Term
| a complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the primary flexor of the hip is the |
|
Definition
iliopsoas
group of three muscles
-psoas major
-psoas minor
-iliacus |
|
|
Term
| paralytic equinus during swing phase is often caused by injury to the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cycle of gait is defined as all activity that occurs between |
|
Definition
| heel-strike on one limb and the subsequent heel-strike on the same limb |
|
|
Term
| "toe-in" or "toe-out" is the relationship of the long axis of the foot to the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the motions of inversion and eversion occur primarily at which joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a complete lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg will result in what gait deviation? |
|
Definition
| shortened step length on the contralateral side |
|
|
Term
| _______ disease is an osteochondrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis that generally occurs in |
|
Definition
| legg-calves-perthes; 3-10 year old males |
|
|
Term
| At which part of gait are the most number of muscles active/ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for correction of genu valgum forces should be applied over the |
|
Definition
| lateral thigh distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and medial condyl of the femur |
|
|
Term
| the purpose of measuring external rotation of the ankle joint is to: |
|
Definition
| insure that the mechanical ankle axis coincides with the anatomical ankle axis in the transverse plane |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum acceptable malalignment of a tibial fracture that can be managed with an off the shelf fracture orthosis? |
|
Definition
| 10 degrees of varus or valgus, 20 degrees of anterior posterior angulation |
|
|
Term
| for most patients with paraplegia to stand in KAFOs they must be allowed to rest on their iliofemoral ligaments. in order to facilitate this posture, how should the tibia's be positioned sagitally in relationship to the ground? |
|
Definition
| a few degrees of relative dorsiflexion |
|
|
Term
| congenital osteoporosis, along with fractures before and during birth is indicative of which condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the best initial recommendation for a new born patient with talipes equino varus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a flexible varus hindfoot might be corrected using: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which shoe modifications is most likely to be used for a fixed equinus deformity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the proper location of the mechanical knee joint on a KAFO is: |
|
Definition
| half the distance between the adductor tubercle and the medial tibial plateau |
|
|
Term
| What is not a contraindication for an R.G.O? |
|
Definition
| 10 degrees of hip flexion |
|
|
Term
| metatarsal pads function to __________ as well as ___________ |
|
Definition
| relieve metatarsal heads/ elevate the transverse arch |
|
|
Term
| which of the following ankle joint controls would be indicated for a patient with paralysis of the plantarflexors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in relation to the apex of the greater trochanter, where is the mechanical hip joint located? |
|
Definition
| 25mm proximal, 12mm anterior |
|
|
Term
all of the following are true of the quadriceps femoris muscle except
-it is innervated by both the obturator and femoral nerve
-it is the primary extensor of the knee
-it inserts into the tibial tuberosity
-it consists of four parts, only one of which acts across the hip joint |
|
Definition
| it is innervated by both the obturator and femoral nerves |
|
|
Term
| what motion does a cushioned heel simulate? |
|
Definition
| plantarflexion at heel strike |
|
|
Term
which motion component is not considered part of supination?
