Term
| Annotate vehicle discrepancies not previously listed on the AF Form 1800 and report them to the _________________. Report damage to the _______________ immediately upon discovery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What forms are required for each government vehicle? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1800, Waiver Card, Standard Form 91, Standard Form 94, DD Form 518 |
|
|
Term
| What are the five types of patrols? |
|
Definition
| Motorized, Foot and Bicycle, Reserve, Traffic and Special Purpose |
|
|
Term
| Who may approve non-police personnel ride-alongs? |
|
Definition
| 78 SFS/S3 (78 SFS/CC in higher FPCONs) |
|
|
Term
| When may patrols engage in high speed pursuits? |
|
Definition
Never, Prompt establishment of roadblocks, gate closures, deployment of spike strips, proper
use of radios, and obtaining tag numbers alleviates the need for high-speed pursuit |
|
|
Term
Patrols may not travel more than __ M.P.H. above posted speed limit when responding to any
incident |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All patrols must be knowledgeable of the use of ____________ within the vehicle and use them according to procedures contained in this OI |
|
Definition
| Emergency lights, Sirens, Public Address system and Radio system |
|
|
Term
| Define a CODE-1 response. |
|
Definition
| Routine Responses. This response will be without emergency lights or siren. Patrols will obey all rules of the road and traffic control devices |
|
|
Term
| Define a CODE-2 response. |
|
Definition
| Urgent Responses. Responses to urgent situations and silent alarms requiring immediate and expeditious response while observing all traffic laws. Do not use sirens and turn off emergency lights when approaching the incident area. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Emergency Response. Use when there is a danger of loss of life or limb. Use emergency lights and sirens as needed. Remember that lights and sirens do not guarantee the right of way nor do they ensure a safe reaction from other drivers |
|
|
Term
| Who determines what response code should be utilized for an incident? |
|
Definition
| Normally the BDOC however, the SF member may occasionally make the proper response decision. |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of an Active Shooter? |
|
Definition
An Active Shooter situation is when one or more subjects participate in a shooting spree,
random or systematic, with the intent and means to continuously harm others |
|
|
Term
Initial dispatch from the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will utilize the term
“___________” to indicate an active shooter event |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must gate guards do during an Active Shooter? |
|
Definition
| Guards will ensure the gates are secured and will take a position of cover if in the affected area. Manning at the gate will be reduced to two personnel. All additional gate personnel will take the chase vehicle and report to the Flight Sergeant as needed for area evacuation. Due to training limitations, DAF personnel SHOULD NOT be used to make entry to the affected facility unless no other option exists and ONLY with the approval of the Defense Force Commander |
|
|
Term
| Security Forces priorities for an active shooter are? |
|
Definition
Suspect Neutralization
Lives of the Hostage
Lives of the innocent bystanders
Lives of the Security Forces members
Containment of the area
.Event Investigation |
|
|
Term
| Deciding whether to contain the scene or take immediate action to stop the assailant is based on what? |
|
Definition
| The tactical situation, tactical proficiency of patrols, and the ability to immediately engage the active shooter |
|
|
Term
| Responding patrolman will immediately meet at a rally point designated by the Initial IC and form _________ and __________ Teams |
|
Definition
| Contact (2-5 personnel) ; Rescue(minimum of 5 personnel) |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary duties of the Contact teams? |
|
Definition
| The Contact Team’s primary function is to eliminate the threat and to provide an assessment from inside the area or building, such as victim’s locations and medical needs, explosives, suspect description and location, and type of weapons. Contact team members will by-pass wounded to continue search for the active shooter |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary duties of the Rescue teams? |
|
Definition
| The Rescue Team’s primary function is to identify suspect (s) location, to locate victims, and to extract these victims where necessary. The Rescue team may become the Contact team if the suspect is encountered. |
|
|
Term
| What are the minimum equipment items for response to an Active Shooter situation? |
|
Definition
| Helmet, IBA or second chance vest, gas mask, suspect restraint devices (handcuffs/flexcuffs), and a flashlight |
|
|
Term
| Once the shooter(s) has been neutralized and searched, what must the Contact Team do? |
|
Definition
Contact Team members should clear the rest of the facility and conduct a back clear. If no
other hostiles are present, the area must be secured and a crime scene established |
|
|
Term
| What are the two primary formations for an Active Shooter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a contact team member during an active shooter response, what are your actions if you discover an IED in the facility? What about severely wounded personnel? |
|
Definition
| do not attempt to disarm or transmit within 50 feet of device. Notify the on-scene early as possible and continue with mission if possible |
|
|
Term
| The CVB Form 1805 is a ________ part form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CVB 1805 must not issued to whom? |
|
Definition
| Active Duty personnel. NOTE: This also applies to Reserve and National members on AD orders. |
|
|
Term
| What is the disposition of the CVB Form 1805 after the citation is issued? |
|
Definition
The original copy (white) will be forwarded by the issuing Security Forces unit (SFAR/S-5R) to the Central Violations Bureau.
The second copy (yellow) is given to the violator with the attached manila envelope. The reverse includes instructions for the violator. |
|
|
Term
| Who may void a CVB Form 1805? |
|
Definition
| The DFC (78 SFS/CC); the DFC only voids violation notices in cases of honest mistaken identity of person or obvious legal error |
|
|
Term
| True/False. The SFS member who is issued the CVB Form 1805 booklet is the ONLY one who may issue from it |
|
Definition
| True. All 1805’s are accountable and may only be used by the person whom they were issued to. |
|
|
Term
| What is the term “Seven Bridges” used for? |
|
Definition
| The term used to define AFOSI involvement in the political defection of a foreign national to the United States. The term is never used in the presence of a defector |
|
|
Term
| Once BDOC is notified of the situation, ascertain the individual’s security status by asking what two questions? |
|
Definition
| “Is someone following you?” and “are you being threatened?” |
|
|
Term
| What are your actions if the individual answers “Yes” to either question? |
|
Definition
Relay all pertinent information to BDOC via landline if possible.
Have the potential defector move to a location of cover and/or concealment. Ask the individual to consent to a simple search.
Purge prior to transport and relay information to the BDOC.
Upon completion of the search, transport the individual to a secure location. Avoid driving past resources |
|
|
Term
| What are your actions if the individual answers “No” to both questions? |
|
Definition
Have the potential defector move his or her vehicle to a location that does not impede the flow of traffic.
Ask the individual to consent to a simple search of his or her person and a vehicle search. If both searches produce negative results, have the individual remain in the vehicle.
Purge prior to transport and relay information to the BDOC. Transport the individual to a secure location.
