Term
| What is the purpose of Lab Testing? |
|
Definition
1. Screen for a disease
2. Diagnose a condition
3. Monitor prior to treatment
4. Plan treatment
5. Monitor prior to treatment |
|
|
Term
| What are some types of laboratories? |
|
Definition
1. Institutional (hospital)
2. Commercial (LabCorp)
3. Point of care (Doc Office)
4. Home testing |
|
|
Term
| Qualitative is defined as either __________ or __________ and an example would be ___________. |
|
Definition
+ or -
Home pregnancy test |
|
|
Term
| Semiquantitative is reported as + or - but with varying degrees. An example would be ______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Quantitative is reproted as an ______________ and usually in the context of ______________. |
|
Definition
Exact number
Reference range
Example: Serum glucose value |
|
|
Term
| Reference ranges are identified as a valuew within ____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability to DETECT the particular outcome if it is present |
|
|
Term
| The _________ the sensitivity the greater the chance of getting a _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______________ is the ability of DISTINGUISH between 2 pts of outcome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lower the sensitivity the ______________the chance of getting a ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
WBC| Hb/Ht| Platelets is a commonly used formatting for a patient chart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal value for WBC and RBC for both men and women? |
|
Definition
In Men
WBC = 4.4- 11.3 x 10^3 cells/uL
RBC = 4.5- 5.9 x 10^6 cells/uL
In Women
WBC = 4.4- 11.3 x 10^3 cells/uL
RBC = 4.1 - 5.1 x 10^ 6 cells/uL |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal value for both Hgb and Hct in both men and women? |
|
Definition
In Men
Hgb = 14 - 17.5 g/dL
Hct = 42-50 %
In Women
Hgb = 12.3-15.3 g/dL
Hct = 36-45 %
(its a 1:3 ratio of Hgb/Hct) |
|
|
Term
| Normal platelet count is _______________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is ______________ whereas the Mean Corpuscular HgB(MCH) is _______________. |
|
Definition
80-96 % fl/cell
27-33 pg/cell |
|
|
Term
| If your RBC, HgB and Hct are all lowered, but your MCV adn MCH is high then you might have this type of anemia: |
|
Definition
| Vitamin B def or Folate def |
|
|
Term
| If your RBC, HgB, and Hct are all lowered as well as your MCV and MCH then you may have this type of anemia: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If your RBC, Hgb, Hct are all lowered, but your MCV and MCH are unchanged then you have this type of anemia: |
|
Definition
| Anemia of a chornic disease |
|
|
Term
List the normal values for
PMNs
Bands
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils |
|
Definition
PMNs = 45-73 %
Bands = 3-5 %
Lymphocytes = 20-40 %
Monocytes = 2-8 %
Eosinophils = 0-4 %
Basophils = 0- 1% |
|
|
Term
| _____________ has histamine, LK, etc and are associated with allergic responses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Monocytes convert to _____________ in tissues and are ______________. |
|
Definition
Macrophages
Antigen presenting |
|
|
Term
| In a urinalysis test there should not be what kinds of things in the urine? |
|
Definition
Nitrite
Blood
Leukocyte esterase
Bilirubin
Ketones
Glucose |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal urinalysis values for pH, protein, urobilinogen and specific gravity? |
|
Definition
pH = 6-8
protein = 2-8 mg/dL
Urobilinogen = 0.1-1 unit/dL
specific gravity = 1.010 - 1.025 mg/mL
|
|
|
Term
Na+/K+ | Cl-/CO2 | Bun/Cr \ Glucose
is the ____________ |
|
Definition
BMP
Basic Metabolic Panel |
|
|
Term
What are the normal values for
Na
K
Cl-
CO2
Glucose |
|
Definition
Na = 135 - 145 mEq/L
K = 3.5 - 5 mEq/L
Cl = 96-106 mEq/L
CO2 = 24-30 mEq/L
Glucose = 80-110 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
| A decrease in _____________ whereas an increase of _____________ indicates a decrease in kidney function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With a lower CO2 value the pH will ___________ and can lead to ______________ cuz of hyperventilation and also ______________. |
|
Definition
Decrease
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis |
|
|
Term
| With an Increase in CO2 the pH will ___________ and result in _______________ and ______________. |
|
Definition
Increase
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis |
|
|
Term
| What things can increase the Cl-? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can decrease the amount of Cl-? |
