Term
| What is the neurotransmitter in cholinergic receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are muscarinic cholinergic receptors found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many subtypes are there of muscarinic cholinergic receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are nicotinic cholinergic receptors found? |
|
Definition
1. Skeletal muscle
2. CNS
3. Presynaptic ganglion (ANS) |
|
|
Term
| How many subtypes of nicotinic cholinergic receptors are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the extracellular nicotinic cholinergic receptor does Ach bind to? |
|
Definition
| Ach binds to the alpha subunits |
|
|
Term
| What are the three parts of the neuromuscular junction? |
|
Definition
1. Pre-synaptic membrane
2. Synaptic cleft
3. Post-synaptic membrane |
|
|
Term
| What increases surface area at the post-synaptic membrane? |
|
Definition
| The undulations of the post-synaptic membrane increases surface area |
|
|
Term
| What mineral is essential for release of Ach from the presynaptic terminal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
| Bound Ach at the post-synaptic terminal |
|
|
Term
| True/False - chemicals are not an important part of vesicle binding to the presynaptic membrane. |
|
Definition
| FALSE! There are many chemicals and all are needed to allow binding |
|
|
Term
| About how many vesicles are there to a presynaptic membrane? |
|
Definition
| Usually about 60 vesicles to a membrane |
|
|
Term
| What is the important enzyme that facilitates the reuptake of Ach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two enzymes is Ach broken down into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the end plate potential? |
|
Definition
| Depolarization of muscle membrane causes contraction |
|
|
Term
| What is the safety factor of the end plate potential? |
|
Definition
There are 15 to 40 million ACh receptor
There are 60 ACh vesicles
Each vesicle contains 10,000 ACh |
|
|
Term
| What is blocked in Nondepolarizing blockades of the endplate? |
|
Definition
| It is a postsynaptic blockade that prevents access of neurotransmitter to its receptor and thus prevents depolarization |
|
|
Term
| What type of things cause nondepolarizing blockades? |
|
Definition
1. Pharmacologic drugs
2. Disease
3. Toxins |
|
|
Term
| What happens in depolarizing blockade of endplate? |
|
Definition
| There is sustained depolarization of muscle membrane |
|
|
Term
| What happens in depolarizing blockades? |
|
Definition
| There is repetitive firing of the membrane, the membrane is unable to repolarize, this causes fibrillations and weakness |
|
|
Term
| What can be affected in neuromuscular junction disease at the pre-synaptic membrane? |
|
Definition
| Disease can either increase or decrease presynaptic ACh synthesis, release, or reuptake |
|
|
Term
| What can be affected in neuromuscular junction disease at the synaptic cleft? |
|
Definition
| Disease can alter [ACh] by altering removal |
|
|
Term
| What can be affected in neuromuscular junction disease at the post-synaptic membrane? |
|
Definition
| Disease can affect ACh interaction w/receptor organ |
|
|
Term
| What will you see with weakness at the neuromuscular junction? |
|
Definition
1. Episodic exercise intolerance
2. Weakness - stilted gait, varies in severity, usually more prominent in hind limbs vs. thoracic limbs (b/c longer pathway for neurotransmission)
3. +/- tremors
4. Normal muscle tone, flaccidity
5. Normal postural reactions
6. Normal, decrease to absent spinal reflexes
7. +/- cranial nerve signs (megaesophagus)
8. Normal sensation |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you see in Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
Muscle weakness
It is a postsynaptic disease |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
Congenital
Acquired - Immune |
|
|
Term
| What breeds is congenital Myasthenia Gravis seen in? |
|
Definition
1. Jack Russell terrier
2. Dachshund
3. Springer spaniel |
|
|
Term
| What is seen in congenital Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
| Low-density ACh Receptors |
|
|
Term
| What breeds is acquired Myasthenia Gravis seen in? |
|
Definition
1. Golden retriever
2. German shepherd
3. Labrador retriever
4. Newfoundland
5. Pure bred cats |
|
|
Term
| What is the signalment of acquired Myasthenia Gravis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False: acquired myasthenia gravis is immune caused. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the antibodies in immune-caused myasthenia gravis attack? |
|
Definition
| The antibodies are against the receptor - they attack the alpha subunit and bind there to prevent ACh from binding |
|
|
Term
| What two things occur in the immune-mediated disease of myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
