Term
| :chronic multisystem disease of unknown etiology, commonly affecting the lungs, skin, eyes, liver and lymph nodes characterized by the formation of noncaseating granulomas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two most commonly affected systems with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has been found commonly in the lymph nodes of people with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where in the world is Sarcoidosis most common?
What race and sex does it affect most often in the US? |
|
Definition
Most common in Scandinavian counrtries.
Affects blacks and women more often in the US. |
|
|
Term
| What is Lofgren's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| It is a type of Sarcoidosis characterized by Hilar adenopathy, erythema nodosum on the shins, uveitis, fever and arthritis. |
|
|
Term
Describe the 4 stages of CXR findings seen with Sarcoidosis.
Where are the infiltrates usually seen in the lungs with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
1. hilar adenopathy
2. adenopathy and infiltrates
3. just infiltrates
4. fibrosis
Infiltrates are usually seen in the upper lobes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most sensitive test for interstitial lung disease? How will Sarcoidosis affect its levels? |
|
Definition
| DLCO - carbon monoxide diffusing capability. It will be decreased with Sarcoidosis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical CT findings with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Abnormal lung parenchyma and broncho-vascular bundle thickening or nodules. |
|
|
Term
| What are some typical dermatological symptoms commonly seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Lupus pernio (plaques on nose, cheeks, lips, ears) and Erythema nodosum (red nodules on the legs) |
|
|
Term
| Most common ocular abnormality seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Uveitis (inflammation of the vascular area between the retina and sclera of the eye). |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common bone abnormalities seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| osteolytic or cystic lesions and osteopenia. |
|
|
Term
| What are some common neurological abnormalities seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
Any cranial nerve can be affected but 7th (facial nerve) and 8th (vestibulocochlear) are most common.
Optic and peripheral neuropathy are also common. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the cardiac abnormalities seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Heart blocks and arrythmias are most common but it can also lead to restrictive cardiomyopathy heart failure. |
|
|
Term
| Most common oral abnormality seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Asymptomatic parotid gland swelling |
|
|
Term
| How are Angiotensin converting enzyme and ESR affected by Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is usually necessary to diagnose sarcoidosis due to its large number of ddx?
How is the diagnosis of Sarcoidosis made? |
|
Definition
A biopsy.
Diagnosis is made based on clinical, radiographic and histologic findings. |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat an active inflammation of Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Corticosteroids (such as Prednisone) |
|
|
Term
| What percent of Sarcoidosis patients die? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| :diffuse interstitial fibrosing disease of the lung, directly related to intensity and duration of exposure. Disease takes a minimum of 10 years exposure before it will manifest. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the fibrotic lesions seen with asbestosis? |
|
Definition
| end result of oxidative injury due to the generation of reactive oxygen species by metals on the surface of the fibers as well as from cells engaged in phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of asbestosis? |
|
Definition
| asbestosis fibers in thermal and electric insulation or from mining. |
|
|
Term
How does asbestosis affect the lungs?
How will asbestosis affect DLCO and SaO2? |
|
Definition
It causes pulmonary fibrosis.
Asbestosis will decrease both of them. |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical clinical presentation of a patient with sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
| Progressive dyspnea, non-productive cough, fatigue, clubbing of the finger/toenails, crackles and rales heard on auscultation. |
|
|
Term
How is Asbestosis diagnosed?
What are some CXR findings with Asbestosis? CXR findings with severe asbestosis? |
|
Definition
Diagnosed based on a detailed occupational history, physical findings, imaging studies and fibers in the lungs.
CXR findings include reticular (net-like) nodular, linear opacities that start in the lower lung and obscure the heart border and a "ground glass" appearance may be present and "honeycombing" is seen with more advanced Asbestosis. |
|
|
Term
| What are pleural plaques on CXR and what are they indicative of? |
|
Definition
| They are the irregular thickening or calcification of parietal pleura and are indicative of a previous exposure to Asbestos. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common location for cancer associated with asbestos?
What is the only pleural malignancy and is caused by asbestosis in almost all cases?