-plantarflexion
-inversion
-eversion
-adduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if the oblique diameter of the anatomical malleoli is 83mm, the inside diameter of the mechanical ankle joint (when using clevis joints) is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a contraindication for a floor reaction AFO? |
|
Definition
| genu recurvatum and coronal instability of the knee |
|
|
Term
| more ankle joint clearance is allowed for the medial malleolus because |
|
Definition
| the medial malleolus is more prominent |
|
|
Term
| solid stirrup length is determined by calculating the: |
|
Definition
| height of distal tip medial malleolus to floor+sole thickness x 2 + heel width + 6 |
|
|
Term
| a patient with an inferior lumbar myelomeningocele may develop hip flexion contractures due to |
|
Definition
| lack of hip extensors to act as antagonists and parental non-compliance with home stretching program |
|
|
Term
| when putting a heel wedge into a shoe (in conjunction with a conventional AFO) to address a fexible varus hindfoot, the wedge should be placed: |
|
Definition
| between the stirrup and the sole |
|
|
Term
| THe UCBL is contraindicated for: |
|
Definition
| arthritis at the ankle joint |
|
|
Term
| when using an AFO with a solid ankle joint, a smoother gait maybe achieved through use of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a polymer AFO is contraindicated for which condition? |
|
Definition
| fluctuating edema of foot and leg |
|
|
Term
| if a patient is wearing a KAFO with bilateral ring locks engaged, the clearance from the ring locks to the patients skin should be? |
|
Definition
| 6mm medially, 3mm laterally |
|
|
Term
| during late stance phase of gait cycle, the hip joint requires how much extension for normal function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which phase of gait does a rocker sole most closely simulate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when aligning the bail component of a cam lock knee joint, the posterior aspect of the bail should be angled: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when treating an adult patient with an anterior hip dislocation, it is important to: |
|
Definition
| not allow the hip to pass 30* of flexion |
|
|
Term
| when genu varum is present on a lower limb schema, the mid sagital line connects the perineum and the mark made: |
|
Definition
| 30 mm medial to the ankle |
|
|
Term
| The Coleman lateral block test is used to asses flexibility of which presentation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which motion would be lost if the superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve is injured? |
|
Definition
| eversion of the subtalar joint |
|
|
Term
| which motion would be lost if the superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve is injured? |
|
Definition
| eversion of the subtalar joint |
|
|
Term
| if you were delineating a schema for a conventional KAFO you should indicate the knee and ankle axes to be: |
|
Definition
| perpendicular to the mid sagittal line |
|
|
Term
| tibialis posterior is innervated by which nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20 yr old male diagnosis of T10 incomplete spinal cord injury 1i 2007. ambulation exhibits moderate extensor spasticity with 10 degrees of genu recurvatum. ankle control of choice in the AFO is |
|
Definition
| dorsiflexion stop and plantarflexion stop |
|
|
Term
| at heel strike the ground reaction line passes |
|
Definition
| anterior to hip, posterior to knee |
|
|
Term
| you are asked to treat a patient with genu varum that cannot be corrected with moderate pressure. The orthosis should: |
|
Definition
| be fabricated to conform to the limb and prevent further deformity |
|
|
Term
| You have assessed a spina bifida patient that would benefit from bilateral KAFOs. Which type of knee joint does not require the patient to manually lock the knee but would allow the patient to use their upper extremities to get to an erect position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| posterior hip dislocation may occur in a MVA. what position of the hip has the highest risk of dislocation? |
|
Definition
| flexed, internally rotated, and adducted |
|
|
Term
| the pelvic band on a HKAFO should be: |
|
Definition
| midway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter of the femur |
|
|
Term
| when fitting a conventional AFO the orthotist must ensure that the calf band |
|
Definition
| does not impinge on the common peroneal nerve |
|
|
Term
| when fabricating an AFO to resist genu recurvatum the orthotist should |
|
Definition
| maintain the ankle in dorsiflexion |
|
|
Term
| The greatest amount of dorsiflexion occurs during which part of stance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| functionally, double action ankle joints can be effectively used in treating patients with paraplegia because they |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the three points of pressure implemented with a sabolich trimline to correct a varus deformity at the ankle include pressure around the medial aspect of the |
|
Definition
| foot and calf, lateral aspect of the ankle |
|
|
Term
| spastic paralysis may result from |
|
Definition
| spinal cord and/or brain injury and poliomyelitis |
|
|
Term
| a Trendelenburg sign is caused by loss/weakness of the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient exhibits hallux rigidus, which part of stance phase will the patient have the most discomfort? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| you have fit a patient with a polymer AFO, free dorsi/plantar stop. ankle set at neutral. during ambualtion the patient complains of pressure on the navicular and the lateral aspect of the foot proximal to the 5th metatarsal head. what is wrong with the orthosis? |
|
Definition
| orthosis is set into to much dorsiflexion |
|
|
Term
which of the following muscle groups are responsible for the majority of muscular activity in decelerating the limb at terminal swing?