1. Ab-mediated ACh receptor destruction
2. Complement mediated damage to endplate |
|
|
Term
| What is affected in the neuromuscular junction of myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
| The undulation of the post-synaptic membrane is greatly decreased |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of clinical signs of myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
1. Focal
2. Generalized
3. Acute Fulminating |
|
|
Term
| What is seen with focal clinical signs? |
|
Definition
1. Double vision/blurry vision
2. Dilated esophagus - megaesophagus
3. Cranial nerve signs
4. Pharyngeal/laryngeal weakness
26-43% of MG cases present this way |
|
|
Term
| What is seen with generalized clinical signs of MG? |
|
Definition
1. Appendicular muscle weakness, predominately pelvic limb weakness, some involve thoracic limb
2. Megaesophagus - in 75% of cases |
|
|
Term
| What is seen with Acute Fulminating clinical signs of MG? |
|
Definition
1. Patients are showing flaccid weakness
2. Can't support limbs
3. Lose ability to breathe
4. Severe appendicular muscle weakness
5. Cranial nerve involvement
6. Respiratory distress
7. Acute onset and rapid progression
B/c patients come in w/acute respiratory distress it can be mistaken for toxicity |
|
|
Term
| What four things causes morbidity in MG? |
|
Definition
1. Skeletal muscle weakness
2. Pharyngeal muscle weakness
3. Megaesophagus
4. Aspiration pneumonia
|
|
|
Term
| What three other acquired diagnoses are seen with MG? |
|
Definition
1. Thymoma (5% in dogs, 25% in cats)
2. Paraneoplastic disease
3. Hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for diagnosis of MG? |
|
Definition
Measure serum ACh receptor antibodies
Radioimmunoassay (>0.6 nmol/L in dogs; >0.3 nmol/L in cats) |
|
|
Term
| What is another test to diagnose MG? |
|
Definition
| The Edrophonium Challenge test |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an ultra-short-acting anticholinesterase agent. |
|
|
Term
| What does edrophonium do? |
|
Definition
| The drug enables more ACh molecules to be available and interact with the remaining ACh receptors. |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when a patient responds positively to IV injection of 0.1 to 0.2 mg/kg of edrophonium? |
|
Definition
| An obvious improvement in muscle strength shortly administration is considered a positive response and allows you to make the presumptive diagnosis of aquired MG |
|
|
Term
| What receptors are affected with edrophonium? |
|
Definition
| Both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors because anticholinesterase agents are non-specific |
|
|
Term
| What must an animal be pre-treated with if you want to avoid the muscarinic effects associated with edrophonium? |
|
Definition
| Pre-treat with IM or SC atropine (0.02-0.04 mg/kg) and you also should have it available for immediate IV administration to counteract undesirable muscarinic side effects? |
|
|
Term
| What is the acronym for muscarinic effects that can be associated with edrophonium and what does it stand for? |
|
Definition
DUMBELS
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation |
|
|
Term
| What is the first line therapy for MG treatment? |
|
Definition
Cholinesterase inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
| What are the two long-acting cholinesterase inhibitors used in MG treatment? |
|
Definition
1. Pyridostigmine (PO)
2. Neostigmine (IM) |
|
|
Term
| What are two other possible MG treatments? |
|
Definition
1. Immunomodulation
2. Thymectomy
Need to make sure that you have supportive care
|
|
|
Term
| What is the terminal half-life of Pyridostigmine Bromide? |
|
Definition
| T1/2 = 8.3 hours +/- 2.1 SD |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Pyridostigmine Bromide does not have high affinity for peripheral tissues. |
|
Definition
| FALSE! - does have high affinity for peripheral tissues |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Pyridostigmine bromide does easily cross BBB |
|
Definition
| FALSE - does not easily cross BBB |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosing range for dogs with pyridostigmine bromide? |
|
Definition
| 0.5 - 3.0 mg/kg PO q 12 hr, q 8 hr |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosing range for cats with pyridostigmine bromide? |
|
Definition
0.25 mg/kg/day
They are sensitive to anticholinesterase agents |
|
|
Term
| What is the dosing range for Neostigmine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False: You want to titrate the dose of pyridostigmine bromide to the patient. |
|
Definition
True - start with a low starting dose and dose to effect. Want to see a reduction of clinical signs with the fewest unacceptable side effects.
