Term
The act of moving audio from several different sections of two or more tracks and re-assembling on a single track is normally referred to as.... |
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Definition
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Term
The act of moving audio within the multi-track by means of a secondary storage space is normally referred to as..... |
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Definition
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Term
| The act of moving audio within the multi-track is normally referred to as... |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate 1/16-note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 110 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate 1/8-note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 95 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the difference between a VCA group and an Audio Subgroup? |
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Definition
| an audio subgroup routes the signal to a master I/O, VCA groups affect volume only and dont change signal flow. |
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Term
| The signal flow for Re-amping is typically, starting with point of origin is... |
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Definition
| MTR>Mic Line>Mic Panel>ReAmp Box>Amplifier>Mic>Mic Panel>Console>MTR |
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Term
| Which of the following patch points would NOT be a good place to return an outboard mic pre? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the best reason to take a D.I. from every possible instrument during a recording session? |
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Definition
| For ReAmping and FX processing later |
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Term
Which of the following choices is probably the way a mix engineer would make the bass track appear more pronounced precisely when the kick drum hits? |
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Definition
| Gate the bass and trigger it with the kick drum |
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Term
On many consoles, a function known as channel output is available, typically used during a mixing session. What specific changes occur in the console’s signal flow when the channel output function is engaged? |
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Definition
| the small fader receives a copy of the signal from the large fader |
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Term
During a mix on the Amek 9098i, the engineer asks you to make a patch that will allow the signal coming from track 17 to show up in the channel path of both module 17 and module 18. Which patch scenario below would most likely be the best choice? |
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Definition
| Off Tape 17 into Line Amp 18 |
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Term
Your client has rented a Neve 1073 preamp and a Summit TLA-100 Compressor. These are to be used to record the vocals directly to tape, completely bypassing the console. What patch would you make? |
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Definition
| Mic Line>1073>Summit>MTR Send |
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Term
| Buss 16 is dead. How can you route signals to track 16? |
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Definition
| Insert Send 16>MTR Send 16 |
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Term
On the Amek 9098i, the preamp on I/O 44 is dead. However, a microphone is plugged into 44 on the mic panel. You need to cross-patch the mic to another channel and use that preamp. 24 is available. What patch would you make? |
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Definition
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Term
| The primary purpose of a Reamp box is to change _____ level signal to _____ level signal. |
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Definition
| Balanced Line level to Unbalanced Mic level |
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Term
| Engineers typically place the aux and cue sends after the multi-track recorder in signal flow so.... |
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Definition
| So FX are not printed to tape |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT part of the process of setting up an audio subgroup during a mixing session? |
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Definition
| Route to the new I/O in the Routing Matrix, press "Mon to 48tk", then press Buss on the new I/O........anything else is wrong |
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Term
Dynamic processors acting as a limiter of a single specific selected frequency is accomplished by implementing devices known as a... |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following would be the best description of a Direct Insertion (D.I.) box? |
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Definition
| Changes unbalanced mic level signal to balanced line level signal |
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Term
Using the SSL 9000/J, what patch would be best using Channel Output function and an outboard time-based processor? |
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Definition
| Group Output>Processor Input |
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Term
During a recording session on the SSL 9000/J-Series console, you have a microphone signal entering the console on I/O 39 and bussed to Track 19. Typically, you would monitor the signal on... |
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Definition
| Track 19 on the Large Fader |
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Term
| Gating the bass track using the kick drum as a trigger would probably result in ______. |
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Definition
| More pronounced and punchy bass track |
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Term
Which of the following is the proper routing for a mix engineer to “throw” a vocal on I/O 17 to an effects processor, given that the “throw” is set up on I/O 24? |
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Definition
| Route signal from I/O 17 to I/O 24 using the routing matrix, and unmute as FX are needed. |
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Term
The version of the Final mix that includes all tracks except the lead vocal is referred to as the _____ mix. |
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Definition
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Term
The version of the Final mix that includes all tracks except the vocals is referred to as the _____ mix. |
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Definition
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Term
When setting up an audio subgroup on the SSL 9000J in Mix Mode, and returning the subgroup to the large faders_____ and ______ on the Subgroup I/O’s must be engaged. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which monitoring volume is the most accurate level to check relative balance of your mix? |
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Definition
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Term
| Mixing in an environment that is bass heavy, which is the more likely result? |
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Definition
| It will translate as a Bass-light mix |
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Term
The Yamaha NS-10’s display a dramatic 7 dB increase in frequency response at approximately _____, otherwise they are virtually flat. |
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Definition
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Term
By _____, we can better identify elements of the mix that may have phase and imaging issues that were previously hidden. |
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Definition
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Term
| The recognized industry standard near-field reference monitors used for mixing are the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Independent dynamic limiting of selected frequency ranges is accomplished by implementing devices known as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
One of the most common formats to archive and deliver digital masters to the replication house is a modified ¾ Beta video machine called the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the RIAA Curve do during recording? |
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Definition
| Adds 17db @ 15kHz and cuts 17db @ 50Hz |
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Term
Generally speaking, the tapes (including other multi-track media) on which the artist records are owned by: |
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Definition
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Term
Support companies that provide goods and service to the studio and operate on an invoice system are known as: |
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Definition
| Vendors/Out of House Rental Companies |
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Term
| The primary responsibility of the studio manager is to _____. |
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Definition
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Term
A document generated by the A&R Administration department to ensure payment is made from the proper accounts with an artist’s budget is called a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| Studio rates include _____. |
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Definition
| Any equipment in the room and the Assistant Engineer |
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Term
Markets known for significant amounts of production, but typically lack elements including publishing and distribution headquarters, vendors, along with most other major support industries are known as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| Would wiring all of you gear in a Project Studio to a patchbay be a good idea? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the main reason for having a console in a Project Studio? |
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Definition
| A mixer w/ CPU capabilities will help eliminate latency issues |
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Term