|
Definition
Severe Diarrhea/Vomitting
BiCarb Steroids |
|
|
Term
| If your glucose is lower than 70 then it may be due to _______ or lack of ____________. |
|
Definition
Insulin overdose
Food consumption |
|
|
Term
| To be considered pre-diabetic what value do you need? What about diabetic? |
|
Definition
Pre = 100- 125 mg/dL
Diabetic = > 126
|
|
|
Term
| If you have a glucose > 180 mg/dL then glucose __________________ from the blood to ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Hgb A1C measure? |
|
Definition
| Glucose levels over the last 2-3 months |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal A1C value? |
|
Definition
| 4-6 % of glycosylated Hgb |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal BUN? What are Cr? |
|
Definition
BUN = 8-20 mg/dL
Cr = 0.7 - 1.5 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
| A BUN lower than 8 and Cr lower than 0.7 indicates _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If Cr is higher than 1.5 mg/dL then you have declining ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Cockroft and Gault formula? |
|
Definition
(140-age) x Ideal Body Weight in kg x {0.85 if f
/
72 x SCr
Estimates Cr clearance |
|
|
Term
| How do you find the Ideal body weight: |
|
Definition
For men:
50 kg + 2.3 kg(for every inch over 5 ft)
For women:
45 kg + 2.3 kg (for every inch over 5 ft) |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the livers function? |
|
Definition
1. Make bilirubin from HgG
2. Digest fats
3. A.A. and Carb metabolism/regulation
4. Cholesterol synthesis
5. Drug and hormone metabolism |
|
|
Term
| Why does the liver make albumin? |
|
Definition
| To maintain the osmotic pressure, bind and tranpsrt durgs, hormones, etc |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal value of albumin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you have a decreased albumin what does it indicate? |
|
Definition
| Cirrhosis, alcoholism, trauma, malnutrition |
|
|
Term
| The Prothrombin Time shows the clotting time. What is the normal time to clot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To be considered obese you need a BMI over ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you determine someones BMI? |
|
Definition
| Weight in kg/ Height in m^2 |
|
|
Term
| In 2005, the survey of 4 yro kids determined that _____________ had the highest BMI. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a normal BMI? What about overweight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are children classified? |
|
Definition
| There BMIs are determined and compared other kids in the same age group. > 95% is considered obese. |
|
|
Term
| What are some risk factors for being overweight or obese? |
|
Definition
1. Genetic transmissison
2. If parents are overweight |
|
|
Term
| What are some contributing factors to obesity? |
|
Definition
1. Energy in> Energy out
2. High Caloric foods
3. Large portion sizes
4. Decreased physical activity |
|
|
Term
| How does the diet play a role in constributing to obesity? |
|
Definition
There is an increased in hihg glycemic index carbs that promotes obesity for the simple fact that casues hyperphagia and postprandial hyperinsulinemia.
(insulin spike and still feel hungry = eat more) |
|
|
Term
| What are some secondary causes for obesity? |
|
Definition
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Cushings Syndrome
3. Lesions of the hypothalamus
4. Medications like Metformin |
|
|
Term
| What are some complications that obesity can lead to? |
|
Definition
1. CV
2. DM
3. PCOD
4. Asthma
5. Gallbladder disease
6. OA
7. Sleep apnea
8, Fatty liver
9. Psychological |
|
|
Term
| There is a __________ fold increase incidence of type 2 DM in children. |
|
Definition
10x
(up to 45% of all new cases of diabetes are childs 10-19 yro) |
|
|
Term
| What is the first thing we do to treat obesity? |
|
Definition
| Lifestyle Modification in all overweight peeps |
|
|
Term
| When do you need to seek Rx treatment for obesity? |
|
Definition
When the BMI> 30 or
BMI> 27 + 2 comorbid conditions
If waist circumference in women > 35
in men > 40 |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal for treatment of obese peeps? |
|
Definition
| A 5- 10 reduction in body weight |
|
|
Term
| What are some non-Rx treatment for obesity? |
|
Definition
1. Diet and Exercise
2. Hypnosis
3. Acupuncture
4. Surgery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It inhibits GI lipase thereby decreasing the absorption of dietary fat by 30%. |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical dose for Xenical? What about Alli? |