What is the lifetime risk for developing asbestosis in patients who deal with asbestos? |
|
Definition
Most common cancer location is lung cancer
Pleural mesothelioma
10% lifetime risk |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common specific kinds of cancer seen with asbestos? |
|
Definition
| Squamous cell and Adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
How much more likely is an asbestos exposed individual that smokes to develop a neoplasm?
Is mesothelioma associated with smoking? |
|
Definition
60-100x more likely.
Mesothelioma is not associated with smoking. |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat Asbestosis? |
|
Definition
| No treatment, just supportive. Smoking cessation is important. |
|
|
Term
What is Mesothelioma and how does it relate to Asbestos?
What percentage of Mesothelioma patients have extrathoracic spread? |
|
Definition
Mesothelioma is primary tumors from mesothelial cells that line the pleural cavities. It has an average latency w/ asbestos workers of 30 years.
90% of Mesothelioma patients have extrathoracic spread. |
|
|
Term
What does Mesothelioma look like on CXR?
What is often needed to diagnose?
Treatment of Mesothelioma?
Mesothelioma prognosis? |
|
Definition
Diffuse unilateral or bilateral pleural thickening with blunted CP angles due to pleural effusion.
A biopsy is often needed to diagnose.
The only treatment is supportive.
Prognosis is up to a year or less. |
|
|
Term
| :progressive pulmonary fibrosis that may be rapidly fatal in less than 2 years due to inhalation of silicon dioxide. Common in mining, stone cutting, cement, foundry, glass making, making abrasive soapes, stone quarrying (granite) and sandblasting (silica, quartz) industries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Silicosis increase your risk for? |
|
Definition
| Increases risk of TB and Mycobacterial disease. |
|
|
Term
What is characteristic in the diagnosis of acute silicosis? Chronic silicosis?
Where does silicosis like to go in the lungs? |
|
Definition
Acute = “crazy paving” (intralobular lines superimposed on ground-glass)
Chronic = “eggshell” calcifications (thin layer of calcification around a lymph node)
Predominance for upper lobes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Removal from exposure, whole lung lavage (flush), and lung transplant in selected patients. |
|
|
Term
What causes Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis?
How does it appear on CXR?
What is recommended annually? |
|
Definition
Coal dust.
Appears on CXR as diffuse, small, rounded opacities or nodules.
Recommended annual TB skin test. |
|
|
Term
| :severe dyspnea, rapid onset, diffuse infiltrates, hypoxemia, and respiratory failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most common disorders associated with ARDS?
Describe the exudative, proliferative and fibrotic phases of ARDS. |
|
Definition
Pneumonia, FB Aspiration, Pulmonary contusion, sepsis, severe trauma and drug overdose.
Exudative is days 1-7 (alveolar edema).
Proliferative is days 7-21 (early fibrosis).
Fibrotic is over 21 days (extensive fibrosis). |
|
|
Term
How do you treat ARDS?
Mortality rates for ARDS? |
|
Definition
Recognize and treat underlying cause, mechanical ventilation and intubation, keep lungs dry, and corticosteroids after 7 days.
Mortality rate is 41-65% |
|
|
Term
| :autosomal recessive disorder characterized by thick, sticky mucous and impaired lung defense against infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common organisms seen in chronic lung infections in patients with Cystic Fibrosis? |
|
Definition
| S. aureus and P. aeruginosa |
|
|
Term
How is Cystic Fibrosis diagnosed?
Cystic Fibrosis treatment? |
|
Definition
Clinical criteria plus sweat test (analyzes Na and Cl).
Treatment includes chest physiotherapy, high dose antibiotics, bronchodilators, pancreatic enzyme replacement and lung transplatation. |
|
|
Term
What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
AKA? |
|
Definition
| Lung tissue becomes thick, stiff or scarred and the cause is not known. AKA (Interstitial pneumonitis) |
|
|
Term
Signs and symptoms of pulmonary HTN?
