Term
|
Definition
| Allergic and hypersensitivity reactions |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Immature neutrophils form what? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fibrinogen
Albumin
Globulins |
|
|
Term
| What is the most abundant plasma protein? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Three types of lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells |
|
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Term
| What do B lymphocytes do? |
|
Definition
| Humoral mediated immunity |
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Term
|
Definition
Differentiate in the thymus
Activate helper T cells
Involved in cell mediated immunity |
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|
Term
What do thrombocytes do?
Thrombocytes are removed by what? |
|
Definition
Form the platelet plug
Phagocytic cells of the spleen remove thrombocytes |
|
|
Term
| What stimulates RBC production? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is yellow bone marrow? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelet adhesions require what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Instrinsic pathway starts with what? |
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Definition
| It is a slow process that starts with factor 7 |
|
|
Term
| Extrinsic pathway starts when? |
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Definition
| Much fast pathway, starts at the injury site with the release of tissue factor and adhesive lipoprotein |
|
|
Term
| What is the terminal step in the intrinsic and extrinsic factors? |
|
Definition
| Activation of factor X and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin |
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Term
| After factor X is activated, and prothrombin has turned to thrombin, what happens? |
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Definition
| Thrombin then converts fibrinogen to fibren, the material that stabalizes the clots |
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Term
| Bleeding due to defects in which pathway is more severe? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when antithrombin III is complexed with naturally occuring heparin? |
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Definition
| Its action is accelarated to inactivate thrombin and factor Xa |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Inactivates factor V and VIII |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Breaks down fibrin to fibrin degradation products that act as anticoagulants |
|
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Term
| What is the process of by which a blot clot dissolves called? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the proenzyme for the fibrinolyic process? |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Digests the fiber strands of the clot and certain clotting factors |
|
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Term
| What disease may cause altered fibrinolytic activity and why? |
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Definition
| Chronic liver disease, because the inhibitors are synthesized in the liver and endothelium |
|
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Term
| What major inhibitor, in high concentrations has been associated with DVT, MI, and CAD? |
|
Definition
| Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 |
|
|
Term
| What tissue plasminogen activators are available for treatment of MI, stroke, PE? |
|
Definition
Alteplase
Reteplase
Tenecteplase |
|
|
Term
| What in the RBC transports the oxygen? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does hemoglobin change colors based on whether it is oxygenated or not? |
|
Definition
| Because of its iron content |
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|
Term
| The heme molecule is converted into what after the cell degradation process? |
|
Definition
| Converted into bile, taken to the liver for removal |
|
|
Term
| The fetal hemoglobin is the predominant hemoglobin at what point during gestation? |
|
Definition
| 3rd through 9 months gestation |
|
|
Term
| When is fetal hemoglobin replaced with adult hemoglobin? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The rate at which hemoglobin is synthesized is based on what? |
|
Definition
| The amount of iron available for heme synthesis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The small intestine - duodeum |
|
|
Term
| Erythropoesis has what affect on iron absorption? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for a reticulocyte to mature? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the majority of EPO produced? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| During red cell destruction, what type of bilirubin is in excess now? |
|
Definition
| Unconjugated bilirubin builds up |
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|
Term
| Haptoglobin may be increased when? |
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Definition
| With increased destruction of red cells |
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|
Term