-quadriceps
-iliopsoas
-hamstrings
-dorsiflexors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a unilateral pelvic band should be what percentage of the circumference? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient presents with a morton's neuroma. based on your knowledge of this pathology, the position of the metatarsal pad will most likely be proximal to the metatarsal heads with the apex of the pad between the metatarsal heads. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a posterior lean is most commonly seen with paralysis of which muscle group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most important principle in orthotic management of fractures is |
|
Definition
| compression of soft tissue |
|
|
Term
| with poor muscle grade dorsi and plantar flexors the most desirable control in a metal AFO is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the anterior cruciate ligament attaches the ________ aspect of the femur to the __________aspect of the tibia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which muscle does not assist in dorsiflexion of the ankle:
-peroneus longus
-tibialis anterior
-extensor hallicus longus
-peroneus tertius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a favorable outcome in orthotic management of a tibial fracture is |
|
Definition
| no more then 5 degrees of angulation in any plane |
|
|
Term
| a varus control strap on a conventional AFO attaches to the ____ aspect of the shoe and wraps around the _____ side bar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the ligament on which the talus rests and which helps support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is the |
|
Definition
| plantar calcaneonavicular ligamnet |
|
|
Term
| a patient demonstrating good hip muscule strength but poor quad and plantar strength is refered to you. which settings of the double action AFO would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient? |
|
Definition
| anterior pins maintaining a few degrees of plantarflexion |
|
|
Term
| young boy with the early signs of MD. one of the first stages of the disease is weak hip extensors, you would expect him to walk with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A condition where there is a growth disturbance on the medial proximal aspect of the tibia is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the talocalcaneal or talocalcaneonavicular joints form which joints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where should an arch support pad be placed? |
|
Definition
| apex of the medial longitudinal arch, beneath the sustentaculum tali, and proximal to the 1st metatarsal head |
|
|
Term
| a patient is able to extend their knee against maximum resistance and passes the break test, what grade muscle does this patient have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient is able to extend their knee against maximum resistance and passes the break test, what grade muscle does this patient have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Talipes equinovarus can be present in which pathology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when fitting a patient with CDH (congenital dislocation of hip) what fitting parameters are best indicated for this infant? |
|
Definition
| 90 degrees of hip flexion, 45 degrees of hip abduction |
|
|
Term
| a possible cause for hip circumduction during gait? |
|
Definition
| equinus, knee arthrodesis, extensor synergy pattern |
|
|
Term
| a spina bifida child presents with S1 intact. the orthosis indicated at this time would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when presented with a 5 yr old ped patient with CP and plantar flexion contractures the best recommendation is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a fusion of the talarcalcaneal, talonavicular and calcanealcuboid is better known as a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The TLSO: sagittal control is best suited to manage |
|
Definition
| kyphosis secondary to osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| you are asked to recommend an orthosis for a 20 yr old male who has sustained a L1 burst fracture. what is the best orthotic recommendation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which orthosis is best suited to manage a T6, 2 column fracture? |
|
Definition
| TLSO: sagittal/coronal control |
|
|
Term
| which orthosis is best suited to manage a compression fracture (20% ant/comp) at T11? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient presents with disruption of the supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, and the intervertebral disc. There is sparing of the anterior longitudinal ligament and the patient is neurologically intact. What is the most likely mechanism of injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The correct anterior pin placement for a HALO is in the |
|
Definition
| 10 mm superior to the eyebrow; lateral 1/3 of the eyebrow |
|
|
Term
| adolescent female with idiopathic scoliosis presents in your facility with a RX for orthotic management. based on this Rx, how is the patient most likely to present? |
|
Definition
| Risser sign of +1, Cobb angle of 25 degrees |
|
|
Term
| on which side of the orthosis should the trochanteric extension be placed? |
|
Definition
| the side of decomposition |
|
|
Term
| The orthotic management of a T1 level fracture will have its best 3-point pressure system with which orthosis? |