Also monitor for overdose and side effects |
|
|
Term
| What are the cholinesterase inhibitors side effects - for both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors? |
|
Definition
Muscarinic - Cholinergic crisis (DUMBELS)
Nicotinic - paradoxical muscle weakness (depolarizing neuromuscular junction blockade) |
|
|
Term
| What do you do to treat a myasthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis while treating MG with an anticholinesterase therapy? |
|
Definition
Myasthenic crisis - reduce dosage
Cholinergic crisis - reduce dosage and reduce frequency |
|
|
Term
| What drugs do you use in immunomodulation treatment of MG? |
|
Definition
| Corticosteroids - such as prednisone |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment plan for immunomodulation with MG? |
|
Definition
You want to SLOWLY titrate to immunosuppression
1. initiated 0.25 to 0.5 mg/kg q 24 hr (SID)
2. increase to 2.0 mg/kg SID/BID for immunosuppressive effects
3. After remission slow taper every 2 to 4 weeks to alternate day therapy |
|
|
Term
| How can you tell remission has been achieved in immunomodulation of MG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the six possible side effects with immunomodulation treatment of MG? |
|
Definition
1. Iatrogenic Cushings
2. Muscle weakness
3. Wasting
4. PU/PD
5. Polyphagia
6. Personality Changes |
|
|
Term
| What are four other immunosuppressants that can help to decrease the amount of prednisone needed? |
|
Definition
1. Azathioprine
2. Mycophenolate
3. Cyclosporine
4. Plasmapharesis |
|
|
Term
| Why do you not want to start immunomodulation therapy dose at immunosuppressive levels? |
|
Definition
| Could send the patient into a myasthenic crisis |
|
|
Term
| About how many cases of MG spontaneously go into remission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs are contraindicated for MG? |
|
Definition
Antibiotics - penicillin, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, tetracyclines, quinolones, and beta-blockers
Antiarrhythmics
Phenothiazines |
|
|
Term
| What is the prognosis of MG? |
|
Definition
Guarded in early stages
If there is a poor response to therapy w/in 2 weeks - 50% mortality
1 - year mortality 40%
|
|
|
Term
| What can help guide the course of therapy of MG? |
|
Definition
| Periodic testing of ACh receptor antibody titers |
|
|
Term
| What does organophosphate toxicity cause? |
|
Definition
Inhibits action of acetylcholinesterase (irreversible inhibition, "aging")
Depolarizing neuromuscular junction blockade |
|
|
Term
| What causes organophosphate toxicity? |
|
Definition
| Insecticides - organophosphate, carbamate (reversible) |
|
|
Term
| What are the muscarinic and nicotinic clinical signs of organophosphate toxicity? |
|
Definition
Muscarinic signs - hypersalivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, miosis, bronchoconstriction, increased GI motility, cyanosis and incontinence
Nicotinic signs - muscle weakness (usually generalized) - depolarizing NMJ blockage |
|
|
Term
| True/False - organophosphate toxicity leads to increased CNS sensitivity. |
|
Definition
| True - it crosses the BBB and you see hyperactivity, seizures, and anorexia |
|
|
Term
| How can you diagnose organophosphate toxicity? |
|
Definition
| Reduced cholinesterase activity (<50%) in blood is supportive of exposure in dogs. It is not a prognostic test in cats b/c feline blood is composed of pseudocholinesterase that is very sensitive to inhibition by organophosphate |
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways to treat organophosphate toxicity? |
|
Definition
1. Symptomatic therapy
2. Enzyme reactivators |
|
|
Term
| What is used in symptomatic treatment of organophosphate toxicity? |
|
Definition
Atropine (muscarinic cholinergic blocker)
Diphenhydramine (nicotinic cholinergic blocker) |
|
|
Term
| What is used in enzyme reactivators treatment of organophosphate toxicity and how does it work? |
|
Definition
2-PAM, pralidoxime chloride is used.
