Term
|
Definition
Lower Explosive Limit- Minimum gas vapor, when mixed with air to form a flammable mixture - too little, too lean |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Upper Explosive Limit- Upper limit of the explosive range for flammable vapor in the atmosphere - too high, too rich |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The range of combustible vapor or gas-air mixture between UEL and LEL. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Upper limit of the explosive range for flammable vapor in the atmosphere - too high, too rich |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Minimum gas vapor, when mixed with air to form a flammable mixture - too little, too lean |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Maximum amount of exposure to potentially hazardous substance allowed by persons on a day to day basis. Expressed in "PPM". |
|
Definition
| Threshold Limit Value (TLV) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any substance that has a TLV that can lead to lethal poisoning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When conducting an atmospheric test, test a compartment in the following order: |
|
Definition
1.) Oxygen 2.) Combustible Gases 3.) Toxic Gases |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One piece jump suit made of NOMEX, vapor barrier, temp restistant thermal liner, leather reinforced knee pads, retro-reflective material on arms, torso and lower legs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two limitations of the FFE/FPG: |
|
Definition
1.) firefighters must be relieved after 30 to 45 minutes. 2.) is not a proximity suit; exposure to flames can cause injury. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the firefighter's helmet? |
|
Definition
| To protect the firefighter's head, face and neck from flame and falling objects. |
|
|
Term
| What are the features of the firefighter's helmet? |
|
Definition
1.) lightweight kevlar 2.) retro-reflective markings 3.) face shield to protect SCBA mask; deflects heat 4.) liner protects firefighter's head 5.) chin strap |
|
|
Term
| Is the flash hood flame proof? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Provides protection of the head and neck for explosive generated heat up to 2000 degrees for 2 seconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Short, gauntlet style; protects hands from heat and open flames. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two characteristics of firefighter's boots: |
|
Definition
1.) steel toed 2.) felt lined |
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|
Term
| Explain the procedures for stowing the FFE/FPG. |
|
Definition
| Unzipped, folded down inside-out, boots inserted into pant legs (gloves and flash hood in pockets). |
|
|
Term
| Explain the procedures for cleaning the FFE/FPG. |
|
Definition
1.) hand wash in luke warm water with mild soap 2.) hang to dry in open air (FPG liner is removeable) 3.) clean gloves same way 4.) clean face shield and helmet with mild soap |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Self Contained Breathing Apparatus |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Face piece/lens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: First Stage Regulator |
|
Definition
| Maintains 80 psi throughout entire operating range of the cylinder |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Mask mounted Second Stage Regulator |
|
Definition
| Pressure demand regulator that keeps positive pressure to the face piece at all times |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Air cylinder and valve |
|
Definition
| Cylinder holds fresh air (4500 psi if full); valve controls flow of air (handwheel) |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Rupture Disk |
|
Definition
| Prevents overpressurizing of the cylinder. Relieves at or above 7200 psi. |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Audible Alarm |
|
Definition
| Goes off when only 25% air remaining. Will also sound when firefighter stops moving for more than a few seconds. |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Carrier/Harness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Remote Pressure Indicator |
|
Definition
| Glow in the dark gauge that read the same pressure as the cylinder valve gauge |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Universal Rescue Connection (URC) |
|
Definition
| Emergency connector allows a donor tank to connect to reciever's tank |
|
|
Term
| SCBA Parts/Functions: Heads Up Display (HUD) |
|
Definition
Provides firefighter with a visual indicator, in the form of LED lights, of how much air is left in the cylinder: 4 Green: 100% to 76% 3 Green: 75% to 51% 2 Yellow: 50% to 26% (FLASHING, INTERMITTENT) 1 Red: 25% to ZERO (FLASHING, CONTINUOUS) |
|
|
Term
| SCBA HUD: 1 Red LED, flashing continuously: |
|
Definition
| 25% to ZERO air remaining in cylinder |
|
|
Term
| SCBA HUD: 2 Yellow LEDs, flashing intermittenly: |
|
Definition
| 50% to 26% air remaining in cylinder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 75% to 51% air remaining in cylinder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 100% to 76% air remaining in cylinder |
|
|
Term
| What are the attributes of the SCBA facepiece? |
|
Definition
1.) pressure demand valve 2.) inhalation check valve 3.) speaking diaphragm 4.) HUD 5.) wide viewing lens |
|
|
Term
| SCBA: A fully charged cylinder is charged at _________ psi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SCBA: When using the URC, the pressure balance out between cylinders within __________ seconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It should take no longer than __________ minutes to don the SCBA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SCBA: When testing the facepiece seal, how long should you hold it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| SCBA: When changing out cylinders, what safety concerns should you be aware of? |
|
Definition
| Make sure there is no remaining pressure in hose, don't bump or open cylinder valve, ensure band and latch hold cylinder securely in place |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Emergency Escape Breathing Device |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the EEBD? |
|
Definition
| Used for escape only; provides 10 minutes of breathable oxygen. |
|
|
Term
| What are the five major parts of the EEBD? |
|
Definition
1.) mouth piece 2.) nose clip 3.) clear teflon hood 4.) compressed oxygen cylinder 5.) breathing bag |
|
|
Term
| List the procedures for donning an EEBD. |
|
Definition
1.) remove from container 2.) unlatch clear compact case 3.) pull unit out 4.) insert mouth piece and attach nose clip 5.) don hood anytime during escape |
|
|
Term
| What precautions should be observed with the EEBD? |
|
Definition
1.) only 10 minutes of oxygen 2.) used only in escape situations 3.) hood can only withstand a few seconds of direct flames 4.) minimum of 15 minutes to purge oxygen from user's hair after removal of hood |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of anti-flash gear? |
|
Definition
| protects user from elevated air temps caused by fire |
|
|
Term
| What does anti-flash gear consist of? |
|
Definition
1.) flash hood 2.) flash gloves 3.) jersey |
|
|
Term
| Who should wear anti-flash gear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is anti-flash gear used for firefighting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are at least three causes of flooding? |