|
Definition
Xenical (prescription) = 120 mg 1hr b4 meal
Alli = 60 mg TID |
|
|
Term
| What are some possible drug interactions of Xenical? |
|
Definition
1. Decreases fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K)
2. Decrease cyclosporine [M+]
3. Affects warfarin |
|
|
Term
| What are some side effects for Xenical? |
|
Definition
1. Oily spotting
2. Liquid stools
3. Flatulence
4. Ab pain
5. Fecal urgency
Treat with low fat meals and psyllium |
|
|
Term
| Adipex is aka _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adipex is a _______________ agent that supresses appetite for 12-14 hrs. And is a Scheudle _______ drug. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug was just recently pulled from the market for weight loss? |
|
Definition
| Meridia or aka Sibutramine |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 stages when treating children? |
|
Definition
Stage 1 = Prevention Plus (healthy eating/activity habits)
Stage 2 = Structural Weight Management (Support and structure)
Stage 3 = Comprehensive Multidisciplinary Intervention (Increased visits and specialists)
Stage 4 = Tertiary Care Intervation (Medications, surgery) |
|
|
Term
| Orlistat is approved to be used in kids > __________, whereas Adipex is used in kids > _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Allis is approved for >________ peeps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of weight loss effects does caffeine have? |
|
Definition
1. Increased lypolysis
2. Increased O2 consumption
3. Circulating fatty acid levels |
|
|
Term
| Both ___________and ___________ cause thermogensis of brown adipose tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some potential effects of continual laxative use? |
|
Definition
Serious dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance
Physical dependance
(Watch teen girls closely) |
|
|
Term
| What is a commonly abused product (used to lose weight) that is linked to many fatalities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of diabetes? |
|
Definition
| A group of metabolic disorders characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action or both. |
|
|
Term
| With Type 1 Diabetes there is an absolute ___________ |
|
Definition
| Deficiency of insulin (< 10% of cases) |
|
|
Term
| With Type 2 Diabetes there is ________________- |
|
Definition
Insulin resistance with inadequate compensatory increase in insulin secretion
(accounts for 85 % of cases) |
|
|
Term
| What is glucose intolerance diagnosed during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With Type 1 DM there is an autoimmune destruction of ____ cells of the pancreas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With Type 2 DM what things occur in the liver, muscle, and adipocytes? |
|
Definition
Liver = Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis
Muscle = Decreased glucose uptake
Adipocytes = Failure of insulin to supress breakdown of TG |
|
|
Term
| Which ethnic groups have a greater risk for Type 2 DM? |
|
Definition
Black
Asian
Hispanic
Native |
|
|
Term
| Ketosis is common in Type _____ DM patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There is a strong family history for DM in this type of DM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some ways to diagnose DM? |
|
Definition
Random BG = > 200 mg/dL + Symptoms (Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia)
Fasting Plasma Gluco (FPG) = > 126 mg/dL
2 hr Blood glucose = > 200 mg/dL
A1C = > 6.5% |
|
|
Term
| If you have an increase in blood glucose what happens to your A1C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What equation do you use to estimate the avg. glucose if you know your A1C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the criterias for pre-diabetes which increases your risk for DM? |
|
Definition
1. FPG of 100- 125 mg/dL (shows impaired fasting glucose)
2. 2 hr glucose of 140-199 mg/dL (shows impaired glucose tolerance)
3. A1C of 5.7 - 6.4 % |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the goals of therapy for DM? |
|
Definition
1. Preprandial glucose of 70-130 (<110)
2. Postprandial glucose of < 180 (< 140)
3. AlC of < 7 % (< 6.5%)
4. B.P. of < 130/80
5. LDL of < 100 mg/dL
6. HDL of > 40 mg/dL
7. TG of < 150 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
| What are some Rapid acting Insulin drugs? |
|
Definition
1. Insulin Lispro = Humalog
2. Insulin Aspart = Novolog
3. Insuline Glulisine = Apidra |
|
