drugs over 250 orphan drugs have been approved by the FDA for marketing |
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| drug price and competition and patent term restoration act of 1984? |
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| a given drug typically has several names including its chemical name its official generic name or nonproprietary name both of which given in official compendia and one or more brand or proprietary name given by manufacturers a generic drug one with same chemical composition as a brand name drug that can be substituted for the brand name drug in prescriptions once the original patent expires any manufacturer is allowed to market a generic drug which usualy cost less than the brand name the drug price and competition and patent term restoration encourages the creation of both generic drugs and innovative new drug by streamlining the process for generic drug approval and by extending patent licenses as a function of the time required for the NDA approval process the patent licenses was extended to allow the manufacturer of the brand name drug completed the NDA to recoop research and development cost as well as to provide an incentive to research new drugs for the marketplace |
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| prescription drug marketing act of 1987? |
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| passed in response to concern over safety and competition issues raised by secondary markets for drugs the prescription drug marketing act of 1987 prohibits the reimportation of a drug into the united states by anyone except the manufacturer this has become a major political and economic issues as many seniors travel across the border or receive their prescription through the mail at presumed substantial savings pharmaceutical manufacturer have threatened to reduce the supply of drugs to canada if illegal reimportation continues canada is concerned that reimportation may create a shortage of medications for its own citizens the united states has elected not to enforce private contraband of individuals but clearly discourages its practice and hopes that the new medicare moderization act of 2003 will minimize reimportation the act also prohibits its sale or trading of drug samples the distrubution of samples to persons other than those licensed to prescribe them and the distribution of samples except by mail or by common carrier this action was taken in response to prescription drug samples being illegally diverted and distributed |
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| omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1990(OBRA 90)? |
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| requires that as a condition of participants in the medicaid program states most establish standards of practice for drug use review(DUR) by the pharmacist among other provisions the act requires a review of drug therapy before each prescription is refilled or delivered to an individual typically at the point of sale the review shall include screening for potential drug therapy problems due to therapeutic duplication drug disease contradictions, drug-drug interactions, incorrect drug dosage or duration of treatment, drug allergy interactions, and clinical abuse/misuse under the law a pharmacist must make an offer to counsel the patient but this person may refuse such counseling |
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| dietary supplement health and education act (DSHEA) of 1994? |
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| FDA is permitted limited oversight is in the dietary supplement market which includes vitamins, minerals, herbs and nutritional supplements |
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| food and drug administration moderization act? |
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| was passed to update the labeling on prescription medications products labeled "legend" changed to read "Rx only" as mentioned earlier legend is the term used in the past to indicate whether a drug was available by prescription or over the counter(OTC) the new labeling requirements were implemented in 2004 the law also authorizes fees to be added to a new drug application(NDA) process to accelerate the review and approval of new drugs |
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| medicare prescription drug improvement and moderization act of 2003 known as medicare part D? |
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| provides prescription drug coverage to patients eligible for medicare benefits this is a voluntary insurance program not an automatic government benefits economic hardships or those on high cost medications patients are required to pay an extra premium in addition to the medicare A/B and are subject to a $250 deductible before benefits are realized no coverage between $2250-$5100 |
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| food and drug administration(FDA)? |
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| the FDA has the primary responsibility and authority to enforce the law and the ability to create and enforce regulations that will assist in providing the public with safe drug products the FDA requires all manufacturers to file applications for invesigation studies and approval of new drugs provides guidelines for packaging and advertisement and oversees the recall of products that are deemed dangerous |
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| is a voluntary program that allows any healthcare professional to report a serious adverse event, product problem or medication error that the professional suspects to be associated with the use of an FDA regulated drug, biological device or dietary supplement it serves as a clearing house to provide all information on safety alerts for drugs, biologics, diet supplements and medical devices including drug recalls it also provides information on all safety labeling changes to product package inserts theses changes include contraindications, warnings, boxed warnings, precautions and adverse medications |
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| vaccine adverse event reporting system (VAERS)? |
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| a post marketing survelliance system operated by the FDA and the centers for disease control (CDC) the main purpose is to collect information adverse events that occur after an immunization this report can be made online via an 800 number or by a mail on a downloaded form |
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| drug enforcement agency(DEA)? |
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| the primary agency responsible for enforcing laws regarding both legal and illegal addictive substances |
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| united states pharmacopeia (USP)? |
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| is to promote the public health by developing and disseminating quality drug standards and information for medicines healthcare delivery and related products and practices the USP publishes the united states pharmacopeia-national formulary(USP-NF) a book that containes standards for medicine, dose forms, drug substances, excipients, inactive ingredients, medical devices and dietary supplements |
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| national association of boards of pharmacy(NABP)? |
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| is the only professional organization that represents all 50 of the state boards of pharmacy it provides a guidance to the state board of pharmacy on drug importation NABP has no regulatory authority like the FDA & DEA it also helps coordinate the issuing of an NCPDP number that is administered by the national council for prescription drug programs(NCPDP) the NABP developed the model state pharmacy practice act(MSPPA) |
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| the activities of the board vary from state to state but generally oversee existing laws and regulations or make necessary amendments when appropriate to ensure that pharmacies and pharmacists are practicing according to the state practice guidelines the board has the authority to revoke or suspended the licenses of a pharmacist with evidence of violation of state or federal laws |
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| the contents of pharmacy technicians: ? |
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| receive prescriptions/medication orders, accept new prescription/medication order, accept refill requests from patient, prescriber or other healthcare professional, accept new prescription/medication order, accept refill request electronically (telephone, fax, computer), contact prescriber/originator for clarification of prescription/medication order refill |