| Large doses of nitrates leads to what? |
|
Definition
| High levels of methemoglobin, which can lead to hypoxia. |
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|
Term
| Persons who have neither A or B antigens are classified as what blood type? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO antigens begin to develop when? When do they reach maximum levels? |
|
Definition
Begin to develop at 3-6 months
Reach max levels 5-10 years |
|
|
Term
| Persons who express the antigen D are what Rh? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the body's lymphatic system consist of? |
|
Definition
Lymph vessels
Lymph tissue and nodes
Thymus
Spleen |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between mycoplasms and bacteria? |
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Definition
| Mycoplasms do not produce a peptidoglycan wall, therefore a resistent to penicillins and cephalosporins |
|
|
Term
| Dermophytes are incapable of growing at what temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The reaction of the innate immunity system happens in what time frame? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is humoral immunity? |
|
Definition
| Generated by B lymphocytes. Is the principle defense against extracellular microbes and toxins |
|
|
Term
| What is cell-mediated immunity? |
|
Definition
| Made of specific T lymphocytes, defends against intracellular organisms, such as viruses |
|
|
Term
| What are the key cells in innate immunity? |
|
Definition
Phagocytic leukocytes (neutrophils and macrophages)
NK cells
Neutrophils are the early responding cells |
|
|
Term
What immunity is more important in defending against microbes with capsules rich in polysaccharides and lipid toxins?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of responses in humoral immunity? |
|
Definition
Primary - first time exposed to antigen
Secondary - second exposure to the antigen
During the second exposure antibody reach higher levels quicker |
|
|
Term
| What are the peripheral lymphoid organ functions? |
|
Definition
Concentrate antigens
Aid in processing of antigens
Promote cellular interactions to develop adaptive immune responses |
|
|
Term
| Name the peripheral lymphoid organs |
|
Definition
Tonsils
lymph nodes
spleen
appendix
Peyer patches in the intestines
Certain mucosa
|
|
|
Term
| How are the lymphoid organs connected? |
|
Definition
| Blood vessels, capillaries, lymph channels |
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|
Term
| What is the function of the thymus? |
|
Definition
| Generates mature immunocompetent T lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| At puberty, the thymus is replaced by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two functions of lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
Removal of foreign material from the lymph tissue before it enters the blood stream
Serves as a center for proliferation and response for immune cells |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Filters antigens from the blood and is important to systemic infections |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between active and passive immunity? |
|
Definition
Active immunity: Acquired through vaccination or actually having the disease
Passive immunity: Immunity transferred from another source (fetus to mother) |
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|
Term
| What is the body's immune system able to react in a few hours after exposure to a previous agents? |
|
Definition
| Because of the memory B and T lymphocytes and circulating antibodies |
|
|
Term
| Why does an infant have very few infectious diseases during the first 3-6 months of life? |
|
Definition
Because the maternal IgG crosses the placenta and protects the baby for the first few months of life
(Passive immunity) |
|
|
Term
| How long does passive immunity last? |
|
Definition
Short term protections
Weeks to months |
|
|
Term
| What is the only immunoglobin to cross the placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean if the cord blood has IgA or IgM immunoglobulins in it? |
|
Definition
| Represents exporsure to interuterine infections |
|
|
Term
| Maternal IgA is transferred to the infant how? |
|
Definition
| In colostrum, or milk, during breastfeading |
|
|
Term
| What are the cardinal signs of inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Swelling, pain, loss of function |
|
|
Term
| cyclooxygenase pathway, which culminates in the synthesis of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
—the lipoxygenase pathway, which culminates in the synthesis of what?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The release of arachidonic acid does what? |
|
Definition
| the production of the eicosanoid family inflammatory mediators |
|
|
Term
| Eicosanoid synthesis follows one of two pathways, what are they? |
|
Definition
Cyclooxygenase
lipoxygenase |
|
|
Term
| How do aspirins and NSAIDs decrease inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Inactivating the first enzyme in the cyclooxygenase pathway for prostaglandin synthesis |
|
|
Term
What does prostaglandin thromboxane A2 do?