It acts specifically on the organophosphate-enzyme complex and freeing the enzyme from the organophosphate compound. Should not be used in carbamate toxicity. |
|
|
Term
| What species of ticks lead to tick paralysis in the US? |
|
Definition
1. Dermacentor andersoni
2. Ambylomma americanum
3. Dermacentor variabilis
|
|
|
Term
| What species of tick leads to tick paralysis in Australia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Blockade of ACh release from the presynaptic membrane of the NMJ. |
|
|
Term
| About how long does it take to develop tick paralysis? |
|
Definition
| Develops within 7 to 9 days and then have a rapid progressive flaccid paralysis |
|
|
Term
| What causes death in tick paralysis? |
|
Definition
| Death is by respiratory paralysis |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Cranial nerve involvement in tick paralysis is common. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the diagnosis and treatment of tick paralysis? |
|
Definition
Diagnosis - diagnosed by rapid improvement after tick removal
Treatment - removal of ticks making sure to remove the head as the toxin is secreted from the salivary gland; should also be treated with an ectoparasiticide therapy
Prognosis is good |
|
|
Term
| What is involved in botulism? |
|
Definition
Causative agent - Clostridium botulinum
Botulinum toxin C and D
|
|
|
Term
| How does one aquire botulism and when do clinical signs show up? |
|
Definition
Toxin is absorbed from the GI tract
Clinical signs show up w/in 12 hours to 6 days |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of botulism? |
|
Definition
| Toxin prevents the presynaptic release of ACh at NMJ and autonomic synapses |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical signs of botulism? |
|
Definition
Progressive, symmetric, generalized lower motor neuron disease.
Severity varies w/amount of toxin ingested - range from mild generalized weakness to tetraplegia w/respiratory failure.
Cranial and Spinal nerves are affected |
|
|
Term
| What chemical is affected in botulism that helps ACh bind to the presynaptic terminal? |
|
Definition
| Syntaxin is prevented which stops binding of ACh to the presynaptic terminal |
|
|
Term
| What are the cranial nerve clinical signs associated with botulism? |
|
Definition
1. Facial nerve paralysis
2. Megaesophagus
3. Decreased gag reflex
4. Decreased jaw tone |
|
|
Term
| What are the autonomic clinical signs associated with botulism? |
|
Definition
1. Heart rate variation
2. Mydriasis
3. Urinary retention |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for botulism? |
|
Definition
Mainly supportive care - make sure to prevent aspiration pneumonia; monitor bladder
Antitoxin for Type C1 is made, but hard to obtain and is only effective if given before binding to NMJ which is not usually possible
Antibiotics are usually contraindicated |
|
|
Term
| What affects the synaptic cleft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two things affect the presynaptic terminal? |
|
Definition
1. Tick paralysis
2. Botulism |
|
|
Term
| What affects the post-synaptic membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the US color coding & packaging standards of ocular drugs what does it mean when the it is red? |
|
Definition
The drug is a mydriatics/cycloplegics drug
Don't want to put in your own eyes! (wash hands after using)
Dispensed in uveitis |
|
|
Term
| What does green mean in ocular drug color coding & packaging standards of the US? |
|
Definition
| The drug is a miotics drug |
|
|
Term
| What does orange mean according to the color coding & packaging standards of US ocular drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when a drug is yellow/blue in ocular drugs in color coding & packaging standards in the US? |
|
Definition
| The drug is a beta blockers drug |
|
|
Term
| What does the color grey mean in color coding & packaging standards of ocular drugs in the US? |
|
Definition
| The drug is an NSAIDs drug |
|
|
Term
| What does mydriatic mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the orbit? |
|
Definition
1. Cranial nerve III - oculomotor nerve
2. Cranial nerve VII - facial nerve |
|
|
Term
| Where does the oculomotor nerve synapse? |
|
Definition
| Synapses in ciliary ganglion |
|
|
Term
| Where does the facial nerve synapse? |
|
Definition
| Synapses in pterygopalatine ganglion |
|
|
Term
| What three things occur after synapses in the ciliary ganglion? |
|
Definition
1. Iris sphincter muscle contracts --> miosis (this opens the ciliary cleft which reduces IOP)
2. Ciliary muscle --> accomodation
3. Uveal vascular smooth muscle --> vasodilation |
|
|
Term
| What happens after the synapse at the pterygopalatine ganglion? |
|
Definition
| Lacrimal glands --> lacrimation |
|
|
Term
| What is the sympathetic innervation to the orbit? |
|
Definition
Preganglionic fibers - T1-T3(or T4) to sympathetic trunk
Autonomic ganglion - cranial cervical ganglion