| Which form of Multitrack recorder would be more cost effective in a Project Studio? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a cost-effective way to reduce reflections within a Project Studio? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following should be secured first before recording? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following is the most typical example of a “spec” deal? |
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Definition
| Using the studio for free while agreeing to pay if the project profits |
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Term
According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Automated Mixing Techniques”, a _____ is recording an initial automated mix in order to establish null points for any automatable features. |
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Definition
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Term
According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Project Editing”, the global page within ProTools that determines track inputs and outputs is the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Project Mastering” and Lecture information presented, importing audio from the region bin, or selecting _____, are the most effective ways to import the final mix into the new mastering session. |
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Definition
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Term
According to the SRD Lab Handout, “Project Mastering” and Lecture information presented, when recording the final mastered mix to the HHB CDR-830, the _____ should always be monitored. |
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Definition
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Term
You plan to decode an M-S array to tape on the Amek 9098i. In order to create the duplicate of the Side microphone, the best scenario would probably be to _____. |
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Definition
| Patch the insert send of the original SIDE to an open I/O and flip it out of phase |
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Term
The _____ technique employs a pair of directional mic’s with the capsules angled towards each other aiming at the left and right sides of the sound source. |
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Definition
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Term
Which mic technique would allow for making a room or space sound much wider than it really is? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the most important thing to check when using multiple mics on an instrument? |
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Definition
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Term
| When recording a standard drum kit, which of the following should be checked? |
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Definition
| Condenser Mics, Phantom Power, Power Supply, Phase, Vibrations (all of the above) |
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Term
The engineer asks you to set up a M-S Stereo microphone array using a pair of the same microphones. Given the choices below, which pair would you choose? |
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Definition
| 2 Neumann U87's since they can change polar patterns |
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Term
| Which of the following microphones has multiple pickup patterns? |
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Definition
| Band C aka C414 and the Neumann U87 |
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Term
| Why do we typically store analog tapes “Tails Out”? |
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Definition
| To ensure "print through" occurs AFTER the sound source |
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Term
What is the function called that allows you to rewind or fast wind a tape at half-speed, allowing for a better pack of the tape for storage? |
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Definition
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Term
Which component of a tape machine spins at the same speed tape is passing, converting this information into tach pulses for the comparitor circuit to read? |
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Definition
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Term
A trapezoidal pattern appearing on the tape head typically indicates an alignment problem with the head’s _____. |
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Definition
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Term
To adjust for a +9 operating level with a 250 nWb/m MRL tape during repro calibration, the MTR’s meters should read_______. |
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Definition
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Term
To adjust for a +6 operating level during record calibration, the MTR’s meters should read _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| The tones commonly used to adjust for record azimuth are _____ and _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| The most accurate method of adjusting repro azimuth is the _____ method. |
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Definition
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Term
| The Lexicon 960L can store registers on a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| On the Lexicon 480L and 960L, a _____ refers to a user-defined set of parameters. |
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Definition
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Term
To check or change the configuration on the Lexicon 480L, you must press the _____ button. |
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Definition
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Term
The configuration on the Lexicon 480L that feeds the output of Machine A into the inputs of Machine B is called _____. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following best describes the Pre-echo parameter of a 480L reverb program?
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Definition
| Initial reflection of a surface near the sound |
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Term
Which of the following best describes the Pre-delay parameter of a 480L Reverb program? |
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Definition
| the time difference between the original sound and when the effect is heard |
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Term
The phenomenon of cancellation and/or reinforcement at different frequencies and is dependant on the amount of phase shift is known as _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate ¼ note delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 96 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the approximate 1/8-note triplet delay time for a song that is in 4/4 time at 125 BPM? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following processors lowers the noise floor? |
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Definition
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Term
There are four vocal tracks coming in on four separate I/O’s on the console. You only have one high-end tube compressor, a Tube-Tech CL-1B. Which of the following patching scenarios would be the most likely choice for you to accomplish compressing all four tracks with that compressor? |
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Definition
| Group Out>Compressor in>Compressor Out>Channel Line on a new I/O |
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Term
A compressor with a very fast attack time, medium to fast release time, a high ratio and a high threshold is said to be acting as a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
A compressor with a medium attack time, medium to slow release time, a high ratio and a low threshold is said to be acting as a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
The level of the incoming signal at which the compressor amplifier changes from a unity gain amplifier into a compressor reducing gain is said to be the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| The amount of attenuation when a gate is closed is said to be the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| The SSL AWS 900 has _____ dedicated aux sends. |
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Definition
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Term
| The SSL AWS 900 has _____assignable dynamic processors. |
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Definition
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, how many busses are there? |
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Definition
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, how many Stereo FX Returns are there? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you Solo Isolate a channel on the SSL AWS 900? |
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Definition
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Term
In AWSomation, when you trim a fader on the SSL AWS 900, what happens to the previous automation data? |
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Definition
| An offset is added or subtracted to previous moves |
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Term
| On the SSL AWS 900, which button temporarily suspends automation? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of code does the SSL AWS 900 use for positional reference? |
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Definition
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Term
| Recall data and Automation data on the SSL AWS 900 are stored as _________ data |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three Automation Protection Modes on the SSL AWS 900 console? |
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Definition
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Term
On the SSL AWS 900, accessing the __________ page while on the SSL page allows you to change the fader’s glide time? |
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Definition
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Term
| The SSL AWS 900 refers to Fader Groups as ___________. |
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Definition
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Term
The _____ technique employs a pair of directional mic’s with the capsules angled away from each other aiming at the left and right sides of the sound source. |
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Definition
Near CoIncident
ORTF / NOS |
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