Term
:A desire for sexual intimacy. The stage, in which a man or woman begins to want or "desire" sexual intimacy or gratification
May last anywhere from a moment to many years. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
:The body's physical response to desire and to stimulation.
The second stage of the sexual response cycle characterized by the body’s initial response to feelings of sexual desire,
May last from minutes to several hours |
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Definition
|
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Term
| This stage, the highest point of sexual excitement, generally lasts between 30 seconds and three minutes |
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Definition
|
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Term
:Also known as a sexual climax
A pleasurable physical, psychological or emotional response to prolonged sexual stimulation.
It is often accompanied by a notable physiological reaction, such as ejaculation, blushing or spasm and may be followed by “aftershocks”. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The duration of this stage in the sexual response cycle — the period during which the body returns to its pre-excitement state — varies greatly and generally increases with age |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the order of the 5 stages of the sexual response cycle? |
|
Definition
1. Sexual desire
2. Excitement
3. Plateau
4. Orgasm
5. Resolution |
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Term
:This disorder may be present when a person has decreased sexual fantasies and a decreased or absent desire for sexual activity.
When does this condition usually manifest? |
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Definition
| Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder, usually manifests during adulthood, often times following a period of stress. |
|
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Term
| :disorder characterized by an individual actively avoiding and having a persistent or recurrent extreme aversion to genital sexual contact with a sexual partner, they usually report anxiety, fear, or disgust when given the opportunity to be involved sexually. |
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Definition
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Term
| :genital pain that accompanies sexual intercourse and tends to be chronic in nature |
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Definition
|
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Term
| :An involuntary spasm of the muscles surrounding the vagina that closes the vagina |
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Definition
|
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Term
| :disorder in which a male is unable to maintain an erection throughout sexual activity (In many cases the erectile failure is intermittent and sometimes dependent upon the type of partner or the quality of the relationship) |
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Definition
|
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Term
| :When minimal sexual stimulation causes orgasm and ejaculation on a persistent basis for the male |
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Definition
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Term
| :The inability of a woman to complete sexual activity with adequate lubrication, swelling of the external genitalia and vaginal lubrication are generally absent, often, these women experience pain with intercourse and avoid sexual contact with their partner |
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Definition
|
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Term
| :disorder that occurs when there is a significant delay or total absence of orgasm associated with the sexual activity |
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Definition
|
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Term
| :disorder when a male experiences significant delay or total absence of orgasm following sexual activity |
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Definition
|
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Term
| :rare disorder characterized by unusual sexual behaviors and a 6-month period of recurrent, intense, sexually arousing fantasies or sexual urges involving a specific act. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Of all sexual disorders, which will most likely requirepsychotherapy/psychoanalysis? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the description of At-risk drinking for men and women? |
|
Definition
Defined by the amount and frequency of drinking:
Men = more than 14 drinks a week or 4 drinks per occasion.
Women = more than 7 drinks a week or 3 drinks per occasion. |
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Term
:disorder involving drinking that does any of the following but without evidence of dependence:
Prevents people from fulfilling their obligations,
Is done in physically dangerous situations (such as driving),
Results in legal, social, or interpersonal problems |
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Definition
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Term
:disorder characterized by frequent consumption of large amounts of alcohol causing more than 3 of the following:
People need to drink more and more alcohol to produce the same effects (tolerance).
Stopping the drug results in unpleasant, sometimes painful physical symptoms (withdrawal).
People drink more than they intended.
People want to reduce use but cannot.
People have spent a lot of time getting or drinking alcohol or recovering from its effects.
People have missed important events or activities (such as work, a wedding, or a graduation) because of drinking.
People continue to drink even though drinking is causing physical or psychological problems. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is alcohol primarily absorbed in the GI tract? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Peak blood alcohol concentration (BAC) primarily depends on what five factors? |
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Definition
Amount and alcohol concentration of beverage
Rate of drinking
Food consumption and composition
Gastric emptying and gastric metabolism
Hepatic first pass |
|
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Term
| Describe the gender differences in absorption, metabolism and volume distribution for alcohol use. |
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Definition
Absorption = Differences in gastric ADH activity.