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| at the direction of pharmacists pharmacy technician may assist in: |
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| obtaining from the patient/patient representative such information as diagnosis or desired therapeutic outcome, medication use, allergies, adverse reactions, medical history and other relevant patient information, phyically disability and reimbursement mechanism; obtaining from prescriber or other healthcare professional medical records such information as diagnosis, desired therapeutic outcome, medication use, allergies, patient information, physical disabilty and reimbursment mechanisms; collect data to assist the pharmacist in monitoring patient outcome |
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| pharmacy technician assess prescription/medication order for? |
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| completeness(patient name & address), accuracy(consistency with products available), authenticity, legality and reimbursement eligibilty |
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| what information does the pharmacy technician need to update the medical record/patient profile? |
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| information as medication history, allergies, medication duplication as well as drug-disease, drug-drug, drug-laboratory and drug food interactions |
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| process a prescription/medication order: |
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| enter prescription/medication order information onto patient profile, select the product for a generically written prescription/medication order, select the product for a brand name prescription/medication order, obtain medication/device from inventory, measure, count or calculate finished dose form for dispensing, record preparation of prescription/medication including any special requirement for controlled substances, package finished dose forms, affix label and auxillary label to container, assemble patient information materials, check for accuracy during processing of the prescription/medication order, verify the measurements, preparation/packaging of medication produced by other technicians, prepare prescription/medication order for final check by the pharmacist |
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| compound a prescription/medication order: |
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| assemble equipment/supplies necessary for compounding the prescription/medication order, calibrate equipment needed to compound the prescription/medication order, perform calculations required for usual dose determinations and prescription of compounded intravenous(IV) admixtures, compound medication for dispensing according to prescription formula or instructions, compound medication in anticipation of prescription/medication orders, prepare sterile products, prepare chemotherapy, record preparations/ingredients of medications |
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| provisions of medication to patient/patients representatives: |
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| store medication before distribution, provide medication to patient/patient representative, place medication in dispensing system, deliver medication to patient-care unit, record distribution of prescription medication, record distribution of controlled substances, record distribution of investigational drugs |
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| pharmacy technicians should also do the following things listed: |
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| determine charges and obtain reimbursement for services, communicate with third-party payers to determine or verify coverage and obtain prior authorizations, provides supplemental information as requested/required, ask a patient whether counseling by pharmacist is desired, perform drug administration functions under appropriate supervision, assist the pharmacist in monitoring patient laboratory values |
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| maintaining medication and inventory control system: |
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| identify pharmaceuticals, durable medical equipment, devices and supplies to be ordered, place orders for pharmaceuticals, durable medical equipment, devices and supplies and expedite emergency orders in compliance with legal, regulatory, professional and manufacturers requirements, receive goods and verify against specifications on original purchase order, place pharmaceutical, durable medical equipment, devices and supplies in inventory under proper storage conditions, perform nonpatient-specific distribution of pharmaceutical, durable medical equipment, devices and supplies, remove from inventory expired/discontinued/slow moving pharmaceutical, durable medical equipment, devices and supplies, communicate changes in product availability to pharmacist, staff, patient/patients representative, physician and other healthcare professional |
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| maintaining medication and inventory control systems continue: |
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| implement in monitoring policies and procedures to deter theft and/or drug diversions, maintain a record of controlled substances received, stored and removed from inventory, perform required inventories and maintain associated records, maintain records- keeping systems for repackaging, bulk compounding recalls and return of pharmaceutical, durable medical equipment, devices and supplies, compound medications in anticipation of prescription/medication order, perform quality assurance(QA) tests on compounded medications, repackaged finished dose forms in dispensing, participate in QA programs related to products and/or supplies, communicate with representative of pharmaceutical and equipment supplies |
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| participating in the administration and management of pharmacy practice: |
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| coodinate written, electronic and oral communications throughout the practice settings and disseminate policy changes, update and maintain information, collect productivity information,participate in quality improvement activities, generate QA reports, implement and monitor the practice setting for compliance wih federal, state and local laws, regulations and professional standards, implement and monitor policies and procedures for sanitation management, handling of hazardous waste and infecton control |
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| participating in the administration and management of pharmacy practice continue: |
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| perform and record routine sanitation, maintanence and calibration of equipment, maintain and use manual or computer-based information systems to perform job realted activities, maintaining software for automated dispensing technology including point of care drug dispensing cabinets, performing billing and accounting functions, communicate with third-party payers to determine or verify coverage, conduct staff training, aid in establishing, implementing, monitoring policies and procedures |
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| a category of drugs not considered legitimate for medical use. Included are heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), and marijuana |
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| a category of drugs considered to have a strong potential for abuse or addiction but that also have legitimate medical use. Included are opium, morphine, and cocaine |
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| a category of drugs that have less potential for abuse or addiction than Schedule I or II drugs and have a useful medical purpose. Included are short-acting barbiturates and amphetamines |
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| a medically useful category of drugs that have less potential for abuse or addiction than those of Schedules I, II, and III. Included are diazepam and chloral hydrate |
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| a medically useful category of drugs that have less potential for abuse or addiction than those of Schedules I through IV. Included are antidiarrheals and antitussives with opioid derivatives |
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| mEq x atomic weight divided by valence equals |
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| mg(milligram) x valence divided by atomic weight equals |
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