Postganglionic fibers - distributed to orbital structures via branches of CN V |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of sympathetic innervation to the orbit? |
|
Definition
Iris dilator muscle constricts --> mydriasis
Trabecular meshwork and the ciliary body epithelium help to reduce IOP
Uveal vascular smooth muscle --> vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| For cholinergic pharmacology of the eye what type of cholinergic antagonists are used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of parasympatholytics are used in cholinergic antagonists of ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
Direct acting - reversible, competitive muscarinic antagonists
Atropine
Tropicamide |
|
|
Term
| What are the two indications to use parasympatholytics as cholinergic antagonists in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Treat uveitis
2. Diagnostic mydriasis |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of cholinergic antagonists and what does this cause in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
Block muscarinic receptors on post-synaptic terminal of neuroeffector junction
Causes mydriasis and cycloplegia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Paralysis of the ciliary muscle in the eye; paralysis in accomodation
Usually accompanied by dilation of the pupil |
|
|
Term
| What are mydriatic/cycloplegic agents used for? |
|
Definition
| For the treatment of uveitis |
|
|
Term
| What do mydriatic/cycloplegic agents do? |
|
Definition
1. Eliminates ciliary spasm and decreases pain
2. Dilates pupil and prevents synechia (pupil getting stuck where we don't want it to get stuck)
3. Stabilizes blood aqueous barrier (anti-inflammatory effect)
|
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications of mydriatic/cycloplegic agents? |
|
Definition
1. Ocular hypertension/glaucoma
2. Decreased tear production |
|
|
Term
| What are the cholinergic agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of parasympathomimetics and the drugs used in each category of cholinergic agonists of ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
Direct-acting parasympathomimetics - pilocarpine, carbachol, and acetylcholine
Indirect-acting parasympathomimetics - organophosphates (echothiophate), carbamates (demecarium bromide) |
|
|
Term
| What do direct acting parasympathomimetics do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do indirect-acting parasympathomimetics do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the mechanisms/effects of cholinergic agonists on ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Induce miosis
2. Increase aqueous outflow
3. Stimulate lacrimation
4. Enhance uveitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for treating with cholinergic agonists in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
| Treatment for glaucoma and dry eye |
|
|
Term
| What are alpha and beta adrenergic receptor agonists in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Epinephrine
2. Dipivefrin |
|
|
Term
| What are alpha adrenergic receptor agonists used in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Phenylephrine (mixed alpha receptor agonist)
2. Apraclonidine (alpha-2 agonist)
3. Brimonidine (alpha-2 agonist) |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications/effects of adrenergic receptor agonists in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Vasoconstriction (want to constrict pupil to open up the drain and reduce IOP)
2. Hemostasis
3. Reduce IOP
4. Mydriasis w/o cycloplegia (iris dilator muscle not ciliary muscle is affected)
5. Diagnosis and treatment of autonomic disorders |
|
|
Term
| What is Horner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic denervation to the eye |
|
|
Term
| What are the four classic signals of sympathetic denervation to the eye? |
|
Definition
1. Ptosis - Muller's muscle (droopy upper eyelid)
2. Miosis - Iris dilator muscle
3. Enopthalmos - Orbitalis muscle
4. Elevation of the third eyelid - Passive, due to enophthalmos |
|
|
Term
| True/False: the localization of the lesion in Horner's syndrome can be in the central neuron, preganglionic neuron, or postganglionic neuron. |
|
Definition
| True - usually pre- or post-ganglionic |
|
|
Term
| What do we do when we create miosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where can adrenergic receptros be found in the eye? |
|
Definition
1. Muller's muscle (eyelid)
2. Iris dilator muscle
3. Trabecular meshwork
4. Ciliary epithelium
5. Uveal vascular smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| What is denervation hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
In the post ganglionic neuron if something is wrong with it, what happens is that the iris is wanting epinephrine so it upregulates the number of receptors looking for epinephrine. If you give it enough time to upregulate (think it's about 10 days) and you expose it to epinephrine or a similar drug it is going to respond quicker than the other eye.