Most common cause of pulmonary HTN? |
|
Definition
S&S = SOB, dizziness, fainting, fatigue, non-productive cough, peripheral edema and hemoptysis.
MCC is left sided heart failure |
|
|
Term
What is Cor Pulmonale?
Causes? |
|
Definition
| Right heart failure caused by a massive PE, COPD or end stage pneumoconiosis. |
|
|
Term
| 2 most common causes of hemoptysis? |
|
Definition
| Bronchitis and bronchogenic carcinoma. |
|
|
Term
| 2 most common causes of massive hemoptysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What treatments can be used to stop massive hemopytsis? |
|
Definition
Balloon catheter
Laser
Electrocautery
Resection of the area of lung
Embolotherapy |
|
|
Term
What is the leading location of cancer leading to death in men and women?
What are the 4 most common types of lung cancer? Most common of the 4? |
|
Definition
Lung cancer
4 most common types include: Squamous cell carcinoma, Small (Oat) cell carcinoma, Large cell carcinoma and Adenocarcinoma.
Adenocarcinoma is the most common. |
|
|
Term
| Where are Squamous/Small cell cancers typically found? Adenocarcinoma/Large cell? |
|
Definition
squamous/small cell cancers = central masses
Adenocarcinoma and large cell = peripheral nodules or masses |
|
|
Term
| What is Bupropion (Wellbutrin) used for? |
|
Definition
| Used for smoking cessation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical clinical presentation of lung cancers? |
|
Definition
| cough, hemoptysis, wheeze, stridor, dyspnea, chest pain, dyspnea, trachea obstruction, esophageal compression, recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis (hoarseness) and Horner's syndrome (enopthalmos, ptosis, miosis and ipsilateral anhydrosis) |
|
|
Term
| :tumor in the apex of the lung with involvement of the 8th cervical and 1st or 2nd thoracic nerves, with shoulder pain, characteristically radiates in the ulnar distribution of the arm, often with radiologic destruction of the 1st or 2nd ribs and often exhibits Horner's syndrome (enopthalmos, ptosis, miosis and ipsilateral anhydrosis). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of carcinoma is a Pancoast tumor?
Pancoast tumor treatment?
Survival rate for those who underwent complete resection? |
|
Definition
It is a non-small cell carcinoma.
Treatment involves radiation, chemo and resection.
70% survival rate for complete resection. |
|
|
Term
| What extrapulmonary problems can arise with a Pancoast Tumor? |
|
Definition
| superior vena cava syndrome from vascular obstruction and cardiac tamponade, arrythmia or cardiac failure. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, large cell carcinoma and small cell carcinoma where seen to have extrathoracic metastatic disease at autopsy? |
|
Definition
>50% of patients with squamous carcinoma
80% of patients with adenocarcinoma and large cell carcinoma
>95% of patients with small cell carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 major components of the staging for lung cancer treatment? |
|
Definition
| Anatomic staging (location) and Physiologic staging (can the patient handle the treatment). |
|
|
Term
| For Non-small cell cancer, what is the stage that prognosis for treatment becomes very bad? What is the treatment for the stages below that? |
|
Definition
Stage IIIa
If below IIIa then do surgery. |
|
|
Term
| Name and describe the 2 stage system for small cell lung cancer. |
|
Definition
Limited stage - 30% of patients, One hemithorax and regional lymph nodes.
Extensive stage - 70% of patients, disease beyond the limited stage (tamponade, pleural effusion, etc). |
|
|
Term
| What are the main uses for PET scans in lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| Good for evaluating solitary pulmonary nodules and it is used as a guide for mediastinal biopsies. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of Solitary Pulmonary Nodules are malignant? How does this affect your treatment? |
|
Definition
| 35%, so you should resect them. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| (local radiotherapy delivered by placing radioactive “seeds” in a catheter in the tumor bed) provides a way to give a high local dose while sparing surrounding normal tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What are two common chemotherapy drugs? |
|
Definition
| Cisplatin and Carboplatin |
|
|
Term
What is the mean survival length for small cell lung cancer that is untreated?