|
Term
| What are some Short acting Insulin drugs used for DM? |
|
Definition
1. Regular Humulin
2. Novolin R |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of drugs are used for basal control of DM peeps? |
|
Definition
1. Intermediate insulin
2. Long Acting insulin |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a Intermediate Insulin for DM? |
|
Definition
| NPH (Humulin or Novolin N) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 Long acting Insulin drugs used for basal control of DM peeps? |
|
Definition
1. Lantus (Insulin glargine)
2. Levemir (Insulin detemir) |
|
|
Term
| Sulfonylureas bind to B cells and stimules ___________, they reduce the A1C by ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 common Sulfonylureas used to treat DM..Brand and generic. |
|
Definition
Glimepiride = Amaryl
Glipizide = Glucotrol
Glyburide = Diabeta, Glynase |
|
|
Term
| ___________________ decrease hepatic gluconeogensis and glucose absorption, it increases insulin sensitivity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Biguanides stimulate insulin secretion and lower the A1C by 1-2%. |
|
Definition
| False; They do not stimulate insulin secretion, but they do lower the A1C. |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred therapy for newly diagnosed type 2 DM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a serious adverse effect of taking Metformin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the contraindication for using Metformin? |
|
Definition
| If you have renal dysfunction with a SCr > 1.5 |
|
|
Term
| Glinides stimulate insulin release form B cells so they have a ________ onset and ________ duration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: If you skipped a meal then you can still take Glinides. |
|
Definition
| False; it is dosed before meals. So if you skip meal then skip dose. |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 examples of glinides. |
|
Definition
Repaglinide (Prandin)
Nateglinide (Starlix) |
|
|
Term
| _____________ for DM inhibits breakdown of complex CHO and ____________ postprandial glucose. |
|
Definition
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Decrease |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 examples of an Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that is used for DM. |
|
Definition
1. Acarbose (Precose)
2. Miglitol (Glyset) |
|
|
Term
| Thiazolindinediones used for DM have an increase in _____________ and is contraindicated with _____________. |
|
Definition
Insulin Sensitivity
Heart failure |
|
|
Term
| What does incretin hormone do? |
|
Definition
Increase postprandial insulin
Decrease postprandial glucagon
Delay gastric emptying so enhance satiety |
|
|
Term
| How do DPP4 Inhibitors work in DM peeps? |
|
Definition
They inhibit the DPP4 enzyme
Slow inactivation of incretins so there is a prolong action of glucagon like peptide (GLP-1) |
|
|
Term
| Medical Nutrition Therapy used for DM peeps recommends a diet with protein ________% and fat less than ______%. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some acute complications from DM if you have too much glucose? |
|
Definition
1. DKA
2. Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar nonketotic (HHNS) |
|
|
Term
| If you have too low glucose under 60 how can you treat it without drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic complications of DM peeps affects the ____________ and ___________. |
|
Definition
Microvasculature
Macrovasculature |
|
|
Term
| What can occur with chronic complications of DM that affect the microvasculature? |
|
Definition
1. Peripheral neuropathy
2. Autonomic neuropathy
3. Retinopathy
4. Nephorpathy |
|
|
Term
| Peripheral neuropathy causes __________. |
|
Definition
| Numbness and tingling, pain |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one cause of blindness in DM? And how do you treat it? |
|
Definition
Retinopathy
Photocoagulation |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of kidney failure and what is it characterized by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you use to treat Nephropathy? |
|
Definition
| ACE inhibitors and restrict protein intake |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary cause of morbidity and mortality in DM patients? |
|
Definition
| Macrovascular disease--things that affect the larger vessels. So things like CV events. Like stroke |
|
|
Term
| What are some clinical sites for infection? |
|
Definition
1. CNS = meningitis
2. Kidney = Pyelonephritis
3. Bladder = Cystitis