Avoid driving past resources |
|
|
Term
| What terms should not be used while speaking in the presence of a political defector? |
|
Definition
Seven Bridges Agent
OSI
AFOSI Investigator
Special Agent
Intelligence Officer Intelligence Agency
Office of Special Investigations |
|
|
Term
| True/False. You should not engage in conversation with the defector or any questions about procedures |
|
Definition
| True; unless absolutely necessary to prevent damage to priority resources or serious bodily injury/death |
|
|
Term
| What are your actions if he/she decides they do not want political asylum? |
|
Definition
| Do not let him/her go until AFOSI has been notified and authorizes the release |
|
|
Term
| What do involuntary fluid extractions (blood or urine) require? |
|
Definition
| A search and seizure authorization (AF Form 1176) |
|
|
Term
| What special rules exist for persons who have hemophilia, other blood-clotting disorders or any medical or surgical disorder under treatment with an anticoagulant? |
|
Definition
| Such personnel may refuse a blood extraction without penalty, but can offer a breath or urine test or both. NOTE: These types of refusals must have the concurrence of a medical doctor |
|
|
Term
| What are the definitions of a search and seizure? |
|
Definition
| A search is an examination of a person, property or premises to uncover evidence of a crime or to uncover evidence of a criminal intent, such as stolen goods, burglary tools, weapons or other evidence. A seizure is the taking of such items by authorities for evidence at a courts- martial or trial |
|
|
Term
| What forms are used for consent and authority to search and seize? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1176 – Authority to search and seize AF Form 1364 – Consent to search and seize |
|
|
Term
| Can a Search Authorization be orally given by the commander? |
|
Definition
| Yes. SF will have the AF Form 1176 signed as soon as possible |
|
|
Term
| May you obtain verbal consent to search? |
|
Definition
| Yes, and have the AF Form 1364 signed after the search |
|
|
Term
| What goes on the back of the AF Form 1176? |
|
Definition
| On the reverse side of the form, write/type a Probable Cause Statement |
|
|
Term
| How many copies of the DD Form 2708 Release of Inmate/Detainee are prepared? |
|
Definition
| 2; One goes to the receiving individual and one stays with the report. |
|
|
Term
| If the BDOC is advised of a military member’s arrest by a civilian law enforcement agency for DUI, the BDOC contacts whom? |
|
Definition
| The member’s First Sergeant who is asked to transport the member to BDOC for issuance of a preliminary base driving privileges suspension letter |
|
|
Term
| Whom may military members be released to? |
|
Definition
| First Sergeant, Supervisor (minimum one rank above suspect) or commander |
|
|
Term
| Whom may base affiliated civilians be released to? |
|
Definition
| Supervisor or adult 18 years of age and older |
|
|
Term
| When may someone be released on their own recognizance? |
|
Definition
| Civilians only; must not be under the influence of alcohol/drugs or deemed mentally unstable |
|
|
Term
| Upon being dispatched to conduct a funds escort, the patrolman will |
|
Definition
| Go directly to the location of the funds courier. Conduct an immediate purge of the area for any suspicious activity. Enter the facility and make contact with the funds courier. Prior to departing the area, advise the funds courier to vary their travel route to their destination |
|
|
Term
| Prior to departing the facility, what must the patrolman advise the BDOC controller of? |
|
Definition
| the route of travel, type of travel, and estimated time the escort will take |
|
|
Term
| How often must status checks be conducted during funds escorts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form is used to document Minor Vehicle Accidents (MVA)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do Security Forces determine fault for a MVA? |
|
Definition
| No, Unless they witness the accident firsthand |
|
|
Term
| How many copies of the AFMC 625 are there and where do they go? |
|
Definition
| 3 copies; The top copy (white) is forwarded with the SFMIS report to S5. The second copy(yellow) is given to driver #1 on scene. The third copy (red) is given to driver #2 on scene. |
|
|
Term
| What goes on the back of each copy of the AFMC form 625? |
|
Definition
| A brief narrative/summary of events and detailed damage description. |
|
|
Term
| What will be declared if a hanger is found unsecured with a PL 1, 2 or 3 aircraft inside after security of the flightline is relinquished to 78 SFS personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 78 SFS personnel will conduct periodic hangar checks and Entry Control Point (ECP) checks, _____checks per shift during 8-hour shifts and _____ checks per shift during 12-hour shifts unless otherwise specified |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the sectors/assigned areas of responsibility for all law enforcement/security patrols? |
|
Definition
Security-1: the east side of the flightline from
the north end of the runway (Gate 12) south to flightline Gate 9 (SAC gate) Security-2: not to exceed the JSTARS restricted area
Security-3: from the north end of the runway (Gate 12) to building 210, including the
AFMC ramp, to remain with the ALC maintenance ramp area when there are no resources parked on the northwest ramp National Guard Ramp
Police-1: Base Wide
Police-2(Sectors 1 & 2): From the North end of the installation to MLK Blvd.
Police-3: From MLK Blvd to the south end of the installation. NOTE: When Police-4 is posted,
Police-3 will patrol sector 3 and Police-4 will patrol sector 4 (Sector 4 is from 10th St. to the south end of the installation) |
|
|
Term
| When is a functional test conducted? |
|
Definition
| Randomly test selected sectors and hangars of the IDS daily by physically initiating an actual alarm. Additionally, the alarm monitor may dispatch a patrol to perform a functional test on any sensor they feel may not be functioning correctly |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard Hand and Arm Signal for a Covered Wagon? |
|
Definition
| Hold your arms outstretched as if forming the letter “T” and shout “Covered Wagon!” |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of Vindicator tests? |
|
Definition
| Functional and Operational |
|
|
Term
| How many functional tests must each shift conduct? |
|
Definition
| One test of one sector of sectors |
|
|
Term
| When are operational tests conducted? |
|
Definition
| Immediately following maintenance of a repaired sensor. This is a test of every sector of a sensor system. This test will only be conducted when requested by IDS Maintenance to observe a repaired or questionable sensor(s). The Alarm Monitor will monitor the sensor(s) for 24 hours utilizing a separate AF Form 340. Upon completion, the Alarm Monitor will contact IDS Maintenance with the results of the test. IDS Maintenance will determine whether the Alarm Monitor will close the work order or initiate another test |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of photography? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who must coordinate unofficial photography within the RCP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who may authorize photography within a controlled area? |
|
Definition
| The controlled area monitor |
|
|
Term
| Can the 78 SFS confiscate film? |
|
Definition
| The 78 SFS personnel may confiscate film and have it developed at the photographer's expense to determine film content |
|
|
Term
| What is the security objective when dealing with a bomb threat? |
|
Definition
to reduce the effect of the bomb threat on mission
accomplishment, locate the alleged device, and identify and apprehend the offender, while protecting personnel and property to the maximum degree possible |
|
|
Term
| What are the three phases of response to a bomb threat |
|
Definition
| Information Phase, Notification Phase and Reaction Phase (remember INR) |
|
|
Term
| Anyone receiving a bomb threat, by any source, must get what? |
|
Definition
| As much information as possible concerning the specific threat and the individual relaying it. This information includes the type and description of devices, location, detonation time, time of communication, characteristics of the individual or caller voice patterns, background noises, reason for the threat, and any other data possible |
|
|
Term
| What form must be kept by each government phone and is used to document a bomb threat? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 440/Bomb Threat Aid |