Resolution of clinical signs if post-ganglionic lesion |
|
|
Term
| What it is the test for Horner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
Denervation hypersensitivity
Take dilute phenylephrine (0.1 - 1%) which is an adrenergic agonist
It's diluted to the [] that has no effect on normal eye
Give one drop to each eye so that what you give is equal amounts
Check every five minutes
W/in 15-20 minutes if it is a post-ganglionic lesion - affected eye will be widely dilated and third eyelid will be down |
|
|
Term
| What are the adrenergic receptor antagonists used in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
Beta-blockers!
Beta-1 & beta-2 non-selective: timolol, metipranolol, carteolol, levobunolol
Beta-1 selective: betaxolol |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications/effects of adrenergic receptor antagonists in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
| Decrease aqueous humor production --> reduce IOP |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Fluid production w/in the eye = tears. |
|
Definition
| FALSE! - fluid production w/in the eyedoes not equal tear production which is fluid production outside the eye |
|
|
Term
| What do you want aqueous production to equal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A problem in the drain - decreased aqueous outflow or obstruction |
|
|
Term
| What is aqueous humor produced by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is aqueous humor important? |
|
Definition
| Main component of intraocular pressure |
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways that aqueous humor leaves the eye? |
|
Definition
1. Conventional route - iridocorneal angle
2. Unconventional route - uveoscleral outflow |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway for conventional outflow of aqueous humor? |
|
Definition
1. Ciliary body epithelium
2. Posterior chamber
3. Anterior chamber
4. Iridocorneal angle
5. Uveal trabeculae meshwork
6. Angular aqueous plexus
7. Out the Scleral venous plexus |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Percentage of drainage via unconventional outflow of aqueous humor varies by species. |
|
Definition
TRUE!
Cats - 3%
Dogs - 15%
Horses - >15% |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway for unconventional outflow of aqueous humor? |
|
Definition
1. Aqueous humor percolates thru the ciliary muscle
2. To suprachoroidal space, through sclera
3. To extraorbital tissue/fat
4. To orbital lymphatics |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the leading causes of blindness in patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the goal in treatment of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| To decrease intraocular pressure |
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways we can decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Decrease production of aqueous humor
2. Increase outflow of aqueous humor |
|
|
Term
| What are the two broad categories of drugs used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Autonomic agents
2. Non-autonomic agents |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of autonomic agents used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Cholinergic agonists
2. Adrenergic agonists
3. Adrenergic antagonists |
|
|
Term
| What cholinergic agonists are used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Pilocarpine
2. Demecarium
3. Echothiopate |
|
|
Term
| What are the adrenergic agonists used in treatment of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Dipivefrin
2. Apraclonidine
3. Brimonidine |
|
|
Term
| What adrenergic antagonists are used in treatment of glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three non-autonomic agents used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Osmotic diuretics
2. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
3. Prostaglandins |
|
|
Term
| What are the osmotic diuretics used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
1. Methazolamide
2. Dorzolamide |
|
|
Term
| What prostaglandin is used to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs decrease aqueous production? |
|
Definition
1. Osmotics
2. CAIs
3. Beta-blockers
4. Adrenergic agonists |
|
|
Term
| What drugs increase aqueous outflow? |
|
Definition
1. Cholinergic agonists
2. Prostaglandins
3. Adrenergic agonists |
|
|
Term
| How do cholinergic agonists work to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
Cause miosis
Increase aqueous outflow by conventional outflow |
|
|
Term
| How do beta-adrenergic antagonists work to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| Decrease aqueous production |
|
|
Term
| How do adrenergic agonists work to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
Decrease aqueous production
Increase aqueous outflow by conventional outflow |
|
|
Term
| What are the three ways of aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