4. Blood = Sepsis
5. Abdomen = Peritonitis
6. Instestines = Gastroenteritis
|
|
|
Term
| The top of your body has more gram ________ bacteria whereas the bottom has more ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some host defenses against an infection? |
|
Definition
1. Humoral immunity - antibody response
2. Cellular immunity - PMNs, Macrophages
3. Physical barrier - skin, mucuous
4. Respiratory tract - coughing, Mucocillary elevator
5. GI - acidic pH and motility
6. GU - urinating/flushing |
|
|
Term
| What are some predisposing factors to getting an infection? |
|
Definition
1. Breakdown of normal barrier (cuts, burns, catheters, tobacco use, surgery, bedsores, etc)
2. Alteration of normal gut flora (antibiotics and tobacco use)
3. Extremes of age (neonates and old)
4. Immunosuppression (HIV, drugs)
5. Diseases (DM, Chronic renal/liver failure) |
|
|
Term
| What are some signs of infection? |
|
Definition
A fever of a temperature > 100.4 F
And a high WBC |
|
|
Term
| With a bacterial infection there is an increase in ____________ whereas in a fungal infection there is an increase in ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With a parasite infection there is an increase in _____________ whereas a mycobacterial infection like TB there is an increase in _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What specific symptoms would you get with Meningitis? What about sinusitis? |
|
Definition
Headache, neck stiffness
Headache |
|
|
Term
| What specific symptoms do you expect to see in Pneumonia? Endocarditis? |
|
Definition
Cough, sputum production, abnormal chest x-ray
A new murmur |
|
|
Term
| Skin and soft tissues symptoms of infection include : |
|
Definition
| Swelling, erythema, tenderness and oozing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Organisms that occur naturally in certain parts of the body. they provide some benefits like suppressing growth of pathogenic bacteria, competing for nutrients, and occupying space. |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 ways to ID a pathogen? |
|
Definition
1. Collect the infectious material
2. Direct examination
3. Biochemical/serology testing
4. Susceptibility testing |
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in Direct examination of a pathogen? |
|
Definition
| Determine the shape of the microorganism via staining or acid fast test. |
|
|
Term
| In a gram stain, gram + are ___________ and gram - are ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a TB test, acid fast test, positive stains are ___________ whereas negative stains are ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A KOH prep is used for __________ infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the steps for gram staining? |
|
Definition
1. Dye with crystal violet
2. Add Iodine (mordant)
3. Decolorize via alcohol
4. Recolorize with saffrin counterstain
5. Rinse and dry |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Minimum inhibitory concentration
It is the lowest concentration of a drug needed to inhibit visible growth of organism.
For every pathogen a drug is reported as resistant, sensitive or intermediate |
|
|
Term
| How are Susceptibility testing performed? |
|
Definition
Broth dilution- Macro and Micro
E-Test
Zone of inhibition - kirby Bauer |
|
|
Term
| Describe a Broth Dilution- Macrodilution. |
|
Definition
1. Serial 2 fold dilution of antibiotics in Mueller-Hinton broth
2. Addition of standard inoculum of bacteria
3. Tubes examined for turbidity after 18-24 hr incubation at 35 C. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Visible growth of a bacteria |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Minimum Bactericidal Concentration
The lowest concentration of antibiotic needed to kill an organism |
|
|
Term
| What is the Broth dilution- Microdilution? |
|
Definition
Micro titer plate of up to 96 wells that have serial dilutions of multiple antibiotics.
|
|
|
Term
| Which organisms would not work with a Microdilution? |
|
Definition
H.influenzae
N.gonorrhea
S. pnuemoniae |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of using a Microdilution as opposed to a Macrodilution susceptibility test? |
|
Definition
In micro it is automated and less labor intestive and get quicker results. A
A macro is time and labor intensive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A predefined, stable gradient of 15 antibiotic concentrations on a plastic strip that is used to determine the on scale MIC of antibiotics, antifungal and anti-Tb agents.