|
Definition
1.) hull damage 2.) ruptured tanks/piping systems 3.) negligence |
|
|
Term
| What are the duties of the Dewatering Team? |
|
Definition
1.) staging equipment 2.) equipment set-up 3.) dewatering operation |
|
|
Term
| What are two dewatering systems used on board cutters? |
|
Definition
1.) installed 2.) portable |
|
|
Term
| Name two types of portable dewatering pump. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ is the primary function for the P-100 pump. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ is the secondary function for the P-100 pump. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three main parts of the P-100 pump? |
|
Definition
1.) 3" suction inlet 2.) 2.5" discharge hose/combo check valve 3.) exhaust primer |
|
|
Term
| How many gallons per minute will the P-100 discharge at 83 psi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the discharge check valve on the P-100? |
|
Definition
| to prevent backflow of water when pump is secured |
|
|
Term
| What are the attributes of the P-100 engine? |
|
Definition
1.) 10 H.P. 2.) 4 cycle 3.) air cooled 4.) 406 cc aluminum block 5.) diesel fuel 6.) recoil rope start |
|
|
Term
| State the steps for starting the P-100 pump. |
|
Definition
1.) set fuel to "O" open 2.) set throttle to "START" OR pull starter rope until pump stops turning 3.) depress decompression lever 4.) pull starter rope to start |
|
|
Term
| P-100: When do you close the exhaust valve to the normal position? |
|
Definition
| when a steady stream of water appears |
|
|
Term
| P-100: What is the purpose of the petcock valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| P-100: Where is the petcock valve located? |
|
Definition
| lower face of pump housing |
|
|
Term
| P-100: What pressure does the compound gauge indicate? |
|
Definition
| from 30 in vacuum to 300 psi |
|
|
Term
| P-100: What is the normal discharge pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| P-100: How many gallons of diesel can the fuel tank hold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| P-100: Where is the special tri-gate attached? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| P-100: What is the purpose of the special tri-gate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions should be followed when operating the P-100? |
|
Definition
1.) always wear hearing protection 2.) get permission from bridge to start 3.) ensure discharge hose is attached and manned 4.) use caution when refueling a hot or running pump 5.) stand by with PKP or AFFF when refueling hot or running pump |
|
|
Term
| What is the CG P-6 pump designed for? |
|
Definition
| to be transferred to a sinking vessel to aid in its recovery |
|
|
Term
| What items are required to be stowed in the CG P-6 pump can with the pump? |
|
Definition
1.) 3" suction hose 2.) 3" discharge hose 3.) 2.5 gallon fuel tank 4.) explosion proof flashlight 5.) waterproof instruction card |
|
|
Term
| How long should it take to prime the CG P-6? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can the CG P-6 be used to pump flammable liquids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do you want to set the throttle when starting the CG P-6? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions must be followed when operating the CG P-6? |
|
Definition
1.) wear hearing protection 2.) no smoking (gasoline fumes) 3.) maintain suction while pump is running |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A portable pump that pumps water in - in order to pump water out |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of portable eductors used in the CG? |
|
Definition
1.) Navy Type Peri-Jet 2.) CG Eductor |
|
|
Term
| How much water can an eductor discharge? |
|
Definition
| twice as much water as is provided for suction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the vertical distance water is pumped |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| occurs when supply water allowed to escape into the space being dewatered |
|
|
Term
| What are two ways to avoid back flushing when dewatering with an eductor? |
|
Definition
1.) connect a foot valve 2.) ensure sufficient supply water provided, no kinks in discharge hose |
|
|
Term
| When an eductor has removed all water what can it begin removing from the space next? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the submersible pump (sub pump) used for? |
|
Definition
| dewatering where the eductors or fuel powered (P-6, P-100) pumps cannot; may be used when certain flammable liquids are present |
|
|
Term
| Barriers to effective communications: |
|
Definition
1.) pre-occupation (tunnel vision) 2.) anger or frustration 3.) personal bias 4.) lack of confidence 5.) organizational structure 6.) rank 7.) inappropriate priorities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| repeat back message verbatim; message is heard and understood |
|
|
Term
| What is a benefit of paraphrasing? |
|
Definition
| allows you to check your understanding of the message and shows the sender that you listened accurately |
|
|
Term
| What is active listening? |
|
Definition
| enhances performance by requiring the receiver of a message to be active in the comms process |
|
|
Term
| What must the receiver do to actively listen? |
|
Definition
1.) focus attention on the message 2.) listen carefully, looking for non-verbal comms 3.) keep an open mind; suspend judgment 4.) verfiy what was heard |
|
|
Term
| Voice actuated sound waves vibrate the diaphragm armature centered on wire coil which is surrounded by a magnetic field; movement of armature creates a current that is sent to the other end of the line where the process is reversed. |
|
Definition
| Process that allows sound powered phones to work |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| maneuvering and docking circuit/mooring stations/special sea detail/loss of steering casualties |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| damagae control and stability circuit |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| engineer's circuit to provide comms between engine plant and DC central |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| casualty control circuit; rig comms lines between vital stations during emergency situations; requires portable leads and portable jack boxes |
|
|
Term
| What are the three rules of circuit discipline? |
|
Definition
1.) transmit official messages only 2.) keep button in off except when transmitting 3.) use only standard terms and phrases |
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure for temporarily leaving your station? |
|
Definition
| request to leave the station and state reason(s) why; upon return, report "back on line" |
|
|
Term
| What are three parts of a message? |
|
Definition
1.) station name being called 2.) station calling 3.) message |
|
|
Term
| What are the duties of the control station? |
|
Definition
1.) must know proper circuit procedures 2.) maintains mission control 3.) maintains circuit discipline 4.) acts as monitor |
|
|
Term
| What is message acknowledgement? |
|
Definition
| receiving station must repeat controlling station's order back verbatim |
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary reasons for using message writing? |
|
Definition