|
Definition
| cervical thoracic orthosis (CTO) |
|
|
Term
| Which degenerative joint disease first affects the articular cartilage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the correct posterior superior trim line for a polymer TLSO (not for scoliosis)? |
|
Definition
| 10 mm inferior to the level of the spine of the scapula |
|
|
Term
| 30 yr old pt with C1 fracture has been referred to you. it is 6 weeks post injury and the physician has deemed that the involved area is stable and shows signs of callous formation with return of neurologic function. the orthosis of choice at this point would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| upon looking at the surface anatomy of the back, the spine of the scapula is at which approximate level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which biomechanical principle would be the most effective in unloading an intervertebral disc? |
|
Definition
| increased intracavity pressure |
|
|
Term
| the end point vertebrae in a scoliatic curve are the: |
|
Definition
| last convergent vertebrae most superior and inferior to the null point |
|
|
Term
| what is the least to most effective in cervical orthoses for controlling the cervical spine? |
|
Definition
| soft collar, SOMI, 4 poster CTO, HALO |
|
|
Term
| Which condition should be positioned in sagittal flexion when managing with an orthosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the axillary extension of a boston style scoliosis orthosis for a double curve should extend from the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when there is a grade 2 pedicle rotation? |
|
Definition
| pedicle is rotated 2/3 towards midline |
|
|
Term
| which modification should be made to a scoliosis orthosis for a patient with hypokyphosis? |
|
Definition
| extend the posterior trim line to T3 |
|
|
Term
| with which conditions would it be acceptable to have the anterior panel of a LSO corset be shorter then the ideal height? |
|
Definition
| spondylolysis, spondylolisthesis |
|
|
Term
| unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid that is indicative of torticollis would cause what clinical presentation? |
|
Definition
| lateral head flexion to iposolateral side and rotation to the contralateral side |
|
|
Term
| a 31 yr female presents with a L1 burst fracture. before taking the impression and maintaining optimal sagittal alignment, you would first want to know the status of what ligament? |
|
Definition
| anterior longitudinal ligament |
|
|
Term
| for the initial set up of a TLSO: anterior control, what should be done to the overall height measurement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for the initial set up of a TLSO: anterior control, what should be done to the overall height measurement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| placement of a thoracic band on a conventional lumbosacral orthosis should be 10mm |
|
Definition
| inferior to the most inferior angle of the scapula |
|
|
Term
| what is the most important biomechanical principle when managing a neuromuscular spine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in a scoliatic curve, the spinous processes rotate towards the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a SOMI not effective in controlling cervical extension? |
|
Definition
| occipital pad pivots in the sagittal plane, and componetry is not rigid enough to stop extension |
|
|
Term
all of these fracture patterns can be indicated for the orthotic management except?
A. three column, two level
B. inherently stable two column
C. single column, one level with 25% compression
D. all single column, multiple level fractures |
|
Definition
| three column, two level injury |
|
|
Term
| in Scheuermann's disease, where should the thoracic pad be placed for a CTLSO: Milwaukee style be positioned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In traumatic spodylolisthesis of C2 is know as a _____. If it is unstable it is best managed with a __________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in what order should the HALO pins be tightened? |
|
Definition
| diagonally opposed pins together |
|
|
Term
| intra-abdominal pressure is used in spinal orthotics to |
|
Definition
| reduce axial load on lumbar vertebrae/intervertebral disc |
|
|
Term
| What is the method used to find the baseline measure for a corset measure? |
|
Definition
| measure from the inferior costal margin to the iliac crest then divide this measurement by 2 |
|
|
Term
| If you use a TLSO: sagittal control and found the patient could not tolerate the strap pressure in the axilla, what might be done? |
|
Definition
| pad the straps, use a harness chest strap with a sternal plate |
|
|
Term
| the cervical spine is the is the most mobile of the the spine segments. Which cervical level exhibits the most sagittal motion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| for a typical right thoracic, left lumbar adolescent idiopathic scoliosis curve, the superior aspect of the window should be ______, while the superior aspect of the axillary extension should be approximately at the level of ________ |
|
Definition
| superior rib of apical vertebra/ T5 |
|
|
Term
| Another name for a knight orthosis is a: |
|
Definition
| LSO: sagittal/coronal control |
|
|
Term
| In what position should spinal orthosis be tightened on a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All are clinical signs of scoliosis except?