|
|
Definition
| Promotes platelet aggregration and vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
|
What causes the slow and sustained constriction of the bronchioles and are important inflammatory mediators in the bronchial asthma and anaphylaxis.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
Increases vascular permeability
Causes contraction of smooth muscle, dilation of blood vessels, and pain when injected into the skin |
|
|
Term
| What is bradykinin inactivated by, and if it escapes inactivation, what happens? |
|
Definition
Inactivated by kininase
If not, it is degraded by the angiotensin converting enzyme in the lung |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major cytokines that mediate inflammation? |
|
Definition
| Tumor necrosis factor-a and IL-1 |
|
|
Term
| Type 1 hypersensitivity involves what? |
|
Definition
IgE-mediated immune response
Usually happens within minutes, often referred to as an allergic reactions, in the case the antigen is referred to as an allergen |
|
|
Term
| Type 2 hypersensitivity involves what? |
|
Definition
Humoral antibodies or
Extracellular matrix antigens
(ex. Hemolytic disease of a new born due to ABO or rH incompatability) |
|
|
Term
|
Type III hypersensitivity disorders result in what?
|
|
Definition
Generation of circulating immune complexes in which humoral antibodies bind antigen and activate complement
(ex.—vasculitis seen in certain autoimmune diseases such as SLE or the kidney damage seen with acute glomerulonephritis.)
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|
|
Term
| Type 4 hypersensitivity disorder entails what? |
|
Definition
T-lymphocytes cause damage to cell and tissue
(ex.intimate encounter with poison ivy or poison oak antigens; Latex glove allergy)
—Reaction does not become apparent for at least 12 hours and usually more than 24 hours after exposure.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
—Anaphylaxis is a systemic life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction characterized by:
—Widespread edema
—Vascular shock secondary to vasodilation
Difficulty breathing |
|
|
Term
| What sensitivity does latex allergy fall into? |
|
Definition
1 or 4
1 if they are allergic to latex
4 if they are allergic to the chemicals that are present in the gloves (rxn occuring 48-96 hours after exposure) |
|
|
Term
| What hormones are made by the anterior pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
| GH, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH, PRL |
|
|
Term
| What hormones are made by the posterior pituitary gland? |
|
Definition
| Arginine vasopressin, oxytocin |
|
|
Term
| Hypothalamus releases, Thyrotropin releasing hormone and acts on the AP to release what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypothalamus releases, Corticotropin-releasing hormone and it acts on the AP to release what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypothalamus releases, Gonadotropin releasing hormone and it acts on the AP to release what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypothalamus releases, Dopamine and acts on the AP to do what? |
|
Definition
| Inhibit release of prolactin |
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|
Term
| Hypothalamus releases, GHIH or somatostatin and it acts on the AP to do what? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits GH, TSH, and Prolactin |
|
|
Term
| Two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected together by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90% of the secretory product from the thyroid is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is more potent, T3 or T4? |
|
Definition
| T3 is 4x more potent than T4 |
|
|
Term
| TSH is increased in what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TSH is decreased in what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A large protein from when thyroxine is synthesized and cleaved |
|
|
Term
| Why would you order a thyroglobulin antibody test? |
|
Definition
| Monitoring a pt after thyroid carcinoma treatment |
|
|
Term
| What does the parathyroid hormone do? |
|
Definition
| Increases serum calcium; by increasing calcium absorption in the kidneys, decreasing phosphate and bicarbonate |
|
|
Term
What does the inner medulla of the adrenal gland secret? What does the out cortex secret? |
|
Definition
Catecholamines Steroids - outer cortex |
|
|
Term
| What does aldosterone do? |
|
Definition
Increases Na absorption and potassium elimination Induce osmotic retention of water |
|
|
Term
In the Islets of Langerhans what do the: Alpha cells do? Beta cells? Delta cells? F cells? |
|
Definition
Alpha: glucagon Beta: insulin and amylin Delta: somatostatin F cell: Pancreatic polypeptides |
|
|
Term
| What is the pituitary enclosed in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the melanocyte stimulating hormone produced from? |
|
Definition
| Pars intermedia of the pituitary glad |
|
|
Term
| What is required for thyroid hormone synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Iodide is oxidized by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increase in the size of the thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
| What portion of the adrenal gland produces epinephrine and norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the principle mineral corticoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major glucocorticoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the chief sex hormones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cortisol and adrenal androgens are controlled by what? |