|
|
Term
| What must you do once the caller hangs up? |
|
Definition
| Pick up the same phone and dial *57. This marks the previous number to help with the trace. You’ll hear two quick tones and the line will automatically disconnect. |
|
|
Term
| When should a MWD be used to confirm a suspicious package as a device? |
|
Definition
| Never; They will be used to search the affected area only for other secondary devices. Only EOD can confirm a device. |
|
|
Term
| All personnel must depart the cordon, through the ECP, no later than ___ minutes prior to detonation time and what form documents who is in the area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Personnel will not transmit within ___ feet from the device |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the cordons sizes for a suspected IED? |
|
Definition
Box Size or Smaller – 500 ft
Larger IEDs, e.g., barrel-size, vehicle type- 1000ft
NOTE: Other flammable items, such as explosives, munitions, fuels, may dictate larger cordons, based on the recommendation from the Fire Chief |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pursuit driving is an attempt by any 78 SFS personnel to apprehend occupants of another moving vehicle who fails to reduce his speed and stop, disobeys traffic laws attempts to elude a 78 SFS member who is operating an emergency vehicle and simultaneously using all emergency warning equipment |
|
|
Term
| When is pursuit driving authorized? |
|
Definition
| Only use pursuit driving procedures when other means of stopping the vehicle (e.g. gate closure, spike strips) are not feasible |
|
|
Term
| Name some restrictions on pursuit driving? |
|
Definition
Due to the potential dangers involved, never pull alongside a fleeing motorist in an attempt to force the subject off the roadway, into a ditch, curb, parked car, or other obstacle
Never pass a violator while in pursuit. The danger of an accident would be increased, and the opportunity for escape would become greater through quick application of the brakes and a sudden turn by the violator
If you have other personnel in the car such as prisoners, witnesses, suspects, or Ride-Along Program participants do not engage in a pursuit
Do not use SF vehicles (marked or unmarked) not equipped with a siren for pursuit driving for other than life threatening situations |
|
|
Term
| What are your actions if the violator flees on foot? |
|
Definition
| If the violator should abandon the vehicle and flee on foot, quickly exit the patrol vehicle, removing the ignition keys. Check the violator’s vehicle for hidden occupants; and to the fullest extent possible, give your location and a description of the car and its occupants to the BDOC |
|
|
Term
| Patrols may use moderate speeds not to exceed __ MPH pursue drivers to apprehend or detain motor vehicle operators who have committed traffic violations, minor offenses, or major offenses which could cause or result in death or serious bodily injury |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are examples of extreme situations where pursuit driving may be authorized? |
|
Definition
| Examples of extreme situations include pursuing a vehicle with material that is extremely dangerous to others (e.g. nuclear, biological, or chemical munitions or components), or pursuing a vehicle whose occupant(s) are suspects in an incident in which deadly force would be authorized |
|
|
Term
| When are roadblocks authorized during pursuit driving? |
|
Definition
| Never; Roadblocks will not be used in pursuit situations because of the extreme and obvious dangers inherent with this technique |
|
|
Term
| Is off-base pursuit authorized? |
|
Definition
Off base pursuit of a suspect by 78 SFS is not authorized except when deemed necessary by Flight Commander/Flight Chief in conjunction with civilian authorities
NOTE: A traffic violator should be allowed to flee from the installation if possible injury or death to innocent bystanders is imminent during pursuit |
|
|
Term
| Does consent to search have to be given in writing? |
|
Definition
| No, it may be given verbally. |
|
|
Term
| What form must be used, if available, to document consent to search |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False they can limit the search by time or by location and they can cancel the search at any time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do if a AF Form 1364 is not available? |
|
Definition
| document the consent on a plain piece of paper as long as the individual signs it and it contains the time, date, persons and place(s) to be searched |
|
|
Term
| How many copies of the AF Form 1364 are prepared? |
|
Definition
| One; it is retained with the case file. |
|
|
Term
| During normal operations, a minimum of __ personnel will responde to an alarm activation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If possible, secure the facility with 360-degree coverage using patrols on opposite corners. These corners are referred to as spots. Where are the spots located? |
|
Definition
| Spot one is located on the left of the main door. The spots go in clockwise order from there. NOTE: At no time will the responding patrols drive by the front of the affected facility |
|
|
Term
| What are SF actions If 360-degree coverage is not possible because of the size or layout of the facility? |
|
Definition
| the designated on-scene commander will determine the most advantageous point of entry/exit to which patrols will respond |
|
|
Term
| What are SF actions during an Open Facility Response? |
|
Definition
| The facility custodian will be requested to provide their physical description to BDOC and on- scene patrol(s) will be updated immediately. BDOC will direct the custodian to exit the facility with their ID card in their hand. Once the custodian is outside, the SF patrol(s) will verify their status and the status of the facility. The SF patrol(s) will conduct an interior sweep of the facility with the facility custodian prior to breaking down the 360-degree coverage to ensure all is in order and to make a determination as to the cause of the alarm |
|
|
Term
| What are SF actions during a Closed Facility Response? |
|
Definition
| Once 360-degree coverage is established, an SF patrol(s) will conduct a tactical exterior check of the facility to look for signs of forced entry. Report results to the BDOC. If the check reveals the facility is secure, the on-scene commander will have one patrol remain at the facility |
|
|
Term
| Building custodians must respond within___minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the patrolman’s actions if the facility is unsecured or there are signs of forced entry? |
|
Definition
| A patrol will search the facility without disrupting the crime scene and challenge and detain all personnel within the facility. Once the facility is determined safe, conduct an interior sweep with the facility custodian to ensure the facility is all in order. If it appears the facility was illegally entered and/or items stolen, the patrol will immediately secure the crime scene and request the 78 SFS Investigations (78 SFS/S2I) to respond. If all seems to in order, the patrol will determine the reason for the alarm and have the custodian reset alarm |
|
|
Term
| Any post or patrol contacting suspects at any time will do what? |
|
Definition
| notify the BDOC Controller immediately and request back up |
|
|
Term
| the BDOC will close the installation gates only for what type of alarms |
|
Definition
| the RCP, Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives (AA&E) assets, a SCIF or a confirmed robbery |
|
|
Term
| Alarms of PL resources require initiation of a______________? |
|
Definition
| Security Incident; NOTE: If it is hostile and it is affecting the protection level resources, initiate a “Covered Wagon” incident report |
|
|
Term
| What MCM rule requires written authority be obtained prior to apprehending a person in a private dwelling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What areas classify as a “Private Dwelling”? |
|
Definition
| Rule 302(e) defines "dwelling" as single-family houses, duplexes and apartments. Private dwellings DO NOT include living areas in military dormitories, tents, field encampments, etc |
|
|
Term
| What goes on the reverse side of the AF Form 3226? |
|
Definition
| Write a Probable Cause statement (Attachment 15) on the reverse side of the form, detailing all information (facts and circumstances) about the incident |
|
|
Term
When is prior written authority not required?