A.positive Adams test
B.Risser sign
C.Asymmetrical gapping between arm and waist
D.shoulder asymmetry |
|
Definition
A.positive Adams test
B.RISSER SIGN**************
C.Asymmetrical gapping between arm and waist
D.shoulder asymmetry |
|
|
Term
| In scoliosis, an apical vertebra at T12 would indicate what kind of curve pattern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a CTLSO: Milwaukee NOT recommended for a person with a paralytic spine? |
|
Definition
| The person cannot provide active forces necessary for correction |
|
|
Term
| Where is the appropriate placement of the paraspinal bars for a lumbosacral orthosis? |
|
Definition
| follow the apices of the paraspinal muscles |
|
|
Term
| a lumbar pad for a scoliosis TLSO should be placed over the : |
|
Definition
| transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae |
|
|
Term
| hypokyphosis can be defined as having a sagittal curve magnitude in the range of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a 35 yr male is seen at a local hospital with an anterior compression fracture of L1. based on the diagnosis, what is the best orthotic recommendation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most likely mechanism of injury for a seatbelt fracture (chance fracture) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which is the onlt orthosis known to control motion at the atlanto occipital joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what deformity is most likely to result from ankylosing spondylitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pt presents with grade 3 spondylolisthesis and a 45 degree slip angle. based on the information what would likely be the most effective treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a burst fracture of the vertebral body is most likely associated with which mechanism of injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| you fit a TLSO to a patient with idiopathic scoliosis. 2 weeks later she has an "in orthosis" xray taken and brings it to you to evaluate. what is the minimum amount of correction that should be acceptable within the orthosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13 yr female seen in scoli clinic. Risser sign of 2, adolescent idiopathic scoli. curve span is from T7 to L1 and presents with a curve magnitude of 20 degrees. What should be the initial treatment? |
|
Definition
| observation to prove progression |
|
|
Term
Which of these statements is true of the Jewett style TLSO:
-it holds motion in the sagittal plane
-it stops flexion and is free in extension
-it holds motion in the transverse plane |
|
Definition
| it stops flexion and is free in extension |
|
|
Term
| which orthosis for idiopathic scoliosis uses a dynamic strap attached to a pad to increase corrective forces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the lumbar spine, where does the most sagittal motion occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a jefferson fracture, what is the primary mechanism of injury? |
|
Definition
axial load to skull
-diving into a shallow pool |
|
|
Term
| What effect does reducing decomposition have on the critical load of the spine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inflammation anterior to the flexor retinaculum is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The greatest advantage that a dorsal style WHO has over a volar style is that it: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The extensor carpi ulnaris works synergistically with the _______ to provide wrist extension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a pt presents with no volitional strength to the thumb. what component will you recommend? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient has suffered a radial nerve injury, which component would you most likely add to your orthotic recommendation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which of the following deformity in the fingers is most similar to hammer toe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the volar surface of the forearm contains the_____ muscles, which as a group originate at the ______ humeral epicondyle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in the WHO wrist driven, the ratchet box does what? |
|
Definition
| modulate the amount of wrist extension to achieve prehension |
|
|
Term
| a patient presents with hemiplegia. the physician asks what can you recommend to alleviate some of the pain in the patient's shoulder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most common etiology of a stroke is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a dynamic IP extension assist with an MP extension stop should be used if a |
|
Definition
| patient has lumbrical weakness and has hyperextended MPs |
|
|
Term
| A 68 yr female presents with rheumatoid arthritis. What deformity is most likely occurring at her MPs? |
|
Definition
| volar subluxation and ulnar deviation |
|
|
Term
| the correct distal trimline of the opponens bar is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which one of the following would most likely use a balanced forearm orthosis? |
|
Definition
| quadriplegics with fair shoulder power |
|
|
Term
| In a patient that presents with a swan neck deformity the PIP joint is |
|
Definition
| hyperextended and the DIP joint flexed |
|
|
Term
| secondary lymphedema is caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a patient presents with C6 quadriplegia. which muscles will the patient use to manipulate a WHO wrist driven to achieve prehension? |
|
Definition
| extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis |
|
|
Term
| A patient with a C6 quadriplegia using a WHO:wrist driven wrist... |
|
Definition
| extension causes MP flexion |
|
|
Term
| A humeral frature can be managed orthotically if it is in the_____ of the humerus. The most important biomechanical principle when managing these fractures is ________ |
|
Definition
distal 2/3
soft tissue compression |
|
|
Term
| the 1st CMC (carpometacarpal) is what type of joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most important motor acquisition of the C5 quadriplegic is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a boutoniere deformity consists of PIP... |
|
Definition
| flexion with DIP hyperextension |
|
|
Term
| you are assessing a patient at a rehab hospital for possible upper extremity managment. The patient presents with a tight web space that the therapist says they will stretch. what componenet will you include on your recommendation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most important sensory distribution in the hand when considering 3 pt palmar prehension is along the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a peripheral ulnar nerve injury at the wrist could be orthotically managed with a |
|
Definition
| HO with MP extension stop |
|
|
Term
| which muscle abducts the scapula? |
|
Definition
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Term
| name the most characteristic clinical sign of left CVA, right sided hemiplegia |
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Definition
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Term