1.) to provide comms between DC stations 2.) to provide written record of events 3.) to keep DC central and bridge informed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the lowest temperature at which a flammable substance gives off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the lowest temperature at which fuel will continue to burn after ignition; normally higher than flash point. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (auto ignition) substance ignites without the introduction of flames or sparks. (solvent soaked rags) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the lowest temperature at which combustion will occur without the application of heat. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| takes place when burning vapors produce heat which in turn releases and ignites more vapors; continues until all fuel and/or oxygen is consumed. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three elements required for fire? |
|
Definition
1.) Fuel: gases, flammable liquids, vapors or solids (pyrolysis) 2.) Heat: generated by mechanical, electrical or chemical means 3.) Oxygen: 15% minimum required for flammable combustion |
|
|
Term
| What is the fourth part of the complete combustion process as illustrated on the Fire Tetrahedron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of oxygen is normally found in the surrounding air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three events that occur in the chemical chain reaction? |
|
Definition
1.) heated fuel releases vapors 2.) vapors combine and create new compounds 3.) new compounds mix with oxygen and ignite |
|
|
Term
| Classes of Fire: ordinary combustible materials such as paper, wood or fabric. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Classes of Fire: chemical - vapor/air mixtures, gasoline, diesel, paints/solvents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Classes of Fire: energized electrical |
|
Definition
| Class C - Alpha when power is secured |
|
|
Term
| Classes of Fire: combustible metals such as magnesium and titanium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List and define the three methods of heat transfer. |
|
Definition
1.) Conduction: the transfer of heat through a solid object. 2.) Convection: the transfer of heat through the motion of hot gases in the air. 3.) Radiation: the transfer of heat across an intervening space. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the four stages of a fire. |
|
Definition
1.) Growth Stage: low temps, localized in vicinity of origin. 2.) Flash Over: quickly spreads to all remaining combustibles. 3.) Fully Developed: all combustibles are being consumed; limited to available oxygen. 4.) Decay: all fuel/oxygen is consumed; fire smolders; reflash possible if more oxygen is allowed to enter space. |
|
|
Term
| Explain extinguishment theory. |
|
Definition
| A fire can be extinguished by removing any one side of the Fire Tetrahedron; Fuel, Oxygen, Heat, Chemical Chain Reaction. |
|
|
Term
| List six fire extinguishing agents found on board CG cutters. |
|
Definition
1.) water 2.) aqueous potassium carbonate (APC) 3.) aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) 4.) carbon dioxide (CO2) 5.) purple potassium powder (PKP) 6.) HALON 1301 |
|
|
Term
| What does AFFF stand for? |
|
Definition
| Aqueous Film Forming Foam |
|
|
Term
| How does AFFF extinguish a Class B fire? |
|
Definition
| when mixed with water it produces a film that prevents vapors from rising and mixing with oxygen thus, stopping the chemical chain reaction |
|
|
Term
| List saftey precautions to follow when using CO2 extinguishers. |
|
Definition
1.) no personnel in space due to asphyxiation 2.) horn and bottle get very cold - frostbite 3.) keep bottle grounded to prevent static electricity |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of an in-line eductor? |
|
Definition
| mixes AFFF with water to use on fires |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a spanner wrench? |
|
Definition
| tighten and loosen fire fighting fittings and equipment |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of desmoking equipment? |
|
Definition
| to remove smoke from a space once a fire has been extinguished |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the vari-nozzle? |
|
Definition
| used to apply water to a fire and cooling fire boundaries; may be used for desmoking |
|
|
Term
| List the parts of the vari-nozzle. |
|
Definition
1.) variable pattern tip 2.) pattern selector 3.) bale (forward is closed) 4.) female coupling to hose 5.) grip |
|
|
Term
| List the three patterns of the vari-nozzle. |
|
Definition
1.) straight stream - extended reach, can penetrate and break up Class (A) fires, direct attack 2.) narrow /30 degree angle - fog attack to gain control, provides good reach 3.) wide/90 degree angle - used for personal protection and cooling fire boundary surfaces |
|
|
Term
| What is the flow rate for the vari-nozzle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does an in-line eductor work? |
|
Definition
| as water passes through the eductor suction created in the pick-up hose draws AFFF out of its container, the AFFF and water mix to produce a film forming foam upon discharge through the vari-nozzle. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mixing ratio of the in-line eductor (% water to % AFFF)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What water pressure level should be maintained to ensure consistent pick-up and proper mixture of AFFF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The standard CO2 portable extinguisher has a __________ capacity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CO2 extinguisher is primarily used on _________ fires. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The effective range of the CO2 extinguisher is _________ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Discharge of the CO2 lasts for approximately _____ seconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the parts and functions of the CO2 portable extinguisher. |
|
Definition
1.) cylinder: holds agent 2.) squeeze grip release valve: allows the release of agent when the grip is squeezed 3.) locking pin: prevents accidental discharge 4.) seal: keeps the locking pin in place until the seal broken 5.) hose and horn: provides a way to direct the agent towards the fire |
|
|
Term
| The standard PKP portable extinguisher has a _________ capacity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The PKP extinguisher is primarily used on ________ fires. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The effective range of the PKP extinguisher is ________ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Discharge of the PKP lasts for approximately _________ seconds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the parts and functions of the PKP extinguisher. |
|
Definition
1.) shell: holds agent 2.) CO2 cartridge: pressurizes shell 3.) puncture lever: used to actuate CO2 4.) hose: carries agent to nozzle, aiming 5.) nozzle: aiming 6.) pull pin: prevents accidental discharge of CO2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Thermal Imager? |
|
Definition
| allows the user to see through smoke and steam, also used for search and rescue of personnel |
|
|
Term
| What is the power source for the Thermal Imager? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the three primary uses of the Fire Finder. |