It confirms/detect specific resistance phenotype |
|
|
Term
| Zone Inhibition-Kirby Bauer does not work for ___________ and in general a larger inhibition zone correlates with __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For a drug MIC above the susceptible breakpoint, a _________ dose of the drug should be used to effectively treat an infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Likely to achieve optimal therapeutic outcome with usual doses of antibiotic |
|
|
Term
| What is intermediate MIC? |
|
Definition
| May achieve optimal therapeutic outcome with max doses or infections where drug concentrates at that site |
|
|
Term
| T/F: With resistance MIC it is likely to achieve optimal therapeutic response. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must you know to compare antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do bacteriostatic agents work? |
|
Definition
| They limit the growth of bacteria by interfering with its production, DNA replication and other aspects of bacterial metabolism |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Bacteriostatic agents kill the bacteria. |
|
Definition
| False; they do not kill. Bactericidal agents do kill the bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What are examples of the antibiotic classes that are considered to be bacteriostatic agents? |
|
Definition
1. Tetracyclines = Minocycline (Minocin)
2. Macrolides - Azithromycin (Zithromax)
3. Clindamycin (Cleocin HCl) |
|
|
Term
| Bactericidal agents are preferred to be used to treat infections in the ________ and __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give examples of bactericidal antibiotics |
|
Definition
1. Aminoglycosides = Tobramycin (Tobi)
2. Quinolones = Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
3. B-Lactams = Piperacillin (Zosyn)
4. Cephalosporins = Cephalexin (Keflex) |
|
|
Term
| What is concentration dependent killing? |
|
Definition
| Where you get more kills at a greater rate and to a greater extent with increasing antibiotic concentration. |
|
|
Term
| Which kinds of antibiotics are concentration dependent killing? |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
Metronidazole |
|
|
Term
| With time dependent killing, it kills at the _______ rate and extent once antibiotic threshold concentration has been reached. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are example of time dependent killing antibiotics? |
|
Definition
B lactams
Cephalosporins
Vancomycin
Clindamycin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Post Antibiotic Effect
Persistant suppression of organism growth after exposure and removal of antibiotic |
|
|
Term
| What are some acquired antimicrobial resistance? |
|
Definition
1. Drug inactivation
2. Decreased permeability
3. Alterations of binding site
4. Metabolic bypass |
|
|
Term
| How long after treatment do you suspect that the treatment has failed for an infection? |
|
Definition
After 3 days
Possibly a fungal/virus infection, a non infectious cause or has acquired antimicrobial resistance
|
|
|
Term
| What is the pharmacists role in treatment infections? |
|
Definition
1. Know your bugs and drugs
2. Assist with choice of antibiotic
3. Start with empiric therapy and streamline based on cultre and susceptibility
4. Change from IV to PO
5. Appropriate duration of therapy
6. Monitor for efficacy and toxicity
7. Educate about treatment and outcomes |
|
|
Term
| Why use combination regimens? |
|
Definition
To prevent the emergence of resistant strains
To treat empirically when organisms is unknown
To use antibiotic synergism
|
|
|
Term
| As a pharmacist, when do you switch from IV to PO? |
|
Definition
When afebrile for 24-48 hrs
Decrease in WBC
and has a working gut |
|
|
Term
| What is the 3 conceptual areas which should be considered when assessing an infectious disease? |
|
Definition
1. The bug
2. The drug treatment
3. The patient |
|
|
Term
| What are some patient risk factors for an infectious disease? |
|
Definition
1. Age (immune system alterations)
2. Comorbid disease states (HIV, DM)
3. Drugs (Steroids)
4. Social Status (Smoker, ETOH, drugs)
5. Recent Trauma (surgery, accident)
6. Environmental risk (travel) |
|
|
Term
| Smells are associated with what type of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What things occur with an activated immune system? |
|
Definition
1. fever
2. increased WBC
3. Inflammatory response
4. Discharge
5. Smell |
|
|
Term
| What are some questions to ask when trying to determine the "bug" of infection? |
|
Definition
1. What are the likely pathogens for the site/symptoms?
2. What patient risk factors add or take away from the possible list of common pathogens?
Common pathogens include those of normal flora that has been misplaced or opportunistic pathogens. |