Metabolism = Differences in liver volume (women have higher alcohol elimination rates per kg body weight or lean body mass possibly related to the higher liver volumes per unit lean body).
Volume distribution = Differences in body composition and total body water (TBW), Effect of menstrual cycle on alcohol pharmacokinetics and Effect of reproductive hormones (OCs) on alcohol pharmacokinetics. |
|
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Term
| :phenomenon of decreased effect with prolonged exposure to a drug |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| :a substance whose pharmacological effects drive the user to continue to use it. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the positive and negative reinforcing effects of alcohol? |
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Definition
Positive reinforcing effects:
Gain pleasure
Altered consciousness
Conform to behavior of peers
Negative reinforcing effects:
Relief of stress and negative emotions
Relief of withdrawal symptoms |
|
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Term
| What are the 5 main drugs/classes used in the treatment of alcoholism? |
|
Definition
Disulfiram
Naltrexone
Acamprosate
Benzodiazepines
SSRIs |
|
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Term
| What are the 4 main brief self-administered questionnaires for screening alcohol problems? |
|
Definition
1. 4 Item CAGE
2. 5 Item TWEAK
3. 25 Item Michigan Alcohol Screening Test (MAST)
4. 10 Item Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) |
|
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Term
| What are the 4 questions of the CAGE exam? |
|
Definition
1. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?
2. Have people annoyed you by criticising your drinking?
3. Have you ever felt bad or guilty about your drinking?
4. Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning to steady your nerves or get rid of a hangover (eye-opener)? |
|
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Term
| What are the 4 laboratory tests used to identify acute and/or heavy drinking (greater than or equal to 5 drinks/day)? Which is the best combination? |
|
Definition
Blood Alcohol Levels (BAL)
Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGTP)
Carbohydrate Deficient Transferrin (CDT)
Erythrocyte mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
*Best diagnostic combination is CDT + GGTP |
|
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Term
| What percentage of alcohol dependent patients will have alcohol withdrawal symptoms? What percentage of those will have mild to moderate Sx? Severe? What are the severe Sx? |
|
Definition
70 % of Alcohol Dependent patients will experience withdrawal.
85% will be mild to moderate.
15% will be severe.
Severe Sx = seizures and delirium tremens. |
|
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Term
| :stage of alcohol withdrawal that occurs six to eight hours after the last ingestion and consists of tremors and anxiety. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| :stage of alcohol withdrawal that occurs 10 to 30 hours after last ingestion, and the patient may show signs of insomnia, hallucinations, and hyperactivity. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| :stage of alcohol withdrawal that may be evidenced by generalized seizures in 3 percent to 5 percent of patients. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| :stage of alcohol withdrawal that occurs 72 hours to 7-10 days after cessation and includes delirium tremens (DTs). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first line agent, best efficacy, safest and lowest cost to treat alcohol withdrawal? |
|
Definition
| Benzodiazepines (BZDs) - Increase GABAfunction, decreases seizures by 90% and decreases delirium by 70%. |
|
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Term
| How early can withdrawal effects begin after the last administration with dependent opioid users? |
|
Definition
| As early as a few hours after the last administration |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Opioid withdrawal Sx. |
|
Definition
| Drug craving, restlessness, muscle and bone pain, insomnia, diarrhea and vomiting, cold flashes with goose bumps ("cold turkey"), kicking movements ("kicking the habit"), etc. |
|
|
Term
| When do the Opioid major withdrawal Sx peak after the last dose? |
|
Definition
| between 48 and 72 hours after the last dose |
|
|
Term
| What are the duration and the intensity of the Opioid withdrawal Sx dependent on? |
|
Definition
| quantity and half live of opiates being used |
|
|
Term
| How long can Heroin and Methadone withdrawal last? |
|
Definition
Heroin WD usually subsides after about a week.
Methadone WD can last weeks. |
|
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Term
| What is the gold standard therapy in treating Opioid dependence? How must it be administered? What is the class of this drug? |
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Definition
Methadone is the gold standard, must be administered in the setting of an OTP (Opiate Treatment Program).