|
Definition
1.) locate hot spots in low visibility 2.) maintain fire boundaries/prevent fire spread 3.) assist in overhaul of deep seated fires |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Firemain? |
|
Definition
| pumps water to fire hose stations, supplies water to flushing and drainage systems throughout the cutter. |
|
|
Term
| What can be used as a substitute for the Firemain in a machinery space fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
F - Find I - Inform R - Restrict E - Extinguish or Exit |
|
|
Term
| Describe the process of "size up the fire". |
|
Definition
| It’s the rapid and deliberate consideration of critical fire facts; continuous from start to finish. |
|
|
Term
| What are three examples of key facts you should determine when sizing up the fire? |
|
Definition
1.) location and what is burning 2.) what other combustibles are present 3.) determine where to set fire and smoke boundaries |
|
|
Term
| How do you isolate a space for fire? |
|
Definition
1.) secure ventilation as required 2.) secure doors and hatches 3.) secure electrical power |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| securing all sides of adjacent compartments in order to isolate the fire and set boundaries. |
|
|
Term
| What compartments must be secured as soon as possible during a fire? |
|
Definition
| the spaces directly above and next to the affected space |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of fire boundaries? |
|
Definition
1.) primary: immediately adjacent to the affected space (above, next to) 2.) secondary: bulkheads, decks and overheads immediately following primary boundaries |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard length of hose on an interior station? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the standard length of hose on an exterior station? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary objectives for handling of the vari-nozzle? |
|
Definition
1.) direct the stream where desired based on the attack used 2.) do so with the appropriate pattern 3.) practice water discipline |
|
|
Term
| What is water discipline? |
|
Definition
| only use as much water as is necessary to achieve the desired result |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of fire attacks used in the CG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the three types of direct attack. |
|
Definition
1.) direct at the base: when access is possible supply water directly to the base of the fire 2.) fog attack to gain control: used when entry into the space is possible but accessing the seat of the fire is not 3.) direct attack from access point: used when high temps prevent entering the space |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| spraying water fog into space through a "cracked" open door or hatch or through some other opening in the bulkhead; to cool the space to allow for entry and employment of direct attack |
|
|
Term
| Explain the tactics used when performing an indirect attack. |
|
Definition
| narrow fog for 5 to 10 minutes; when possible, enter space within 1 to 2 minutes and attack directly |
|
|
Term
| What are the four principles of investigation? |
|
Definition
1.) be thorough 2.) approach with caution 3.) make reports clearly and frequently 4.) repeat investigation until secured |
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements of the investigator? |
|
Definition
1.) work in pairs 2.) must wear SCBA with FFE/FPG 3.) must have thorough knowledge of the cutter 4.) should be knowledgable in all aspects of damage control |
|
|
Term
| What is the objective of overhauling a fire? |
|
Definition
| to ensure that an extinguished fire will not start burning again |
|
|
Term
| What are the procedures for overhauling a fire? |
|
Definition
1.) perform a thorough inspection of the affected spaces (fire finder, thermal imager) 2.) trace out duct work and extinguish any duct work fires 3.) inspect all overhead spaces, false bulkheads, concealed spaces and decks 4.) inspect areas where piping penetrates the bulkheads or decks and behind outlets and cables 5.) before removing affected materials, cool and overhaul |
|
|
Term
| List the precautions for using an installed system to de-smoke a space. |
|
Definition
1.) make sure the ventilation system to be used is free of burning or smoldering materials 2.) have fire teams standing by to secure the vent system in the event of reflash 3.) obtain permission as needed prior to operating the installed system |
|
|
Term
| What is supply ventilation? |
|
Definition
| supplying fresh air to the space and displacing contaminated air through any available openings |
|
|
Term
| What is exhaust ventilation? |
|
Definition
| removes contaminated air from a space by allowing fresh air to flow in naturally from any available openings |
|
|
Term
| What is needed to power the Ram-Fan? |
|
Definition
| water at 40 psi or 29 gpm |
|
|
Term
| What are the three atmospheric tests that must be conducted in a compartment following a fire? |
|
Definition
1.) Oxygen test 2.) Explosive test 3.) Toxic test |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| length of towline from bitt to bitt |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| both vessels are riding in the same relative position, crest to crest or trough to trough; prevents excessive strain on towline |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| swinging temporarily from course by action of a following or quartering sea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the dip in the towline caused by the natural weight of the line; acts as a natural shock absorber |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for when inspecting the towline? |
|
Definition
| cuts, abrasions, snagging, signs of overloading, paint burned into line |
|
|
Term
| How many turns should be on the tow bitt to prevent the line from slipping? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a thimble used for? |
|
Definition
| to evenly distribute strain on the eye of the towline and prevent premature wear |
|
|
Term
| What are screw pin shackles used for? |
|
Definition
| connecting various objects together |
|
|
Term
| What does a skiff hook consist of? |
|
Definition
| a stainless ladder hook or safety hook welded onto 6" of stainless round stock |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| heavy vertical cylinders for making fast lines; for heavy duty applications |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a device used to secure lines, usually smaller than bitts; for normal or light duty applications |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used for guiding a line aboard a vessel; may be open or closed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| used when a central connecting point isn't available on the vessel to be towed or when a higher degree of control over the towed vessel is needed |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of bridle? |
|
Definition
1.) Single leg 2.) Double leg |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a messenger line in towing? |
|
Definition
| to pass the towline from the towing vessel to the vessel to be towed (heaving line) |
|
|
Term
| What may be used to hold the stern of the towed vessel to sea and prevent yawing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of chafing gear? |
|
Definition