|
|
Term
| What are some patient pecific treatment questions that one should ask? |
|
Definition
1. Drug allergies?
2. Patient weight?
3. Will dosing adjestments be needed for renal/liver dysfunction?
4. Comorbid diseases?
5. Age?
6. Current drug therapy? |
|
|
Term
| After how long on therapy should you expect to see some clinical improvement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An infection of the skin that penetrates into the subcutaneous tissues |
|
|
Term
| Diabetics tend to have gram _______ infections. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some dog normal flora? |
|
Definition
1. Pasturella multocida (gram -)
2. Bacteroides sp (anaerobic)
3. Fusobacterium sp (anaerobic)
4. Capnocytophaga |
|
|
Term
| What is IDSA website for? |
|
Definition
www.idsociety.org
Used to help physicans make decisions about specific clinical circumstances. They have clinical practice guidelines that give you quick diagnostic and treatment recommendations. |
|
|
Term
| The CDC not only gives you specific immunization criterias but also _____________ |
|
Definition
| Vaccine information and Etiology of diseases |
|
|
Term
| With the John Hopkins website you can search by diagnosis, drugs, vaccines, and pathogens. What kind of information is on there website? |
|
Definition
| Immunization recommendations, indications, administration and contraindications |
|
|
Term
| Which organization promotes public health, strengthens healthy systems and fosters health security, and also provides data and statistics all over the world? |
|
Definition
WHO
World health organization |
|
|
Term
| Simply put an adverse drug event is |
|
Definition
| Any unfavorable event associated with the use a of medication |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 categories of ADEs? |
|
Definition
1. Adverse drug reactions
2. medication erros
3. therapeutic failures
4. adverse drug withdrawal events
5. overdoses
|
|
|
Term
| What are some preventable ADEs? |
|
Definition
Medication erros that are involved with these process:
1. Prescribing
2. Dispensing
3. Administering
4. Monitoring |
|
|
Term
| An ADR is a _____________ ADE. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an adverse drug reaction? |
|
Definition
| Injury resulting from medical use of a drug with no error involved. |
|
|
Term
| One study estimated that nearly _______ of ADEs caused permanent disability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| One study estimated that ADEs ________ the risk of patient death. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Simply put an ADR is an ADE with _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you identify ADRs? |
|
Definition
S = Side effect
O = Overdose
A = Allergy
P = Pseudoallergy
I = Interaction
I = Intolerance
I = Idiosyncrasy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An undesireable effect at recommended doses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A genetically determined abnormal reaction to a drug due to enzyme deficiency |
|
|
Term
| Intolerance is a ______________ to the normal action of a drug. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Has the same allergic reaction but lacks immunological specificity. |
|
|
Term
| An allergy is defined as an ______________ mediated reaction, which is ____________ and reoccurs upon re-exposure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With an ADE symptoms cause problems for the patient and ____________ is required whereas Side effects could be managed by minor intervention like taking with food. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for ADRs? |
|
Definition
1. Advanced age
2. Female gender
3. Nature and degree of illness requiring drug therapy (ex: kidney failure)
4. Type of medication administered |
|
|
Term
| How many types of ADRs are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Augmentation of a drugs primary or secondary pharmacological effect
They are common, predictable and occur in everyone |
|
|
Term
| Which type of ADR accounts for 80% of all ADEs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give some examples of Type A ADRs |
|
Definition
1. Hepatic failure with excess acetaminophen
2. Sedation with antihistamine
3. Diarrhea with antibiotic use |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bizzare or idiosyncratic in nature; Reactions are not related to a drugs primary or even secondary pharmacologic effect
They are unpredictable, uncommon
Rare |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of Type B ADRs |
|
Definition
1. Tinnitus with aspirin use
2. Anaphylaxis with penicillin use
3. Pseudoallergic rxn with Radiocontrast dye |
|
|
Term
| What is Type C ADR and give an example. |
|
Definition
Chronic effects
Benzodiazepine dependence |
|
|
Term
| What is Type D ADR and give an example? |
|
Definition
Delayed effects
Carcinogenic and teratogenic |
|
|
Term
| What is Type E ADR and give an example? |
|
Definition
End of Treatment effect
Narcotic or B-blocker withdrawal |
|
|
Term
| This type of ADR can be caused by drug interations. An example would be oral contraceptives and anticonvulsants. |
|
Definition
| Type F = Failure of Therapy |
|
|
Term
| How do you rank the ADRs? |
|
Definition
Minor = No treatment
Moderate = Change in therapy, increased hospital stay
Severe = Potentially life threatening, causes permanent damage, requires intensive care
Lethal = Directly/indirectly causes death |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 classes of ADRs? |
|
Definition
1. Preventable (most important)
2. Predictable/Unpreventable (common)
3. Unpreventable
4. Unpredictable (rare ex: Angioedema with ACE Inhibitors) |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to classify ADRs? |