| you are given a diagnosis that the lateral cord of the brachial plexus has been torn. What activity would you suspect to be limited |
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Definition
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Term
| The following nerve roots form the brachial plexus |
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Definition
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Term
| At the wrist, a WHO:wrist driven flexor hinge orthosis functions_____ to motion in the coronal plane |
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Definition
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Term
| the two functions of the bicepts brachii are |
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Definition
| elbow flexion, forearm supination |
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Term
| The main reason that the thumb adduction stop is placed on a wrist driven flexor hinge orthosis is because it |
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Definition
| prevents chaffing into the web space |
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Term
| the intrinsic muscles of the thenar eminence is mostly innervated by the |
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Definition
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Term
| In Dupuytren's contracture the _____ is most often involved |
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Definition
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Term
all of these muscles border the anatomical "snuff box" except:
-extensor pollicis longus
-abductor pollicis brevis
-extensor pollicis brevis
-abductor pollicis longus |
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Definition
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Term
| In the WHO: ratchet type tenodesis, the variable locking mechanism: |
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Definition
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Term
| The TIRR system is different from the IRM or Rancho systems in that it is usually made from: |
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Definition
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Term
| THe distal trim line of the thumb post is |
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Definition
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Term
| THe ideal placement of a MP extension stop is |
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Definition
| just proximal to the PIP joints |
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Term
| a "Claw Hand" deformity is the result of an injury to which nerves? |
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Definition
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Term
| abduction and adduction occur within the hand at: |
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Definition
| metacarpophalangeal joints |
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Term
| which level quadriplegic would benefit from the use of a balanced forearm orthosis |
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Definition
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Term
| A physician uses the froment's test to assess which nerve injury? |
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Definition
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Term
| A patient presents with C6 quadriplegia. they will not be able to manipulate objects with 3 point palmar prehension. what other type pf prehension will they use? |
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Definition
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Term
| A WHO: wrist extension assist could be used for nerve damage at what level? |
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Definition
| radial nerve at mid humeral level |
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Term
| true or false: A patient with rheumatoid arthritis could also have carpal tunnel syndrom |
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Definition
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Term
| which type of orthosis would be used to manage a patient with skin grafts in the axillary region? |
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Definition
| shoulder abduction orthosis |
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Term
| true or false: The Finklestein test is used to asses the abductor pollicis brevis and the extensor pollicis longus |
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Definition
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Term
| flexion and extension of the 1st MP occur in what plane |
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Definition
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Term
| two muscles function to abduct the shoulder, one is the deltoid and the other muscle is: |
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Definition
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Term
| A patient is wearing a WHO:MP stop IP extension assist for a median and ulnar nerve lesion. If the patient had recovery of the ulnar nerve, how would you modify the orthosis? |
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Definition
| remove the MP stop IP extension assist from MPs 4 and 5 |
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Term
| a patient suffered a mid shaft humeral fracture in a MVA. When are you most likely to initiate orthotic managment of this fracture? |
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Definition
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Term
| a major source of pain for the brachial plexus patient due to shoulder subluxation is |
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Definition
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Term
| For someone with weak or absent wrist extensors, the wrist can be positioned with a |
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Definition
-rachet type flexor hinge WHO
-static positioning WHO
-external powered WHO |
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Term
| _______ is where the patient can understand what is being said to them, knows what they want to say, but cannot verbalize it |
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Definition
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Term
| A Colle's fracture is a fracture of the distal aspect of the _______ and the mechanism of injury is wrist____and_____ |
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Definition
-radius
-extension
-radial deviation |
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Term
| A person that presents with mallet finger will be unable to |
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Definition
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Term
| a technician asks where to place tehe wrist joint on a WHO, you respond |
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Definition
| distal tip of the radial styloid |
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Term
| tennis elbow exhibits inflammation most commonly at what boney landmark? |
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Definition
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