| to protect various parts of the towing vessel's towing ensemble (lines/bridles) as well as the fittings and decks of the vessel to be towed |
|
|
Term
| What are the two towing methods? |
|
Definition
1.) stern towing 2.) alongside towing |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred towing method? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is an alongside tow used? |
|
Definition
| in protected waters where maximum control is required |
|
|
Term
| What are two major forces involved with towing? |
|
Definition
1.) static - constant, cannot be changed 2.) dynamic - intermittent, things that change such as weather |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Personal Flotation Device |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a PFD? |
|
Definition
| to keep crew members afloat in the water |
|
|
Term
| What are five types of PFDs used on board CG cutters? |
|
Definition
1.) the standard Navy preserver 2.) inflatable yoke "Mae West", Type V 3.) Type III 4.) anti-exposure coveralls, Type V 5.) life rings, Type IV |
|
|
Term
| Which two kinds of PFD are authorized for abandoning ship? |
|
Definition
1.) standard Navy type 2.) inflatable yoke |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard Navy PFD designed for? |
|
Definition
| to turn a person in the water (PIW) from face down to face up in the water |
|
|
Term
| What are two disadvantages of the Navy PFD? |
|
Definition
1.) bulky, restricts movement 2.) buoyancy prevents underwater swimming |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred method for entering the water during any situation? |
|
Definition
| by climbing down the Jacob's ladder or a cargo net |
|
|
Term
| Explain how to jump into the water if that is the only option available. |
|
Definition
1.) check for debris in water - don't jump into heavy debris 2.) ensure PFD straps are tight 3.) hold collar with hands, arms crossed 4.) tuck elbows in toward waist 5.) cross ankles before entering the water |
|
|
Term
| What is the nickname for the Type V inflatable life jacket? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of the Mae West inflatable PFD? |
|
Definition
| freedom of movement, worn on waist when not inflated |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary method of inflation for the Mae West? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the survival suit used for? |
|
Definition
| it is intended to be worn in place of the PFD aboard cutters on the ocean on routes north of 32 degrees latitude and the Great Lakes |
|
|
Term
| What is the nickname for the survival suit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure for jumping into the water with the survival suit on? |
|
Definition
1.) cover face with one hand 2.) hold crotch with other hand 3.) cross legs before entering the water |
|
|
Term
| Describe the MK 124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal. |
|
Definition
| Has two ends; one with orange smoke for day use and one with a red flare for night use; night end has two raised bands and a white ignition tab to aid in identification at night |
|
|
Term
| At what angle should you hold the MK 124 once ignited? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action should you take if the day end flames? |
|
Definition
| submerge in water to extinguish flame |
|
|
Term
| What are the four sub-assemblies in the MK 124? |
|
Definition
1.) smoke candle 2.) smoke igniter 3.) flare candle 4.) flare igniter |
|
|
Term
| List the parts of the MK 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit. |
|
Definition
1.) MK 80 signal cartridges 2.) MK 31 pencil launcher |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum burn time for the MK 80 cartridges? |
|
Definition
| approximately 4.5 seconds |
|
|
Term
| What action should you take if the cartridge fails to fire? |
|
Definition
| try two more times waiting approximately 30 seconds between attempts, discard cartridge overboard if it fails to fire (DO NOT PLACE CARTRIDGE BACK IN KIT) |
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions should be followed when using signal flares? |
|
Definition
1.) wait 30 seconds before removing spent cartridges from MK 31 launcher 2.) be aware of hot drippings from MK 124 3.) point away from body at all times |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Emergency Position Indicating Radion Beacon |
|
|
Term
| What are three types of EPIRBs used by the CG? |
|
Definition
1.) Class A 2.) Class C 3.) Category I (406 MHz) |
|
|
Term
| How do you activate a Class A EPIRB? |
|
Definition
| remove from bracket and invert |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the Class A EPIRB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What VHF Channel does the Class C EPIRB transmit on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the Class C EPIRB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain how to activate a Class C EPIRB. |
|
Definition
| release antenna, unlock switch, rotate switch to "ON" |
|
|
Term
| How do you know if the Class C EPIRB is operating properly? |
|
Definition
| you should see a flashing red LED on the device |
|
|
Term
| What is the advantage of the Category 1 EPIRB? |
|
Definition
| use of the 406 MHz frequency is reserved only for the SARSAT system |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the Category 1 EPIRB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hydrostatic release unit - water activated cutting device used to cut a object free from a sinking vessel such as an EPIRB or life raft |
|
|
Term
| How is the Category 1 EPIRB activated? |
|
Definition
| activates when inverted on an overturned vessel or when released by HRU from a sinking vessel |
|
|
Term
| How do YOU manually activate a Category 1 EPIRB? |
|
Definition
| disconnect strap latch and invert |
|
|
Term
| List the equipment provided during preparations to abandon ship. |
|
Definition
1.) blankets 2.) food 3.) weapons 4.) navigation equipment 5.) EPIRBs if applicable 6.) first aid kits and equipment 7.) hand held radios |
|
|
Term
| Explain what actions you should take when entering water containing burning fuel. |
|
Definition
1.) jump feet first, swim windward under the water 2.) when air is gone, surface pushing the flames away 3.) take a breath and go back under 4.) repeat until clear of the flames |
|
|
Term
| List actions to take once in the water. |
|
Definition
1.) if not in life raft, swim away from cutter 2.) tie rafts together 3.) stay together 4.) keep alert 5.) assist injured persons 6.) monitor supplies 7.) activate EPIRB 8.) DO NOT panic |
|
|
Term
| Who performs the job of pointer for a Man Overboard emergency? |
|
Definition
| the person who sees the person fall overboard |
|
|
Term
| What are the pointer's responsibilities? |
|
Definition
1.) notify Conning Officer, yell "man overboard" indicating which side of vessel 2.) throw life ring(s) 3.) maintain visual contact of PIW while transitting decks as cutter comes about 4.) report distance and condition of PIW |
|
|
Term
| What does an "OSCAR" flag mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What colors are in the Oscar flag? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the parts of the Stokes Litter? |
|
Definition
1.) chest pads 2.) flotation tubes 3.) restraints 4.) ballast bar (at foot of litter) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three points to consider when recovering a PIW? |