How many copies are prepared? |
|
Definition
Prior written authority is not required if certain exigencies are present, i.e., if evidence or a perceived threat exist which could cause damage, harm or loss of life or the destruction of evidence would occur if the search wasn’t conducted at that time, etc. In these cases, written authority should be obtained the duty day following the apprehension
- one copy |
|
|
Term
| Who acts as the “Authorizing Official” for the AF Form 3226? |
|
Definition
| The installation commander or appointed magistrate |
|
|
Term
| What are the three sources of military jurisdiction? |
|
Definition
| U.S. Constitution, Federal Statutes and International Law |
|
|
Term
| What article states who is subject to military jurisdiction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Article states that the Code applies in all places, and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard. The military has jurisdiction to prosecute any offense committed on or off base? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What four types of jurisdiction apply to military installations and facilities? |
|
Definition
exclusive
concurrent
partial
proprietary |
|
|
Term
| What type of jurisdiction do we have on Robins AFB? |
|
Definition
| Exclusive on all of Robins except for the Museum of Aviation, Southernmost 800 acres and Northernmost 200 acres which are al Proprietary |
|
|
Term
| What is a search incident to apprehension? |
|
Definition
| A search incident to an apprehension can be conducted without obtaining search authority and may include the immediate area over which the apprehended person exercises control. When conducting a search incident to an apprehension, it should be conducted immediately |
|
|
Term
| What form will be completed when a major accident occurs? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1315/Accident Report |
|
|
Term
| What constitutes a major vehicle accident? |
|
Definition
| A major vehicle accident is any accident involving a fatality, personal injury, disabling damage, or vehicle and property damage totaling over $10,000 as well as accidents with vehicle/private property damage over $10,000 |
|
|
Term
| What is an injury defined as? |
|
Definition
-Any condition requiring medical attention
-Complaint or report of pain or injury regardless if medical attention is sought
-Any visible injury. This includes bruises, contusions, cuts, scrapes, compression, or any other visible damage to the body |
|
|
Term
| Response to major accidents consists of what phases? |
|
Definition
| Notification, Response, Withdrawal and Recovery |
|
|
Term
| __________will serve as the action center for receiving reports and directing actions for response to unauthorized aircraft engine starts, taxis, or takeoffs. To provide for immediate response to possible unauthorized aircraft start, taxis or towing operation |
|
Definition
| Airfield Management Operations (AMOPS) |
|
|
Term
| Who serves as the On Scene Commander for an A/C Hijacking attempt? |
|
Definition
| 78 ABW/CC in absence of the FBI |
|
|
Term
| How will SF respond to a suspected hijacked A/C? |
|
Definition
| One SRT will position there vehicle in front of the aircraft to block its movement. One member will deploy to each wingtip. A second SRT will respond to the rear and out of the way of the engines. |
|
|
Term
| Where will Airfield Management tow landing Hijacked aircraft to? |
|
Definition
Primary- Taxiway Alpha
Alternate- Taxiway Delta East |
|
|
Term
CHARLIE. Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some
form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of CHARLIE measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who will direct the implementation of defensive measures for Robins AFB to

reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What forms will the driver be asked for upon stopping a vehicle for an IEPC? |
|
Definition
| driver will be asked for identification, a driver's license, military identification card (if applicable), registration (to establish ownership of the vehicle), and proof of current insurance |
|
|
Term
| If the driver is not the owner, but the owner is present, all procedures and questions regarding the installation entry or exit inspection of the vehicle will be addressed to whom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the vehicle is under military control, is there a requirement to give the person in charge the option as to whether the military controlled vehicle will be examined? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many personnel are required to conduct an IEPC? |
|
Definition
| No less than two 78 SFS personnel should conduct IEPCs; however, a lone security forces member may conduct them due to manning or incidents, with an entry being made in the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Blotter. Sufficient personnel must be used to avoid any unnecessary delays in conducting the IEPCs |
|
|
Term
| Does an Installation Entry Controller (IEC) have the authority to terminate an IEPC? |
|
Definition
| Yes when there is a serious traffic jam, accident, or other circumstances which make continued checks impractical |
|
|
Term
| Once the vehicle is pulled to the apron area safely out of traffic, the driver will be informed of what? |
|
Definition
| That his or her vehicle has been selected for an IEPC pursuant to the directive of the 78 ABW/CC |
|
|
Term
| Upon refusal, what must be initiated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the vehicle is entering the installation, the driver (owner) whether military or civilian, will be advised that if he or she refuses to consent to the IEPC, entry to the installation may be denied. What are your actions If a civilian still refuses? |
|
Definition
| A walk-around of the vehicle will be conducted to examine the vehicle for evidence that can be used as foundation for a search authorization, such as contraband or government property in plain view. If nothing is found, deny access to the installation and complete an AF Form 3545 |
|
|
Term
| Inspection of pedestrians will be conducted in what manner? |
|
Definition
| Only packages, briefcases, shoulder/handbags, luggage, athletic bags, or like containers will be inspected. |
|
|
Term
| If the vehicle is exiting the installation, the driver (owner) whether military or civilian, will be advised that if they refuse to consent to the IEPC, he or she may be detained and denied exit until he or she complies and that future installation privileges may be denied, including denial of installation entry for any vehicle owned or operated by the individual. What your next actions for military/civilian personnel? |
|
Definition
A walk-around of the vehicle will be conducted to examine the vehicle for evidence that can be used as foundation for a search authorization, such as contraband or government property in plain view.