|
Definition
| ACTH, which is produced from the AP |
|
|
Term
| The brain uses what as a sole source of fuel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the acini of the pancrease do? |
|
Definition
| Secretes digestive juices into the duodenum |
|
|
Term
| GLUT 4 is the insulin transporter for what? |
|
Definition
| Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue |
|
|
Term
| Glut 2 is the insulin transporter for what? |
|
Definition
| Glucose into beta cells and liver cells |
|
|
Term
| The upper sphincter (Pharyngoesophageal) does what? |
|
Definition
| Prevents air from getting into the stomach when breathing |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of the lower sphincter? |
|
Definition
| To prevent reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus |
|
|
Term
| What serves as the valve to control the rate of stomach emptying into the duodenum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the ileocecal valve do? |
|
Definition
| Prevents the return of feces from the cecum to the small intestines |
|
|
Term
| How often are the epithelial cells in the mucosal layer replaced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the myenteric (Auerbach) plexus? |
|
Definition
| concerned mainly with motility along the length of the gut. |
|
|
Term
| What is the myenteric (Auerbach) plexus? |
|
Definition
| concerned mainly with motility along the length of the gut. |
|
|
Term
| What is submucosal (Meissner) plexus? |
|
Definition
| controlling the function of each segment of the intestinal tract. |
|
|
Term
| The lower esophageal sphincter is innervated by what nerve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major site for food digestion and absorption? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a normal colonic transit time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve innervates the external sphincters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The stomach is the source of what 2 GI hormones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Produced by G cells, it stimulates gastric acid secretions |
|
|
Term
| The intestines secrete what hormones? |
|
Definition
cholecystokinin ncretin hormones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inhibits gastic acid secretion |
|
|
Term
| primary function of cholecystokinin (CCK), is what? |
|
Definition
| stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| meaning that they increase insulin release after an oral glucose load. |
|
|
Term
| What 2 hormones account for 90% of the incretin ef |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which salivary glands secrete only mucus-type secretions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What enzyme gives saliva its antimicrobial function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which enzymes in saliva help to begin to breakdown starches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parietal cells secrete what? |
|
Definition
Hydrochloric acid Intrinsic factor |
|
|
Term
| Intrinsic factor is necessary for what? |
|
Definition
| Absorption of vitamin B12 |
|
|
Term
| Chief cells secrete what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Immediately breaks into pepsin when it encounters gastic juices, and it breaksdown proteins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substances stimulate HCL secretion from the parietal cells? |
|
Definition
Acetycholine, secreted by vagal nerves Gastrin Histamine |
|
|
Term
| What inhibits acid secretions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main purpose of the large intestine? |
|
Definition
| Focuses mainly on water reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| What regulates the flow of bile into the duodenum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ammonia converted into and where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would intestinal production of urea be increased? |
|
Definition
After eating high protein meal GI bleed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Digestion of dietary fats and absorption of fats |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common presenting symptom in persons with cholestasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance gives bile its color? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are bilirubin levels for jaundice to occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one of the first structures to appear jaundice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the gall bladder? |
|
Definition
| To store and concentrate bile |
|
|
Term
| What GI hormone causes strong stimulus for gallbladder contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What GI hormone causes strong stimulus for gallbladder contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the neuronal factor that regulate acid secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the paracrine factor that regulates acid secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the endocrine factor that regulates acid secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do NSAIDs and ethonal make you more prone to stomach ulcers? |
|
Definition
| Because they inhibit prostaglandin formation. Prostaglandin directly inhibits gastic acid secretion from the parietal cells. Therefore, most stomach acid is secreted from the parietal cells |
|
|
Term
| Von Willebrand factor does what? |
|
Definition
Aggregates platelets Transports and prolongs the half life of factor 8 |
|
|