|
Definition
1.) conscious 2.) unconscious 3.) injuries |
|
|
Term
| What should be used to recover a conscious PIW? |
|
Definition
| heaving lines or rescue line throw bag |
|
|
Term
| List the methods for recovering an unconscious or injured PIW? |
|
Definition
| cutter swimmer deployed from small boat |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of Material Conditions of Readiness in Shipboard Damage Control? |
|
Definition
| designed to maintain ship's watertight integrity while at sea and inport and to limit the extent of damage that could occur during an emergency |
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary material conditions of readiness? |
|
Definition
1.) X-Ray - fittings marked by the letter X in black 2.) Yoke - fittings marked by the letter Y in black 3.) Zebra - fittings marked by the letter Z in red |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| X is set while in port during normal working hours; provides the least amount of protection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Y is set and maintained while at sea and in port after normal working hours |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Z is set immediately in the event of an emergency such as fire or flooding; provides the most protection |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of modifications to material conditions of readiness? |
|
Definition
| to allow exceptions so that the crew may utilize certain fittings and immediately secure them after use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| may be opened without special permission to allow personnel to pass through but must be reset immediately following use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| may be opened without special permission by persons proceeding to battle stations but must be reset immediately following use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| may be opened with special permission only to allow personnel to pass through but must be reset immediately following use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| restricts all light that may be seen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| applies to vital systems that if secured would impair the ship |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| applies to non-vital systems and normally kept open but must be secured against chemical, biological or radiological (CBR) attack. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the DC Closure Log? |
|
Definition
| used to log and keep track of exceptions to conditions of readiness; shows where the existing material condition of readiness has been modified as well as the fitting's type, number and classification |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Compartment Check Off List |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a CCOL? |
|
Definition
| to provide an itemized listing of all classified fittings and closures used in damage control to set the specified material condition of readiness in a particular space. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| at least one posted in each space with a fitting or closure that may need to be secured during damage control |
|
|
Term
| What information does the CCOL contain? |
|
Definition
1.) all classified fittings 2.) all DC equipment within the compartment 3.) miscellaneous unclassified items that may be useful in damage control |
|
|
Term
| What information does each item listed on the CCOL have? |
|
Definition
1.) item number 2.) item name 3.) fitting number 4.) classification 5.) the division responsible for proper operation of item |
|
|
Term
| When is a partial CCOL used? |
|
Definition
| when a space has an "alcove", the partial CCOL is clearly labeled "PARTIAL" and all items listed must also be listed on the main CCOL for that space |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose for duplicate CCOLs? |
|
Definition
| for compartments with 2 or more entrances (over ten feet apart); all duplicates are clearly labeled "DUPLICATE" |
|
|
Term
| What does the term "fitting" refer to? |
|
Definition
| closures such as watertight doors, port holes, manhole covers, vent fittings, scuttles and hatches |
|
|
Term
| Shipboard Damage Control - Numbering System: what are two differences in numbering valves? |
|
Definition
1.) each system is numbered seperately 2.) the abbreviated name appears before the number |
|
|
Term
| Shipboard Damage Control - Numbering System: describe Up/Down deck numbering. |
|
Definition
| Main Deck is numbered 1 - all decks below the main deck are numbered in sequence after 1, all decks above the main deck are preceded by a zero starting with the 01 (zero one) deck being directly above the main deck. |
|
|
Term
| Shipboard Damage Control - Numbering System: describe Fore/Aft compartment numbering. |
|
Definition
| a compartment is designated by the forward-most frame of that compartment |
|
|
Term
| Shipboard Damage Control - Numbering System: describe Port/Starboard compartment numbering. |
|
Definition
| all compartments and fittings on the starboard side of the ship are given odd numbering and the port side compartments and fittings are given even numbering |
|
|
Term
| What piping systems can be patched in an emergency? |
|
Definition
1.) the firemain systems 2.) water cooling systems |
|
|
Term
| Which piping systems CANNOT be patched in an emergency? |
|
Definition
1.) fuel systems 2.) hydraulic systems |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of patches used in the CG? |
|
Definition
1.) Jubilee pipe patch 2.) soft patch 3.) syntho-glass |
|
|
Term
| How much pressure can a Jubilee patch withstand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much pressure can a soft patch withstand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a disadvantage of using a soft patch? |
|
Definition
| not as fast as a Jubilee or sytho-glass patch |
|
|
Term
| What is sytho-glass made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much pressure can a syntho-glass patch withstand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much heat can a syntho-glass patch withstand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one advantage of the syntho-glass patch? |
|
Definition
| can be used at or on bends in a pipe where other patches cannot |
|
|
Term
| What two widths do syntho-glass patches come in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does syntho-glass expire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions must be observed when applying syntho-glass? |
|
Definition
1.) don't use on systems exceeding 150 psi 2.) avoid using on flammable liquid systems 3.) wear gloves when applying (chemical reaction induced heat) 4.) wear eye protection |
|
|
Term
| Explain steps for applying syntho-glass. |
|
Definition
1.) secure system to be repaired 2.) clean and roughen area to be patched 3.) remove product from package, soak in water for 20 seconds 4.) apply by firmly wrapping, mold until no longer tacky 5.) if needed, add more |
|
|
Term
| State the difference between plugging and patching. |
|
Definition
| plugs go into a hole, patches cover the hole |
|
|
Term
| What size plug would you select for a 5 inch hole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can patches be made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four types of patches used in the CG? |