|
Definition
Aids in developing a monitoring program
Aides in determining where to place health care resources in preventing ADRs
Just one report could lead to further investigation and subsequent withdrawal of a dangerous medication |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 goals of FDA Medwatch? |
|
Definition
1. Increase awareness of medical product/drug induced disease
2. Clarify what should be reported and increase awareness of improtance of reporting
3. Facilitate ease of reporting
4. Provide feedback to health care providers about new safety issues |
|
|
Term
| What are some recent examples of Medwatch reports? |
|
Definition
1. Hydrocodone Bitartrate and Acetaminophen Tablets, and Phenobarbital tablets by Qualitest
Avandia = CV events |
|
|
Term
| The ADR surveillance program is a system that will ____________ ADRs and allow ____________ and ___________ and ___________ the ADR. |
|
Definition
Identify
Tracking
Trending
Classify |
|
|
Term
| What is a JCAHO requirement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or pateint harm while the medication is in the control of the health care professional, patient or consumer. |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of medication errors? |
|
Definition
Prescribing
Transcribing
Dispensing
Administration
Monitoring
Patient Adherence |
|
|
Term
| A prescribing error is the inappropriate selection of a drug or drug therapy by the prescriber, or incorrect/inadequate instructions for use. Give some examples. |
|
Definition
Inappropriately selecting a drug
*Indication
*Allergies
*Dose
*Dosage form
*Quantity
*Route of administration
*Concentration
*Contraindication |
|
|
Term
| What does a transcribing error entail? |
|
Definition
| The failure to transcribe information or the improper entry of an order into an information system. |
|
|
Term
| Oral prescription order and confirmation bias occurs in which type of medication error? |
|
Definition
| During transcribing error |
|
|
Term
| What is confirmation bias? |
|
Definition
| You read and dispense what you want, and it is not the actual drug prescribed. |
|
|
Term
| The majority of errors that reached the pateint occured during which stage of medication errors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metformin should not be prescribed to any patient who ahs a SCr > __________ in women or __________ in men. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HCTZ is not effective in CrCl < ____________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A dispensing error can occur at any of stage of the dispensing process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give examples of dispensing errors |
|
Definition
1. Failure to dispense Rx
2. Dispense wrong Rx, dose or dosage form
3. Failure to dispense right amount
4. Incorrect preparation, packaging, or storage
5. Dispensing expired, or compromised Rx |
|
|
Term
| What are some administration errors? |
|
Definition
Timing errors
Omissions
Incorrect drug administration technique
Wrong route of drug administration
Administration of improper dose |
|
|
Term
| Monitoring errors occur because of |
|
Definition
Failure to review a prescribed regimen for appropriate treatment
or a
Failure to use appropriate clinical or lab data for adequate assessment of patient response to the prescribed therapy |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes that contribute to med errors? |
|
Definition
1. Miscommunication of drug orders
2. Poor technology
3. Poor procedures or techniques
4. Inappropriate labeling when drug is repackaged
5. Poor knowledge of drug therapy
6. Environmental factors and job stress |
|
|
Term
| What are some strategies you can use to avoid med errors? |
|
Definition
1. Verify if patients have any allergies/ reactions to the Rx
2. Ask patients about all Rx they are taking including OTC and herbal
3. Compile a list of look alike sound alike (LASA) drugs and High alert Rx
4. Make sure LASA are not close together
5. Make a systematic counseling process
6. Continue to educate yourself on common med. errors and new strategies to decrease these types of errors
7. Verify drug information databases are up to date |
|
|
Term
| ________________ has a list of high alert medications and improvement strategies to decrease med errors. |
|
Definition
| Institute for Safe Medication Practice (ISMP) |
|
|
Term
| ______________ has patient information on pateint safety including comprehensive handouts |
|
Definition
USP
or aka
US Pharmacopeia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
It is the only way the health care system will be able to learn how to improve the medication use process.
It allows flaws in the system to be identifed and corrected |
|
|
Term
| What is a root cause analysis? |
|
Definition
A systematic approach to identify the various factors leading to an error or event.
It attempts to understand the "true" problem before something is "fixed"
|
|
|
Term
| Root cause analysis is an important process for improving ___________ and ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Root cause analysis is a retrospective approach to error analysis used to put blame on an individual. |
|
Definition
| False; the first part is correct, but it is not used to put blame, rather avoid blaming peeps. |
|
|
Term
| List the general steps to Root cause analysis |
|
Definition
1. Define the problem
2. Gather data on what happened
3. Ask questions to id the causal relationships
4. Id any causes that could prevent a recurrence
5. list possible solutions
6. Implement recommendations
7. Continue to assess changes |
|
|
Term
| Who are the last line of defense in medication safety? |
|
Definition
|
|