-If a military member refuses to consent to the IEPC, the unit commander (or first sergeant if the unit commander cannot be reached) will be contacted through the BDOC and will be advised to respond to the scene
-If a civilian refuses to consent to the installation entry or exit inspection, the Installation Commander will be contacted by the BDOC controller and obtain immediate authority to search or release the civilian |
|
|
Term
| May physical force be used to enter a vehicle? |
|
Definition
| Physical force may not be used to enter a vehicle unless the 78 ABW/CC has reason to believe government property that cannot otherwise be recovered is contained in the vehicle or for the security of his or her command |
|
|
Term
| If an item of contraband is seen in plain view before, during or after the actual IEPC has been initiated, or if an item of contraband in plain view is discovered after the inspection has been initiated, what are your actions? |
|
Definition
- The IEPC will be terminated immediately and the vehicle secured
- The flight commander/flight chief will be notified and “Authority to Search and Seize” will be requested
- An AF Form 3545 must be accomplished whenever contraband is discovered |
|
|
Term
| When available, a __________________will be used during IEPCs to inspect vehicles and items carried by pedestrians |
|
Definition
| 78 SFS drug/explosives detector dog |
|
|
Term
| At no time will the detection dog be used to inspect ________ during inspections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ESRT (Security-1) from what shift are responsible for conducting lighting checks? |
|
Definition
| Swings during 8 hour shift, Mids during 12 hour shifts |
|
|
Term
| After being dispatched to a crime scene, proceed quickly and safely. Observe the area en route to the scene and note any suspicious persons and vehicles fleeing or loitering around the scene. Upon initial arrival at the scene, contact the BDOC/ECC controller and let him/her know patrols have arrived. Advise the controller of the status on the scene and request medical aid or backup patrols as appropriate. Immediately, after communicating with the controller, take steps to protect the scene. Initial actions should include what four things? |
|
Definition
Record the date, time and weather conditions
- Provide first aid and ensure arrangements are made for medical attention when an
injured or deceased person is present.
- Apprehend/Detain any suspects or offenders at the scene
- Secure the scene by using Security Forces (or other responsible persons) to keep curious
persons away and to keep witnesses, suspects and victims from disturbing anything if the scene is not completely protected |
|
|
Term
| Keep a record of all personnel who enter and exit the scene utilizing the ____________, as soon as feasible |
|
Definition
| AF Fm 1109, Visitor Control Log |
|
|
Term
| Ensure victims, witnesses and complainants are given what? |
|
Definition
| DD Form 2701, Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of spousal abuse? |
|
Definition
| Physical, Sexual and Psychological |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of child abuse/neglect? |
|
Definition
| Emotional Maltreatment, Sexual, Physical and Neglect |
|
|
Term
| What is SF’s primary role in domestic violence? |
|
Definition
| To take immediate action to restore order and protect lives |
|
|
Term
| Who must be notified immediately of all child abuse or neglect allegations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many houses away should you park? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should you not approach the side or back door? |
|
Definition
| You could be mistaken for prowlers |
|
|
Term
| How should SF members be positioned at the door prior to knocking? |
|
Definition
| SF members should always stand to one side of the door, never in front of it. The second SF member should be behind and to one side of the first, in position to maintain visual contact with the inside of the residence and provide cover |
|
|
Term
| How long should you stop and listen before knocking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are your actions if there is no response at the door and the dwelling appears quiet? |
|
Definition
| The address should be verified with the security forces controller. If the address is correct, the sides and rear of the quarters should be checked for indications of the presence of the occupants. Neighbors may also provide useful information |
|
|
Term
| If not invited in the residence, the SF member should request to... |
|
Definition
Move the discussion inside. This will remove the situation from the view of the neighbors and enable SF members to observe:
- Any injuries requiring treatment;
- The location and number of the disputants;
- Visible weapons and threatening moves;
- Living conditions;
- Emotional stage of dispute and emotional condition of disputants;
- Impairment;
- Children at risk; and
- Physical damage to property. |
|
|
Term
| What areas do you want the disputants to avoid? |
|
Definition
| Disputants should never be left alone in another room and should not be removed to the kitchen because of the availability of potential weapons |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between violent disputes and verbal disputes? |
|
Definition
| In a verbal dispute, a physical assault has not occurred |
|
|
Term
| What do you want to do with the disputants upon making contact? |
|
Definition
| Separate them. NOTE: Never let the disputants come between SF members! |
|
|
Term
| What should the attitude of responding Security Forces be? |
|
Definition
| Calm, controlled and concerned |
|
|
Term
| What are three actions that may occur in a family violence situation? |
|
Definition
| Referral, temporary separation or apprehension |
|
|
Term
| Security forces personnel investigating domestic abuse/violence must ensure victims and witnesses are provided what? |
|
Definition
| DD Form 2701, Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime, to ensure victims/witnesses are aware of their rights under the Victim and Witness Assistance Program |
|
|
Term
| When is apprehension the most prudent course of action? |
|
Definition
-There is a formal complaint;
-Probable cause exists that a violation of the UCMJ or local law has occurred and
-The family member refuses to cooperate with security forces, unit commander or first sergeant or family advocacy officials
NOTE: In all instances involving an apprehension, an AF Form 3545, detailing the situation, security forces response and the parties responsible for follow-up actions must be completed |
|
|
Term
| _______________ is the lead US Government agency for investigating criminal acts committed against US Government offices and employees on US Government reservations including military installations or against US Government property |
|
Definition
DOJ (FBI); NOTE: The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) is the lead Air
Force agency responsible for criminal investigations on Air Force installations and serves as liaison with the FBI. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary Air Force goal when dealing with high-risk situations? |
|
Definition
| To prevent or minimize loss of life and property by containment, negotiation and referral when necessary |
|
|
Term
| Responding units to a barricaded suspect must keep the security forces control center informed of what? |
|
Definition
Arrival on Scene
Position
Safe avenues of approach for other responding units Status of the situation. |
|
|
Term
| How do Security force members establish an all-around (360 degree) cordon at hostage and anti-hijack scenes? |
|
Definition
| By establishing an inner and outer cordon |
|
|
Term
| What three factors determine the size of your cordons? |
|
Definition
| Complexity, Scope and Location of the incident |
|
|
Term
| What are the purposes of the inner and outer cordons? |
|
Definition
-The outer perimeter is established to prevent people from interfering with recovery operations and to keep innocent bystanders and onlookers from being hurt. This perimeter should be established outside the maximum effective range of any weapons the hostage takers have
- Normally, on-duty security forces personnel initially set up the inner perimeter to contain the scene. It is used to keep an eye of the situation, prevent escape of the suspects and be close enough to respond quickly as needed. Specialized teams may replace security forces personnel posted on the inner perimeter if they are available and appropriate for use by the OSC |
|
|
Term
| What is the Air Force philosophy when dealing with high risk situations? |
|
Definition
Even though installation commanders have the authority to refuse to
allow the FBI to handle certain high-risk incidents that are criminal in nature (e.g., barricaded suspects), the Air Force philosophy is to fully comply with the lead agency concept by yielding to civilian authorities like the FBI, when possible |
|
|
Term
| What is the principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation? |
|
Definition