|
Definition
1.) box patch 2.) bucket patch 3.) plate patch 4.) hinged plate patch |
|
|
Term
| What are box patches used for? |
|
Definition
| covering a hole that has jagged edges protuding inward toward the centerline |
|
|
Term
| What is used to reinforce a box patch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a bucket patch used for? |
|
Definition
| covering a hole that has jagged edges protuding inward toward the centerline |
|
|
Term
| What is a plate patch used for? |
|
Definition
| for covering holes that protrude outward from the centerline |
|
|
Term
| What methods can be used to secure a plate patch? |
|
Definition
| "T" bolts, "J" type hook bolts or welding |
|
|
Term
| What is a hinged plate patch used for? |
|
Definition
| small holes of 18 inches or less in size that protude inward toward the centerline |
|
|
Term
| Explain how to use a hinged plate patch. |
|
Definition
| fold patch to fit thru hole, unfold and pull into place over gasket or other sealing medium using attached line, tie line off to a secure object |
|
|
Term
| What is a hook bolt used for? |
|
Definition
| pass through a plate patch and hook onto exterior hull plating |
|
|
Term
| What shapes do hook bolts come in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions must be observed when plugging or patching damage? |
|
Definition
1.) wear helmet and safety toe boots 2.) never hold a plug while another hammers 3.) no electric tools 4.) when welding, follow welding rules 5.) always wear eye protection |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of shoring? |
|
Definition
1.) support ruptured decks 2.) strengthen weakened bulkheads 3.) support hatches and doors |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of shoring used in the CG? |
|
Definition
1.) wood shoring 2.) steel (mechanical) shoring |
|
|
Term
| What are the two best types of wood to use for shoring? |
|
Definition
1.) Douglas Fir 2.) Yellow Pine |
|
|
Term
| List the components of wood shoring and their purpose. |
|
Definition
1.) wedges - cut coarse, used to secure lengths of shoring in place, absorbs water and swells to provide a tight fit 2.) shole plate - protects shore from rough, irregular surfaces 3.) strongback - used to evenly distribute the force of the shoring 4.) shoring - main support component |
|
|
Term
| Describe mechanical shoring and its components. |
|
Definition
| consists of 2 lenghts of square tubing, the shorter tube inside the longer tube; 4 spring locks; adustable angle base plate and a screw jack |
|
|
Term
| What are the two sizes of mechanical shoring? |
|
Definition
1.) 3 to 5 foot 2.) 6 to 11 foot |
|
|
Term
| What is the weight capacity of each size of mechanical shoring? |
|
Definition
1.) 3 to 5 - 20,000 lbs at 3 feet / 12,000 lbs at 5 feet 2.) 6 to 11 - 20,000 lbs at 6 feet / 6,000 lbs at 6 feet |
|
|
Term
| What are two advantages of mechanical shoring? |
|
Definition
1.) fireproof 2.) quick to erect * versatile |
|
|
Term
| What are two disadvantages of mechanical shoring? |
|
Definition
1.) size restrictions 2.) can cause injury if handled incorrectly * requires PMS |
|
|
Term
| Wood Shoring: Explain the method of Direct Compression. |
|
Definition
| simplest and strongest shoring method - all pressure is delivered directly on the ends of the shoring; used whenver possible; referred to as "I" (eye) type |
|
|
Term
| Wood Shoring: Explain the method of Triangulation. |
|
Definition
| is the next strongest method; pressure is applied to a strongback from opposite directions; "K" type. |
|
|
Term
| Wood Shoring: Explain the method of Cross Axial compression. |
|
Definition
| is the weakest method; not recommended; "H" type. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum working length of a shore? |
|
Definition
| 30 times the minimum butt thickness (30 x 4 = 120 inches) |
|
|
Term
| When calculating the length of a shore, how much is deducted for wedges? |
|
Definition
| one half of an inch (1/2 inch) |
|
|
Term
| What is the calculation when determining the length of a wedge? |
|
Definition
| 6 times its minimum butt thickness |
|
|
Term
| With "K" type shoring, angle should not exceed _____ degrees. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is shoring meant to force a warped or bulging bulkhead back into place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two procedures for laying out Triangular shore? |
|
Definition
1.) shoring batten 2.) framing square |
|
|
Term
| What is a shoring batten used for? |
|
Definition
| to rapidly determine required length and angles to be cut; normally made by the ship's crew |
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of a framing square? |
|
Definition
1.) Blade - long leg 2.) Tongue - short leg 3.) Heel - corner where long and short legs meet |
|
|
Term
| Define the term "rise" as it applies to shoring. |
|
Definition
| the vertical distance from the deck or overhead to where the shores meet |
|
|
Term
| On the framing square one _________ equals one _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blade of the framing square is held in the _________ hand. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many pressure points should be used for a door that has 10 dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should you pass metal shoring down into a space? |
|
Definition
| always keep the screw jack end pointed down so the smaller tube cannot fall out onto those waiting to receive the shore |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a liquid in a space that shoudn't be there |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when flooding is not contained and is flowing from one space to another |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| water mixed with substances or items that cannot be pumped |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| space is fully flooded; secured with all fittings shored up |
|
|
Term
| Primary Flooding Boundary: |
|
Definition
| first set of watertight fittings immediately adjacent to the affected space |
|
|
Term
| Secondary Flooding Boundary: |
|
Definition
| the next set of watertight fittings following the primary flooding boundary fittings |
|
|
Term
| What information should you provide to the On Scene Leader upon locating the damage that started the flooding? |
|
Definition
1.) location of flooding 2.) water depth in space 3.) other pertinent information (cause of flooding, size of hole(s) |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of taking soundings during a flooding emergency? |
|
Definition
| to determine if any tanks were damaged and whether a damaged tank is the cause of the flooding |
|
|
Term
| What are the responsiblities of the Plugging Team? |
|
Definition
1.) survey damage 2.) apply repairs that would be the most effective 3.) inform bridge of repairs 4.) conduct 10 second electrical check on vital equipment 5.) post a watch |
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions should be adhered to when combating flooding? |
|
Definition
1.) don't enter with energized electrical systems 2.) beware of protruding metal edges 3.) beware of low water temperatures (frostbite/hypothermia) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Team Coordination Training |
|
|
Term