It is an Opiate agonist. |
|
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Term
| Describe the class, uses and considerations for Nalrexone. |
|
Definition
| It is an Opiate antagonist used to treat opiate and alcohol dependence. They must be 7-10 days and you must check LFTs initially and every 3 months. |
|
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Term
| What drug suppresses opiate withdrawal, is used as a substitute for street opiates, blocks subsequently administered opiates, is safe in long term use, may be prescribed by primary care physicians in an ambulatory setting, has less respiratory depression and less physical dependence than opioids? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the non-Opioid dependence conditions that Buprenorphine is used to treat? Common SEs? |
|
Definition
Analgesic uses: Surgical pain, Labor pain, Back pain, Phantom pain, Post-herpetic neuralgia and Cancer pain.
SEs = nausea, vomiting and dizziness are common. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 main SEs of opiate administration? |
|
Definition
| constipation, sedation and pruritis |
|
|
Term
| Describe the effects of lipid solubility in BZD onset of action. Name a low, intermediate and high lipid soluble BZD. |
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Definition
The more lipid soluble the more rapid the effects.
Low: clonazepam (Klonopin)
Intermediate: lorazepam (Ativan)
High: diazepam (Valium) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 main AEs with BZD use? |
|
Definition
| Anterograde amnesia (impaired recall of new information) and sedation |
|
|
Term
| What are the some of the uses of BZDs? |
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Definition
| muscle spasm, convulsive disorders, anxiety, jet lag and work shift change. |
|
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Term
| What can result if BZD use is discontinued abruptly? |
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Definition
| Unopposed excitatory CNS activity (anxiety, diaphoresis, increased BP, increased HR, hallucinosis and seizures). |
|
|
Term
| How should BZDs be tapered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the rate of substance abuse in the medical profession vs the general population. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which occupations have higher substance abuse rates than the medical profession? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most common substances that are abused by medical professionals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 contributing factoers that lead to health care professionals using alcohol and other drugs to self-medicate their own stress? |
|
Definition
1. They often have compulsive personality traits, marked by a triad of self-doubt, guilt over perceived deficiencies, and an excessive sense of responsibility.
2. Many physicians come from families with a history of alcoholism or drug dependence, which increases their risk as well.
3. Professionals have easy access to prescription drugs, and "pharmacologic optimism.”
4. Physicians have access to drugs through their own ability to prescribe and knowledge about the process that can lead to effective diversion and availability at work.
5. Finally, because physicians are knowledgeable about the effects of medications, they may believe that the answer to their problems lies in just being able to find the right pill. |
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Term
| What are the 3 highest and 4 lowest medical specialties for substance abuse? |
|
Definition
HIGHEST = Emergency Medicine, Psychiatry and Anesthesiology.
LOWEST = OBGYN, Pathology, Radiology and Pediatrics. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the DSM-IV criteria for Anorexia Nervosa. |
|
Definition
Refusal to maintain weight within a normal range for height and age (more than 15 percent below ideal body weight)
Fear of weight gain
Severe body image disturbance in which body image is the predominant measure of self-worth with denial of the seriousness of the illness
In postmenarchal females, absence of the menstrual cycle, or amenorrhea (greater than three cycles). |
|
|
Term
| Describe the DSM-IV criteria for Bulimia. |
|
Definition
Binge eating that is followed by compensatory behavior of the purging type (self-induced vomiting, laxative abuse, diuretic abuse) or non-purging type (excessive exercise, fasting, or strict diets).
Binges and the resulting compensatory behavior must occur a minimum of two times per week for three months |
|
|
Term
| :disorder that is characterized by binge eating that is not followed by inappropriate compensatory behavior, such as self-induced vomiting or laxative abuse or excessive exercise. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Binge Eating Disorder treated? |
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Definition
Most people are treated in conventional weight-loss programs, which pay little attention to binge eating.
*Patients tend to accept this intervention because they are usually more concerned about their weight than about their binge eating.