| Through the use of a negotiator |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic purpose behind hostage taking? |
|
Definition
| Hostage taking is a way of setting up a bargaining position to achieve an otherwise unattainable objective |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of hostage takers? |
|
Definition
| Terrorists, political extremists, religious fanatics, fleeing criminals, wronged persons and the mentally disturbed |
|
|
Term
| During an Anti-robbery Situation, any post or patrol contacting suspect will do what? |
|
Definition
| Notify the BDOC Controller immediately and request back up |
|
|
Term
| What are you actions if the suspect has fled the scene? |
|
Definition
| Obtain a detailed description of the suspect/vehicle from any bystanders of the incident. Relay all information to the BDOC. The BDOC will order installation gate closure and relay any suspect identification information to all posts/patrols |
|
|
Term
| Any patrol at the facility when the robbery or attempt occurs will make every effort to? |
|
Definition
| Move personnel outside the facility and to an area away from the scene safely without endangering themselves or the bystanders. Everyone gathered in this area will be identified and no one will be permitted to depart the area until released by senior personnel on-scene |
|
|
Term
| Further handling of the situation will be in accordance with what? |
|
Definition
| Established felony traffic stop procedures or barricaded suspect/hostage situation to prevent the escape of the suspects or further escalation of the situation. |
|
|
Term
| Should you attempt to apprehend the individual(s) if a robbery is in progress inside the affected facility? |
|
Definition
| Do not attempt to apprehend the individual(s) if a robbery is in progress inside the affected facility. Every effort should be made to wait until the suspect(s) have exited the facility and are in a clear zone for apprehension |
|
|
Term
| What form must be kept where all funds are stored? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 439/Robbery Checklist |
|
|
Term
| The installation commander is ultimately responsible for the protection of military equipment, property, information, or personnel in the US and its territories. If they are at risk, off an installation, the installation commander may declare a _____________ to contain and secure the federal government resources |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Air Force may need to establish an NDA in such situations as when: |
|
Definition
Aircraft divert to civilian airports
- An aircraft carrying nuclear weapons makes an emergency landing
- It is necessary to temporarily stop the movement of an off-base nuclear weapons convoy
- An aircraft crashes
- Any other unplanned emergency occurs pertaining to military personnel or assets |
|
|
Term
| What are some prohibited radio practices? |
|
Definition
Use of profane or obscene language
- Transmission of unnecessary, extravagant , false or deceptive signals
- Transmissions not in accordance with the limitations of a station license or by an
unlicensed station. For example, the license granted to Security Forces limits range to 150 miles and does not allow for transmitting music or commercial radio signals |
|
|
Term
| Release active duty and reserve US Armed Forces subjects of criminal investigations or offenses to their commander or first sergeant via DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person. Brief the commander or first sergeant on what? |
|
Definition
| The situation and whether or not the individual invoked Article 31 rights. If such rights were invoked, advise the commander or first sergeant not to discuss the situation with the subject |
|
|
Term
| May Active Duty, Reserve or Guard members be released on their own recognizance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Release DoD civilian subjects of criminal investigations/offenses to whom? |
|
Definition
| Their supervisor or someone in their chain of command via DD Form 2708 whenever practical. When not practical, such as during non-duty hours, make a telephone notification to the supervisor or someone in the chain of command and the individual may be released on his/her own recognizance except when under the influence of alcohol, drugs or when mentally unstable. Contact the 78 MDG for further guidance |
|
|
Term
| Release family member/dependant subjects of criminal investigations/offenses to whom? |
|
Definition
| Their sponsors, legal guardians, other family member over the age of 18 or sponsor’s commander or first sergeant via DD Form 2708 |
|
|
Term
| Release non-base-affiliated subjects of criminal investigations/offenses (to include military retirees) to whom? |
|
Definition
| Their base sponsor via DD Form 2708, a responsible adult over 18 years of age or, as a last resort, on their own recognizance. Do not release subjects of alcohol related incidents on their own recognizance |
|
|
Term
| 78 SFS patrols will be alert for suspected abandoned vehicles throughout the installation. What are your initial actions for a suspected abandoned vehicle? |
|
Definition
| A DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, will be issued to a vehicle that appears to be abandoned. The 78 SFS member will return to the BDOC and research the top portion of the citation and attempt to make contact with the owner. If not identified, the 78 SFS member will maintain documentation of attempts made to contact owner |
|
|
Term
| If the owner does not remove or take corrective action of the vehicle within 3 days, what must be issued? |
|
Definition
| DD Form 2504 Abandoned Vehicle Notice |
|
|
Term
| If after 3 days the vehicle has not been removed and no corrective action has been taken, what is accomplished? |
|
Definition
| 78 SFS/S2I will take action to have the vehicle removed in accordance with paragraph 2 and accomplish a DD Form 2505, Abandoned Vehicle Removal Authorization and DD Form 2506, Vehicle Impoundment Report |
|
|
Term
| Selective enforcement is used throughout the Security Forces career field. Traffic patrolling should be centered on a selective basis taking accident and congestion experience into consideration. A desired enforcement quality and deterrent effect (which is needed) is gained through proper use of selective enforcement and discretionary issuance of violation notices and warnings pursuant to governing directives |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Advise military suspects of their right against self-incrimination according to the _____________, before questioning. Advise civilian suspects of their, _____________ right against self-incrimination when placing the suspect in custody |
|
Definition
| Article 31; 5th Amendment |
|
|
Term
| What form(s) are used to advise someone of their rights? |
|
Definition
| AF IMT 1168 (for documented proof of rights advisement) and AFVA 31-231 (for verbal advisement) |
|
|
Term
| Before completing Section V, Interview, of the DD Form 1920, what must be accomplished? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals ages 21 or older with blood alcohol content (BAC) of ____ or higher may be charged with DUI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals driving a commercial vehicle with blood alcohol content (BAC) of ____ or higher may be charged with DUI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals under the age of 21 with blood alcohol content (BAC) of ____ or higher may be charged with DUI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals ages 21 or older are considered to be driving while impaired (DWI) when driving with a blood alcohol content of at least ___ but less than ___. This applies to military members only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Civilians may be charged with _________ when driving with a blood alcohol content of at least .05 but less than .079? |
|
Definition
| GA Code 40-6-391 a(1) “Less-Safe DUI” (there must be proof of less than safe driving. i.e. failing SFST’s) |
|
|
Term
| Before a person may be charged with DUI, he/she must have been operating or in control of a motorized vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or another drug. A person is in control of a vehicle when |
|
Definition
| he/she is physically behind the wheel with keys easily accessible and capable of placing the vehicle in motion |
|
|
Term
| You must have both ______________to stop the vehicle and __________ to apprehend/detain the driver for DUI |
|
Definition
| Reasonable Suspicion, Probable Cause |
|
|
Term
| What is Reasonable Suspicion? |
|
Definition
| Reasonable suspicion is defined as any traffic violation or stopping a vehicle for the purpose of an identification check. Violators are commonly detected by observing unusual or abnormal driving behavior or committing traffic violations |
|
|
Term
| Record the reason for stopping the vehicle and initial observations of the driver’s behavior on what form? |
|
Definition
| DD Form 1920 Alcohol Influence Report |
|
|
Term
| What three tests make up SF Standardized Field Sobriety Tests (SFSTs) |
|