| According to the 1993 Coast Guard Study __________ is the cause of 60-65% of mishaps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________, decision making, effective mission analysis, error & judgment chain, and situational awareness are the five team skills that are part of team coordination training. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The elements of a good brief are: 1.) specify desired results 2.) ______________________ 3.) clarify information 4.) encourage/accept feedback 5.) maintain a positive attitude 6.) ______________________ |
|
Definition
2.) set expectations 6.) define accountability |
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of a brief? |
|
Definition
| sets the stage for how the mission will be conducted; states expectations |
|
|
Term
| Conducting self-critiques, encouraging feedback, and focusing on key processes are all elements of a good _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of a debrief? |
|
Definition
| provides opportunity to evaluate team/individual performance; identify areas that can be improved |
|
|
Term
Decision Making considerations: 1.) information gathering 2.) confirm information gathered 3.) identfy alternatives/contingencies 4.) discuss consequences 5.) ______________________ 6.) execute |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is an 8 step process that decreases the likelihood of a mishap occurring. |
|
Definition
| effective mission analysis |
|
|
Term
| This is any task assigned to an individual, team or unit. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is long and short term plans and contingency plans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is a systematic method of determining risks to a team or individual during a given mission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is managing and minimizing the risk by adjusting the plans as the mission dictates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in effective mission analysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the construction of your operational plan, what considerations should be made concerning supervision? |
|
Definition
1.) is supervision adequate for the mission 2.) is supervisor qualified 3.) has supervisor worked with assigned team members before |
|
|
Term
| What considerations should be made concerning crew selection? |
|
Definition
1.) are crew members qualified 2.) do individuals work well together 3.) are team members physically, mentally and emotionally fit |
|
|
Term
| What are three considerations that should be taken into account when evaluating the complexity of the mission? |
|
Definition
1.) does complexity of mission increase the risk 2.) time required to complete the mission 3.) are multiple missions happening simultaneously |
|
|
Term
| Define each level of risk used on the GAR model. |
|
Definition
Red - Serious Risk (45 - 60) Amber - Moderate Risk (24 - 44) Green - Minimum Risk (0 - 23) |
|
|
Term
| How often should you make a risk assessment during the performance of a mission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The following are steps that can be taken to _________ risk: 1.) create alternatives 2.) communicate alternatives to the crew 3.) monitor risks 4.) check effectiveness of attempts to minimize the risks |
|
Definition
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The following are the eight steps of _________ _________ _________: 1.) define the mission 2.) determine tasks 3.) operational planning 4.) risk assessment 5.) communicate risk assessment 6.) risk management 7.) perform mission 8.) monitor and re-assess |
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Definition
| effective mission analysis |
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| This is identifying errors and making necessary corrections. |
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| This is the result of all decisions made; the out-come of decision making. |
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| What is a major contributing factor to errors and poor judgment? |
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Definition
| Misinformation: false or misunderstood (particularly when communicated verbally) information can lead to errors in judgment |
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| What can indicate that poor judgment and errors are accumulating? |
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Definition
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| This is YOUR ability to identify, process, and comprehend the critical elements of information concerning the team with regards to the mission. |
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Definition
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| What are three types of human behavior that TCT examines? |
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Definition
1.) Passive 2.) Aggressive 3.) Assertive |
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| What is the type of behavior that we should strive for? |
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Definition
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| It is important to be able to recognize different types of human behavior so that you can recognize when someone has lost _________ __________. |
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| This type of person may be withdrawn, depressed, and non-communicative. |
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| This type of person may not communicate well, is rarely a team player and may cause "splits" in the team. |
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| The following are some mannerisms of __________ behavior: down cast eyes, slumped body posture, use of phrases such as "Maybe" and "I guess". |
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| The following are some mannerisms of __________ behavior: uses a raised tone of voice, quick to anger, actions speed up as stress increases, use of sarcasm and put-downs. |
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Definition
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| This type of person suggests alternatives, states opinions, maintains position when challenged and asks for assistance when overloaded. |
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Term
| What are some clues that situational awareness may be lost? |
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Definition
| confusion, uncertainty, tunnel vision, departure from the plan, departure from regulations or SOP, failure to observe hazards |
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| What are some barriers to maintaining situational awareness? |
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Definition
| past experiences, expectations, filters, complacency, stress, fatigue, excessive motivation |
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| Whose responsibility is it to regain situational awareness? |
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Definition
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| What process is used to regain situational awareness? |
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Definition
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Term
The following are the five steps of _________ _________: 1.) pre-mission brief 2.) acknowledgement 3.) inform 4.) concurrence 5.) action |
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Definition
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