Drug therapy with SSRIs controls both binge eating and weight, but discontinuation is frequently followed by relapse. |
|
|
Term
| What was the most important predictor of a new eating disorder in adolescent children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sports and artistic endeavors in which leanness is emphasized (eg, ballet, running, or wrestling) and sports in which scoring is partly subjective (eg, skating or gymnastics) are associated with a higher incidence of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the female athlete triad? |
|
Definition
| consists of an eating disorder, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis/stress fractures. |
|
|
Term
| Secondary amenorrhea affects more than __% of patients with anorexia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of secondary amenorrhea with anorexia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will be the result of the progesterone challenge test in anorexia patients? |
|
Definition
| Withdrawal bleeding with progesterone challenge does not occur due to the hypoestrogenic state |
|
|
Term
| If an anorexic/bulimic patient is treated and achieves 90% of her ideal body weight, when should menses resume? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| :condition characterized by a relentless pursuit of thinness, a morbid fear of obesity, a refusal to maintain a minimally normal body weight, and, in women, amenorrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______is a prominent feature of anorexia, and patients resist evaluation and treatment. They are usually brought to the physician's attention by their families or by intercurrent illness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the "key" to diagnosis for Anorexia? |
|
Definition
| eliciting the central “fear of fatness,” which is not diminished by weight loss. |
|
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Term
| Anorexia nervosa is usually apparent based on the characteristic symptoms and signs, particularly the loss of greater than or equal to __% body fat in a yound person who fears obesity, becomes amenorrheic, denies illness and otherwise appears well. Body fat is usually very low. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main difference in the appearance of anorexia vs bulimia? |
|
Definition
| Bulimia nervosa patients are usually normal weight |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical PE Sx of Bulimia? |
|
Definition
| Bruises scratches on palate/posterior pharynx, subconjunctival hemorrhage, parotid gland enlargement, dental enamel erosion and calluses on knuckles (Russell's sign). |
|
|
Term
| Who does binge eating disorder most commonly affect? What percentage of those affected are males? |
|
Definition
binge eating disorder occurs more commonly in older obese people and contributes to excessive caloric intake.
*About 50% are males |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of insomnia? |
|
Definition
| Transient (less than 2 weeks), Intermittent and Chronic |
|
|
Term
| Do older adults need the same amount of sleep as they did when they were younger? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common abnormalities of sleep seen with aging? |
|
Definition
| Less deep sleep (but same amount of dreaming), more awakenings during the night and taking longer to fall asleep. |
|
|
Term
| What is the criteria for Chronic Insomnia? |
|
Definition
| Complaint of poor sleep causing distress or impairment for 6 months or longer, average less than 6.5 hours sleep per day or 3 episodes per week of taking longer than 30 minutes to fall asleep or waking up during the night for at least an hour. |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of acute insomnia? |
|
Definition
| Stress, change in sleeping environment, acute illness/injury, new meds, jet lag or shift change. |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of chronic insomnia? |
|
Definition
| sleep apnea, nocturnal myoclonus, poor sleep hygiene, restless leg syndrome and circadian rhythm disorder. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common approach to acute insomnia (couple weeks) treatment? |
|
Definition
| Sleeping pills (not used for chronic insomnia) |
|
|
Term
| Can tolerance, dependency, withdrawal, rebound and relapse occur with sleeping pills? |
|
Definition
| Yes (didn't know how to make a question out of that) |
|
|
Term
| _____% of adults have used a benzodiazepine in past year as a sleep aid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____% of those over age 65 use sleeping pills |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the sleep restriction technique used for insomnia treatment? |
|
Definition
Cut bedtime to the actual amount of time you spend asleep (not in bed), but no less than 4 hours per night.
*No additional sleep is allowed outside these hours |
|
|
Term
| What is the relaxation training technique for insomnia treatment? Is it more useful in younger or older adults? |
|
Definition
Engage in any activities that you find relaxing shortly before bed or while in bed.
More effective in younger adults. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the efficacy of relaxation training vs sleep restriction technique for insomnia treatment. |
|
Definition
| Relaxation training is more effective than no treatment, but not as effective as sleep restriction technique. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 main kinds of postpartum depression (PPD)? |
|
Definition
(1) postpartum or maternity "blues" - a mild mood problem of short duration
(2) postpartum major depression - a severe and potentially life-threatening illness.