Definition
| The One-Leg Stand, Walk-and-Turn and the Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN). Only use the HGN test if the SF member has been formally trained in the State of Georgia and has had that training documented in Air Force Training Records |
|
|
Term
| What are your actions if the suspect refuses the SFST’s? |
|
Definition
| Use observations and statements made by the suspect to determine whether the individual is under the influence of drugs or alcohol. Arrest/apprehend the suspect for DUI if probable cause exists and continue to document all observations on DD Form 1920 |
|
|
Term
| What must you ask the suspect prior to initiating SFST’s? |
|
Definition
| If he/she has an existing medical condition (including medication) which may prevent him/her from completing the test |
|
|
Term
| When do you want to terminate the Walk and Turn test? |
|
Definition
| if the suspect steps off the line three (3) or more times, falls, nearly falls or gets into a leg- lock position with legs crossed and unable to move |
|
|
Term
| How many possible clues are on each SFST? |
|
Definition
-Eight on walk and turn/six on HGN/four on one leg stand
-If the suspect exhibits at least two clues on any test, the implication is the BAC is above .08
-If the suspect exhibits less than two, the implication is below .08 |
|
|
Term
| When should the one leg stand test be terminated? |
|
Definition
-If the suspect puts his/her foot down three or more times -Falls
-Nearly Falls |
|
|
Term
| How many clues can be observed before terminating the one leg stand? |
|
Definition
-Four
-If the suspect exhibits at least two of the four clues the implication is the BAC is above .08 -If the suspect exhibits less than two, the implication is below .08
-The criterion is 65 percent reliable |
|
|
Term
| What are the training requirements for certification of the Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus Test? |
|
Definition
| -SF member must be certified through a state authorized source |
|
|
Term
What must be read on scene, verbatim and prior to transport once FST’s determine the
driver is DUI/DWI? |
|
Definition
| The DDS-354 Georgia Implied Consent Notice (Note: DO NOT advise from memory) |
|
|
Term
| What is the verification process when issuing the Local Implied Consent Policy Letter? |
|
Definition
The suspect will print and sign their first and last name on the space provided
-The SF who read the statement will print and sign their rank, first and last name in the space provided |
|
|
Term
| What happens if the suspect refuses to sign/acknowledge the Implied Consent Policy Letter? |
|
Definition
| The SF member will retrieve an additional SF member to witness the advisement, print and sign their name and rank on the space provided at the bottom of the form |
|
|
Term
| What are the actions of the SF member upon completion of Implied Consent and probable cause has been determined? |
|
Definition
| The suspect will be handcuffed, searched and transported to the SFCC for a test of his/her breath via the Intoxilyzer 5000 |
|
|
Term
| What are the training requirements for certification of the Intoxilyzer 5000? |
|
Definition
| -SF member must be certified through a state authorized source |
|
|
Term
| What if a suspect refuses to submit a breath sample for the intoxilyzer 5000? |
|
Definition
-He/she will be advised the installation commander may revoke their driving privileges for failure to voluntarily submit to or complete a requested chemical test
-The SF member receiving the refusal must complete an AF Form 1168 detailing the reasonable cause to believe the suspect was driving under the influence and the fact that the suspect refused or failed to complete the test
-The suspect will be processed as a refusal and charged with driving under the influence based on the observations on the DD Form 1920. (Note: The operator must obtain a computer printout on the Intoxilyzer 5000 as proof the machine was working on all refusals) |
|
|
Term
| Does the Suspect have a right to have a lawyer present before deciding whether or not to submit a breath sample? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The suspect must be observed and not drink, eat, smoke, choose tobacco or take anything by mouth for how long prior to a breath test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What if the suspect pukes, burps or brings any amount of fluid from the stomach to the throat or mouth area? |
|
Definition
| -An additional 20 minutes must be waited before breath testing and the suspect must be warned not to do it again |
|
|
Term
| What if the suspect continues to belch after being warned or does not blow hard enough to gain an accurate breath sample? |
|
Definition
-It will be considered a nonverbal refusal
-Ensure two attempts are conducted in this case before testing is terminated |
|
|
Term
| How many copies of the Intox 5000 reading are included in the perforated printer card and where do they go? |
|
Definition
| 3; One copy is given to the suspect and the original and two copies are filed with the report |
|
|
Term
| The readings on the Intox 5000 printer card shall not differ from each other by an alcohol concentration of what? |
|
Definition
-Greater than .02 grams
-If so, the operator must conduct another test after reinitiating the 20 minute observation period |
|
|
Term
| Of the two readings, which one will be used for indictment purposes? |
|
Definition
| The lower of the two however, both readings will be recorded in the incident report |
|
|
Term
| What are SF actions if the individual is incapacitated and a breath test cannot be obtained? |
|
Definition
| The suspect will be transported to the installation medical clinic and a technician will draw and test their blood |
|
|
Term
| What if a suspect subject to the UCMJ refuses does not submit to chemical testing? |
|
Definition
They may be forced to submit an involuntary extraction of bodily fluids (Note: These are
typically used in situations involving death, serious injury or significant property damage) |
|
|
Term
| What steps are taken during a forced extraction of bodily fluids? |
|
Definition
-A search authorization from the 78 ABW/CC
-A search authorization is not required if under such circumstances when there is clear indication one will find evidence and there is reason to believe delay to obtain a search authorization will result in the loss or destruction of evidence sought
-If 78ABW/CC is unavailable consult with SJA
-If 78 ABW/CC is unavailable, the 78 MDG/CC has authorization to approve but must be coordinated through SJA
The 78 MDG/CC need not to be the attending physician, any qualified medic will do |
|
|
Term
| What paperwork is required to process a DUI incident? |
|
Definition
-Blotter Entry
-GCIC Printout
-DD Form 1920
-AF Form 1168 (patrolman, additional responding units and Suspect)
-Photocopy of the suspects drivers license (front and back)
-DD Form 1408
-Preliminary suspension of base driving privileges letter (one for suspect and one for incident report)
-Two copies of the DD Form 2708 (one for suspect original for incident report) -Intox print off (3 copies)
-DS 354 and local implied consent letter -AF Form 3545/SFMIS Report |
|
|
Term
| True or False, the suspects drivers license will be confiscated by SF. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Personnel operating Government Owned Vehicles (GOV) must possess what credentials? |
|
Definition
AF Form 2293, US Air Force Motor Vehicle Operator Identification Card valid for the type
of vehicle being operated
- Valid state drivers license
- Valid AF Form 483, Certificate of Competency, when driving on the flightline |
|
|
Term
| What must you do prior to operating the vehicle? |
|
Definition
| Inspect the entire vehicle for damage and cleanliness to include all items on the vehicle inspection checklist located on the front of AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (General Purpose Vehicles). |
|
|
Term
| What are some reasons a vehicle can be deadlined? |
|
Definition
| tires or brakes, Steering mechanisms, operating levers controlling power transmission, hoisting, dumping and tripping devices, warning lights such as turn signals, brake lights, emergency hazards, headlights, reflectors and clearance lights “unless the vehicle or equipment is not used during hours of darkness and restrictions are identified by a decal”, windshield wipers and defrosters “when weather conditions require them to be operated”, other similar safety and warning equipment and devices peculiar to special purpose units and any other condition reasonably considered to be a safety hazard) or the loss of the GSA Credit Card |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for annotating the AF Form 1800 prior to operating the vehicle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many copies of the DD Form 1408 are there and where do they go? |
|
Definition
| White copy goes to Sponsor’s commander/Commander (whichever applies), Yellow copy goes to S5 (Patrolman’s copy), pink goes to violator |
|
|
Term
| Where does the Sponsor’s information go on the DD Form 1408? |