Treated with chemo? |
|
Definition
Untreated = 12 weeks
Chemo = 18 months |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common benign lung neoplasms? |
|
Definition
| bronchial adenomas and hamartomas |
|
|
Term
| Where are bronchial adenomas most commonly located? What kind of tumors are most bronchial adenomas? What are some characteristics of bronchial adenomas that you would want to consider before surgery? |
|
Definition
| They are mostly centrally located in the lungs. Most of them are carcinoids. They are hypervascular and bleed profusely. |
|
|
Term
What are some general characteristics of carcinoids?
5 year survival rate for carcinoids? |
|
Definition
They are generally resistant to chemo and they secrete hormones that cause paraneoplastic syndromes.
5 year survival rate is 90% |
|
|
Term
| Where are Hamartoma's usually found in the lungs? Are they usually benign? What are their characteristic calcifications? |
|
Definition
| They are usually peripheral and benign and have characteristic "popcorn" calcifications. |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 renal manifestations of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| Nephrotic syndrome and glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 dermatological manifestations of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| Dermatomyositis and Acanthosis nigricans |
|
|
Term
| Are screening tests recommended for lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| No, because of false positive results that lead to unnecessary invasive diagnostic procedures. |
|
|
Term
| What additional tests do you want to order for a small cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| Brain CT/MRI and a bone marrow biopsy because of its inclination to METS there. |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for small cell carcinoma for limited stage? Extensive stage? |
|
Definition
Limited stage = chemo and radiation
Extensive stage = just chemo |
|
|
Term
| Solitary Pulmonary Nodules are more likely to be benign if they appear how on a CXR? |
|
Definition
| As a dense central calcification or multiple punctate calcifications (small circular calcifications). |
|
|
Term
What is a pulmonary infarction?
Most common etiology?
Characteristic sign on CXR of a pulmonary infarction? |
|
Definition
The lung infarcts as does the heart, when vessels are occluded with emboli and the surrounding tissue is damaged. Most commonly due to a PE.
Will see "Hampton's Hump"(wedge-shaped consolidation in the lung periphery) on CXR. |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of patients with a PE die within the first 30 days of diagnosis, even with treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How will PE's look initially on CXR? What will they progress to? |
|
Definition
| Over days, CxR = consolidation over the infarcted segment, then pleural effusion |
|
|
Term
Most common complaint of non-infarcting PE's?
What are the 8 components of the "PERC" (Pulmonary Embolism Rule out Criteria)? |
|
Definition
dyspnea
PERC = low pretest probability plus: age less than 50, pulse less than 100, O2 saturation greater than 94%, no hormone use, no hemoptysis, no unilateral leg swelling, no recent major surgery/trauma and no prior PE or DVT. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common EKG result from obstructive PE's? |
|
Definition
| PEA (pulseless electrical activity) |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical clinical presentation of a patient with a PE? |
|
Definition
| pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, tachycardia, tachypnea and a pulse Ox less than 95%. |
|
|
Term
| Why do you order a CMP or BMP with a suspected PE? Why do you order a urine BHCG for a suspected PE? |
|
Definition
Must check renal function for the CT angiogram dye.