A third, less common, postpartum disorder is postpartum psychosis. |
|
|
Term
| Postpartum blues affects approximately ____% of new mothers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The symptoms of postpartum blues usually begin ___days after delivery, worsen by days ___, and tend to resolve by day __. |
|
Definition
| The symptoms usually begin 3-4 days after delivery, worsen by days 5-7, and tend to resolve by day 12. |
|
|
Term
| For postpartum blues symptoms that last longer than 2 weeks, it is important for the individual to seek medical attention, since approximately ___% women with postpartum blues develop postpartum major depression. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although the DSM-IV defines PPD as a major depressive episode occurring within 4 weeks of childbirth, other studies of PPD report that symptoms manifest themselves most often in weeks _____ following delivery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For the majority of women with postpartum psychosis, symptoms develop within ____ after delivery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the early and extreme symptoms of Postpartum Psychosis? |
|
Definition
The earliest symptoms are typically restlessness, irritability, and sleep disturbance.
In extreme cases, the risks of suicide and/or infanticide are high, thus these women often require hospitalization. |
|
|
Term
| Although there are a number of rating scales for depression, one that has been validated in the postpartum population is the ________. |
|
Definition
| Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) |
|
|
Term
| What is the suggested ideal time to screen for postpartum depression? |
|
Definition
| At the standard postpartum medical visit at 6 weeks and at subsequent pediatric visits. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for postpartum major depression? |
|
Definition
| Same as nonpuerperal major depression |
|
|
Term
| What is the major consideration that women experiencing postpartum major depression must consider before treatment? |
|
Definition
Women who are breastfeeding must be informed that all psychotropic medications, including antidepressants, are secreted in the breast milk at varying concentrations.
*Data do not suggest that one antidepressant is safer than another for women who breastfeed. Choices of medications should be based as usual on prior response to antidepressants and side effect profile. |
|
|
Term
| :a neuropsychological disorder characterized by developmentally inappropriate levels of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
:disorders characterized by delays and deficits in the development of social interaction, communication skills, and cognitive abilities.
Examples? |
|
Definition
Pervasive Developmental Disorders:
Autism
Asperger Syndrome
PDD-NOS (not otherwise specified)
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder
Rett Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What are the DSM-IV criteria for ADHD? |
|
Definition
| 6 Sx of inattention or 6 Sx of hyperactivity/impulsivity |
|
|
Term
| What are the DSM-IV criteria for Asperger's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Qualitative impairment in social interaction (2+), repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests, and activities (1+), and no significant delay in language. |
|
|
Term
Describe the typical onset of Sx in PDDs (Pervasive Developmental Disorders)
vs ADHD. |
|
Definition
| PDDs should present in the first years of life, ADHD by age 7. |
|
|
Term
| When should Sx begin with PDDs, when will the parents usually start to express concern and when does diagnosis usually occur? |
|
Definition
Sx should be present in the first years of life, late onset: after 3 years.
Parents usually start expressing concern at 12-18 months.
Diagnosis often does not occur until the child is 3 or 4. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main difference between Asberger's and autistic disorders regarding language and cognitive development? |
|
Definition
| Unlike an austistic disorder, no significant aberrations or delays occur in language development or cognitive development in Asberger's. |
|
|
Term
| Individuals with _______ disorder have normal or even superior intelligence while demonstrating social insensitivity or even apparent indifference toward loved ones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Published case reports of individuals with Asperger disorder suggest an association with the capacity to accomplish cutting-edge research in what 3 areas? |
|
Definition
| computer science, mathematics and physics |
|
|
Term
| What is the DSM-IC criteria for Asperger's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Qualitative impairment in reciprocal social interaction
Qualitative impairment in communication
Restricted, repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests and activities |
|
|
Term
| What are the typical laboratory findings in patients with Aspberger's disorder? |
|
Definition
| elevated total cholesterol and low-density lipoproteins |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of CT scan in Asperger's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| No role in diagnosing but it can be used to exclude other treatable conditions. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of MRI in Asperger's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| MRI can reveal various deficits, but results are inconsistent. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of PET scan in Aspberger's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Positron emission tomography (PET) scanning reveals multiple deficits in some individuals. |
|
|
Term
| What personality disorders are common with Asperger's disorder? Are they at an increased risk of suicide? |
|
Definition
Depression and hypomania.