|
Definition
| Along the side; ensure you write name, rank, squadron/office symbol, duty phone |
|
|
Term
| How do you fill out the back of the pink copy? Check all three boxes at the top and write |
|
Definition
| “Report violation to supervisor/sponsor/first sergeant (whichever applies) within 24 hours or the next duty day” |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the DD Form 1920 |
|
Definition
-This form is used on scene to record tests and observations made of someone suspected of being involved in any incident where alcohol or drugs may be a factor
-The apprehending security forces member will complete the form and it will become a record of their observations for future reference
-Record all observations made, including those not required by the DD Form 1920 |
|
|
Term
| 7.Can you add clues to the SFST’s that are not listed? |
|
Definition
| Yes, explain the clue you observed in the “other” section |
|
|
Term
| 8.What must you do before completing section 3 “interview” |
|
Definition
| Advise them of their rights |
|
|
Term
| Does section three always need to be completed? |
|
Definition
| Not if they do not want to make a statement |
|
|
Term
| Is the DD Form 1920 only used for DUI/DWI’s? |
|
Definition
| No, any incident involving alcohol |
|
|
Term
| What is DD Form 2701 and when is it issued? |
|
Definition
| It is the VWAP (Victim Witness Assistance Program) pamphlet. It gives information to victims and witnesses of a crime of who they can contact for information and there specific rights. Ensure POC information is up to date prior to issuing. It is issued to all victims and witnesses of a crime. |
|
|
Term
| What is DD Form 2708 and when is it issued? |
|
Definition
| Receipt of inmate. Used when releasing suspects/detained persons. Complete two copies and give one to the receiving person and keep one with the repor |
|
|
Term
| What is AF Form 52 used for? |
|
Definition
| Used as a chain of custody for evidence/seized/received property. Starts with person who seized/received the property. For example, you apprehend A1C Snuffy for shoplifting and find a stolen CD during the search. You would sign for person receiving property and release it to the on duty desk sergeant for storage in the evidence locker. |
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Term
| What is the AF Form 1176 used for? |
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Definition
| Authority to Search and Seize. |
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Term
| When is AF Form 1364 used |
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Definition
| Consent to search and seize. |
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Term
| When is a AF Form 3226 used? |
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Definition
| Authority to apprehend in a private dwelling. MCM Rule 302 requires written authority be obtained prior to apprehending a person in a private dwelling. This includes on/off base housing (single family houses, duplexes, apartments). This DOES NOT include dormitories, field encampments, tents. Follow the same procedures as the AF Form 1176, ensure to write probable cause on the back side. One copy is prepared and included in the report. |
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Term
| When is AF Form 3907 used? |
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Definition
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Term
| When is AF Form 1168 used? |
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Definition
| Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant. |
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Term
| What is the definition of a search? |
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Definition
| an examination of a person, property, or premise to uncover evidence of a crime or criminal intent |
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Term
| What is a probable cause search? |
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Definition
| Probable cause or reasonable belief for a search are circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe the person, property or evidence sought is located in the place or on the person to be searched |
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Term
| What is a search incident to apprehension? |
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Definition
| A search incident to an apprehension can be conducted without obtaining search authority and may include the immediate area over which the apprehended person exercises control. When conducting a search incident to an apprehension, it should be conducted immediately |
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Term
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Definition
| The taking of evidence for use in a courts-martial or trail. |
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Term
| What are the five types of evidence? |
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Definition
| Real, Direct, Documentary, Testimonial and Circumstantial |
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Term
| 6.How is evidence marked for later identification? |
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Definition
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Term
| What must you do with evidence that is subject to being destroyed/disrupted by factors such as the weather? |
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Definition
| Take steps to preserve it without disrupting the crime scene |
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Term
| What if you accidently disrupt a crime scene by touching a piece of evidence? |
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Definition
| Annotate it in your notes |
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Term
| Nuclear laden logistics aircraft are what designated Protection Level? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are SF members actions as it taxies of the active runway? |
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Definition
| At least one, two-member response team will meet the aircraft as it taxis off of the active runway and follow it, at a safe distance, to the designated parking spot |
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Term
| The Response Force for nuclear laden logistics should consist of what? |
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Definition
| no less than 15 SF members capable of responding within 5 minutes to the aircraft |
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Term
| What are the posting requirements for nuclear laden logistics? |
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Definition
| The RF will consist of the properly armed Area Supervisor, ISRT, ESRT, Alert Fire Team (AFT), Mobile Fire Team (MFT) and mobile patrols |
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Term
| Enforce____________ by using an entry authority list to identify two authorized individuals prior to allowing entry |
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Definition
| Two Person Concept; i.e. No Lone Zone |
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Term
| The ESRT and all other posted SF personnel will remain posted until approximately __minutes after aircraft departure |
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Definition
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Term
| Limited Life Components (LLC’s) are designated what Pl level? |
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Definition
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Term
| The arrival of a DOE Safe Haven may be of a hostile or non-hostile nature and may be due to what circumstances? |
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Definition
| natural disaster, civil disorder or other emergency situation |
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Term
| The Response Force for DOE Safe Havens should consist of what? |
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Definition
| No less than 15 SF members capable of responding within 5 minutes to the aircraft |
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Term
| Who is the single point of contact with DOE for questions concerning DOE convoy support? |
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Definition
| Joint Nuclear Accident Coordinating Center (JNACC) |
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Term
| What are the DOE Courier Credentials? |
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Definition
| DOE Form 490, AL Form 150 and Metal shield or badge with serial numbers, designating the individual as a DOE Federal Officer |
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Term
| Where will the convoy be escorted to by the patrol once positioned 3 blocks inside the installation? |
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Definition
| To the suspect vehicle holding area adjacent to Bldg 65, between taxiways Bravo, Charlie, Hotel, and the Active Runway |
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