It will show if a female patient is pregnant. |
|
|
Term
| What is "Westermark's sign" for PE's? |
|
Definition
| Seen on CXR and is a rare sign of very large PE's and is the absence of blood vessel markings beyond the location of a pulmonary embolism. |
|
|
Term
| Why do you only check D-dimer levels for low to moderate risk PE populations? |
|
Definition
| Because you have enough other findings that you do not need it for high risk populations. |
|
|
Term
| What is the sensitivity and specificity for D-Dimers in respect to PE's? |
|
Definition
| 92-95% sensitive and 50% specific |
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for diagnosing a PE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is V/Q scan preferred over CT for PE diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you cannot get a scan on someone right away that has a suspected PE, what should you give them in the meantime? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common diagnosis found with a negative CT angiogram for PE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the standard initial treatment for a suspected PE? |
|
Definition
| Unfractionated Heparin or other anticoagulants (Lovenox) |
|
|
Term
| What drug reverses a Heparin OD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would you consider using thrombolytics for a PE? |
|
Definition
| Only if you think the patient has a very high risk of dying from the PE, otherwise the risk of hemorrhage is too great. |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard for diagnosing a DVT? |
|
Definition
| D-dimer and duplex ultrasound |
|
|
Term
| What are some signs and symptoms of a DVT? |
|
Definition
| unilateral calf cramp, soreness, fullness, swelling, edema, erythema and warmth. |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of pleural effusion in the western world? |
|
Definition
| CHF (left sided heart failure) |
|
|
Term
| What conditions cause transudative pleural effesions? |
|
Definition
(NONINFECTIOUS/NONCANCER)
Congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis with ascites
Nephrotic syndrome
Hypoalbuminemia
Myxedema
Peritoneal dialysis
Glomerulonephritis
Superior vena cava obstruction Pulmonary embolism |
|
|
Term
| What conditions cause exudative pleural effusions? |
|
Definition
(INFECTIOUS PLUS CANCER)
Bacterial pneumonia
Bronchiectasis
Lung abscess
Tuberculosis
Viral illness
Neoplasms
Primary lung cancer
Mesothelioma
Pulmonary/pleural metastases
Lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| Describe the protein content of transudates vs. exudates. |
|
Definition
| Transudates have little protein and Exudates have high protein content. |
|
|
Term
| What type of effusion is seen with increased pulmonary vascular pressure? Ischemia and destruction of the pleural membrane? |
|
Definition
Increased pulm vascular pressure = transudative
Ischemia and destruction of the pleural membrane = exudative |
|
|
Term
| What volume of pleural effusion is DOE seen with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common diagnostic study to confirm pleural effusion? |
|
Definition
| CXR (blunted costophrenic angle) |
|
|
Term
| What modality is used to guide thoracentesis in the draining of a pleural effusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a chylothorax? What should you check? |
|
Definition
| white, milky colored pleural fluid due to chylomicrons in the fluid due to lymphatic fluid accumulating in the pleural space. Check Trigs, Cholesterol and Total Lipid Content. |
|
|
Term
What should you think if you have:
Black
Brown
Yellow-green
Highly Viscous
Putrid odor
or Ammonia odor fluids in the pleural space? |
|
Definition
Black = think aspergillus
Brown(chocolate) = think rupture of amebic liver abscess
Yellow-green = think rheumatoid pleurisy
“highly viscous” = think cancer, malignant mesothelioma
Putrid odor = think anaerobes
Ammonia odor = think urinothorax |
|
|
Term
What are some clinical features of a pneumothorax?
What will you see on CXR with a tension pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
Sharp pleuritic chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration, acute onset, dyspnea, mild tachycardia, decreased breath sounds over affected area and hyperresonance to percussion.
With tension you will see tracheal and mediastinal shift to contralateral side on CXR. |
|
|
Term
| Most common condition associated with secondary pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in a pneumothorax to cause the extra air? |
|
Definition
| There is an alveolar-pleural defect that acts as a one way valve that during inspiration the air gets stuck and you cannot exhale it. |
|
|
Term
| Most common physical exam finding with a spontaneous pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
| Mild sinus tachycardia is the most common physical exam finding. |
|
|
Term
| What occurs as a result of a tension pneumothorax? |
|
Definition
| Decreased cardiac output develops which leads to tachycardia and hypoxia. Trachial deviation may or may not be present. |
|
|
Term
| How are pneumothoracis diagnosed? How will a tension classically look on CXR? |
|
Definition
CXR and the average width of the band is used to estimate the size of it (where you see the collapsed lung).