They are at an increased risk of suicide. |
|
|
Term
| What neuropsychiatric disorders may be present with Asperger's disorder? |
|
Definition
| Tourette disorder, anorexia nervosa, and schizophrenia. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Asperger's disease? |
|
Definition
| To assist people with Asperger syndrome in social encounters, social skills training, with role modeling and role playing, may be helpful. People with Asperger syndrome may benefit from the practice of relaxation techniques to cope with stress. |
|
|
Term
:disorder characterized by intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological signs or symptoms in another person who is under the individual's care. The motivation for the perpetrator's behavior is to assume the sick role by proxy.
External incentives for the behavior, such as economic gain, avoiding legal responsibility, or improving physical well-being, are absent. |
|
Definition
| Münchausen syndrome by proxy |
|
|
Term
| Who is the most common abuser (over 90%) in Münchausen syndrome by proxy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The female preponderance with Münchausen syndrome by proxy may be attributed to socialization patterns such as? |
|
Definition
| The likelihood of females to seek the sympathy and assistance of others and that females are most likely to plan the primary care-taking role. |
|
|
Term
What percentage of the perpetrators in
Münchausen syndrome by proxy have:
Sx of Munchausen Syndrome,
Hx of childhood abuse,
Hx of working in healthcare,
and psychological disorders (borderline personality disorder, depression, paranoia) |
|
Definition
29% symptoms of Munchausen Syndrome
22% history of childhood abuse
27% history of working in healthcare
23% psychological disorders, such as borderline personality disorder, depression, paranoia |
|
|
Term
| What is the age range for children most at risk for Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sex and socioeconomic class is most affected by Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP)? |
|
Definition
| No discriminations between sex or socioeconomic class. |
|
|
Term
| Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP) affects what race most commonly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average age on onset for Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP) patients die? Incur long term injury? |
|
Definition
| 6% die, 7% incur long-term injury |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of death with Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of the time is MSBP perpetrated serially on siblings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An individual with Munchausen syndrome by proxy often exhibits what 6 characteristics? |
|
Definition
Has medical skills or experience.
Seems devoted to her child.
Looks for sympathy and attention.
Tries too hard to become close and friendly with medical staff.
Needs to feel powerful and in control.
Does not see her behavior as harmful. |
|
|
Term
| Can child victims of MSBP develop Munchausen syndrome themselves? |
|
Definition
| In some cases, a child victim of MSP learns to associate getting attention to being sick and develops Munchausen syndrome him or herself. |
|
|
Term
| Is MSBP considered child abuse? |
|
Definition
| MSP is considered a form of child abuse, which is a criminal offense. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 most common drug-related causes of emergency department visits in the US? |
|
Definition
| Cocaine, methamphetamine, and ecstasy |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Sx of Acute Methamphetamine Psychosis. |
|
Definition
Extreme paranoid ideation
Well-formed delusions
Hyper-attentive to environs
Hallucinations
Panic, extreme fearfulness
Potential for violence |
|
|
Term
| What are the chronic effects of Methamphetamines? |
|
Definition
Depression
Irritability
Anger
Anxiety & Panic
Paranoia
Hallucinations
Insomnia
Fatigue
Concentration
Confusion |
|
|
Term
| What are the psychiatric effects of Crystal Meth at higher doses? Extreme doses? |
|
Definition
At higher doses: hypomania, grandiosity.
Extreme doses: insomnia, irritability. |
|
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Term
| What kind of psychosis do ~10% 0f Crystal Meth uses get? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are some of the crystal meth withdrawal effects of long term use (1-2 years)? |
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Definition
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Term
| What percentage of long term Crystal Meth users will remain depressed after 2-5 years after abstinence? |
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Definition
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Term
| What psychiatric effect occurs in ~10% of long term ecstacy use? What symptom do 62% of former methamphetamin and cocaine users complain of after abstinence? |
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Definition
Psychoses that mimic schizophrenia.
Major Depression. |
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Term
| What is the treatment option of choice for Psychosis? |
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Definition
| Neuroleptics (Zyprexa, Risperdal) |
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