A tension will show complete lung field collapse with gross distension of the thoracic cavity on the affected side and shift of the mediastinal structures across the midline. |
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for diagnosing pneumothoraces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is spontaneous pneumomediastinum an emergency? How is it diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| It is an emergency and is diagnosed by the presence of subcutaneous emphysema (presence of air under the skin, usually the chest, neck or face) and the finding of mediastinal air on CXR. |
|
|
Term
| What could cause a secondary Pneumomediastinum? |
|
Definition
| Boerhaave's syndrome (rupture of the esophageal wall due to vomiting) or other forms of esophageal perforation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the temporary and definitive treatment for pneumomediastinum? |
|
Definition
| Temporary is needle decompression and definitive is tube thoracostomy. |
|
|
Term
| What is the follow up for a pneumomediastinum patient that has been discharged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Hyaline Membrane Disease?
Cause?
Treatment? |
|
Definition
Also called Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) and it is a common problem in premature infants caused by the lack of surfactant production.
Treatment includes ET tube, mechanical ventilation, supplemental oxygen, continuous positive air pressure, artificial surfactant and meds for sedation/pain. |
|
|
Term
What are atypical carcinoids notorious for?
What is the 5 year survival rate for atypical carcinoids? |
|
Definition
METS in 70% of their cases.
5 year survival rate is 65% |
|
|
Term
What is chemical pneumonitis?
Treatment? |
|
Definition
Chemical pneumonitis is inflammation of the lungs or breathing difficulty due to inhaling chemical fumes, or aspirating (breathing in and choking on) gastric acid from the stomach, mineral oil, gasoline, or other damaging chemicals.
Treatment is focused on reducing symptoms. Oxygen therapy may be helpful. Corticosteroids may be given to reduce inflammation. Antibiotics are usually not helpful or needed. |
|
|
Term
| What are some concerns with supraclavicular lymphadenopathy? |
|
Definition
| Lung carcinoma, TB and esophageal cancer. Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy are the most worrisome for malignancies. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgical removal of a lobe of the lung. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgical removal of an entire lung. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Procedure to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. |
|
|
Term
| What is a tube thoracostomy? |
|
Definition
| AKA chest tube, it is a flexible plastic tube that is inserted through the side of the chest into the pleural space to drain air, fluid or pus. |
|
|
Term
| What is needle decompression and what does it treat? |
|
Definition
| The insertion of a large bore needle into the pleural space, releasing the pressure from a tension pneumothorax and converting to back to a non-tension where tube thoracostomy can treat that. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how ABG's can be used to evaluate Respiratory Acidosis/Alkalosis vs. Metabolic Acidosis/Alkalosis. |
|
Definition
Respiratory Acidosis will have a decreased pH but increased HCO3 and PCO2.
Respiratory Alkalosis will have an increased pH and a decreased HCO3 and PCO2.
Metabolic acidosis will have a decreased pH, HCO3 and PCO2.
Metabolic alkalosis will have an increased pH, HCO3 and PCO2. |
|
|
Term
| Major renal abnormality seen with Sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What did the PIOPED study show? |
|
Definition
| Showed that CTPA is better than VQ scan for PE diagnosis. |
|
|
Term
| If CTPA is negative for PE what is the next step? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What circumstances would an individual need surgery for a PE? |
|
Definition
| If the patient has a very large embolus that cannot undergo fibrinolysis, they have a floating embolus in the right side of their heart or they have severe hypotension. |
|
|
Term
| What stages of lung cancer would you use brachytherapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a parapneumonic effusion? |
|
Definition
| pleural effusion from a pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What is a loculated pleural effusion? |
|
Definition
| pleural effusion that is not free flowing |
|
|
Term
| Describe stages To, Tx, T4, No, Nx, N3, Mo, Mx and M1 for the TNM staging system. |
|
Definition
To = No evidence of primary tumor.
Tx = positive cytology but no lesion on CXR or bronchoscopy.
T4 = Tumor invades mediastinum, heart, great vessels, carina, spine, or malignant pleural/pericardial effusion or satellite tumor in same lobe.
No = No regional nodal involvement.
Nx = Regional nodes cannot be assessed.
N3 = Contralateral mediastinal or hilar nodes or scalene or supraclavicular node involvement.
Mo = No distant METS.
Mx = Distant METS cannot be measured.
M1 = Distant METS present. |
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