1. Active secretion (70%)
2. Ultrafiltration
3. Diffusion |
|
|
Term
| What is active secretion of aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
| Requires energy and enzymes to move solutes against a concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
| What is ultrafiltration of aqueous humor production driven by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is diffusion of aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
| Passive movement of solutes down a concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
| What agents will help to counteract diffusion of aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agents will help to counteract ultrafiltration of aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
1. Adrenergic agonists - vasoconstriction
2. Osmotic agents |
|
|
Term
| What agents will help to counteract active secretion of aqueous humor production? |
|
Definition
1. Alpha-2 agonists
2. Beta-blockers
3. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What are the two osmotic diuretic hypotensive agents used in vet med and what is their method of ingestion? |
|
Definition
1. Mannitol - intravenous
2. Glycerin - oral |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Mannitol and Glycerin are hyperosmotic agents. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are osmotic diuretics used for, and what is their method of action? |
|
Definition
1. Short term use for emergency reduction of intraocular pressure
2. Causes rapid increase in serum osmolarity, dehydration of vitreous, and decreases aqueous humor production |
|
|
Term
| True/False - Hypotensive agents are used more and more in vet med. |
|
Definition
| FALSE! - used less and less in vet med |
|
|
Term
| What are some problems associated with glycerin in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. May induce nausea and vomiting
2. Metabolized to sugars --> hyperglycemia and glucosuria |
|
|
Term
| What is glycerin contraindicated for? |
|
Definition
1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Cardiac disease - can precipitate pulmonary edema
3. Severe renal disease
4. Dehydration |
|
|
Term
| What are the limitations of mannitol? |
|
Definition
1. Must be warmed to dissolve crystals
2. Filter in IV line
3. NPO for 4 hours |
|
|
Term
| What are the positives for mannitol use? |
|
Definition
Not metabolized, excreted in urine
Can be administered to diabetics |
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications of mannitol use in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Cardiac disease
2. Severe renal disease
3. Dehydration |
|
|
Term
| What is another class of hypotensive agent? |
|
Definition
| Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors (also diuretics) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Topical - Dorzolamide
Oral - Methazolamide, Acetozolamide |
|
|
Term
| What is Carbonic Anhydrase and where is it made? |
|
Definition
An enzyme that is made in non-pigmented ciliary body epithelium
Enzyme catalyzes this reaction: CO2 + H2O --> HCO3- + H+
Aids in the formation of aqueous humor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decrease aqueous humor production |
|
|
Term
| What are the CAI side effects? |
|
Definition
Oral medication:
CA is present in other places other than eye like:
Renal PCT epithelium - diuresis, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, compensatory respiratory alkalosis
GI - anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea
Higher prevalence of side effects w/acetozolamide than methazolamide
Topical medication:
Rare
(dorzolamide) |
|
|
Term
| What prostaglandin is used in vet med for ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
Latanaprost
A PGF2alpha analogue |
|
|
Term
| What is the way that latanaprost works? |
|
Definition
Increases unconventional (uveoscleral) outflow of aqueous humor
Think there may also be an effect on conventional as well
Also causes intense miosis in the dog and cat |
|
|
Term
| What drug does Dr. G recommend just having in your clinic for glaucoma treatment? |
|
Definition
Latanaprost!
Says it is essentially replacing mannitol
And now is in a generic form so it isn't as expensive |
|
|
Term
| When I say aqueous fluid production, what am I talking about? |
|
Definition
TEARS!!!!!!!
not aqueous humor (very important to not mix these up) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three components of the precorneal tear film and where do they come from? |
|
Definition
1. Lipid - Meibomian glands
2. Aqueous - Lacrimal glands (Gland of 3rd eyelid, Lacrimal gland)
3. Mucin - Conjunctival goblet cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the term for dry eye? |
|
Definition
| Keratoconjunctivitis sicca |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of treatment for dry eye? |
|
Definition
1. Lacrostimulants (trying to make more tears)
2. Lacrimomimetics (tear substitutes) |
|
|
Term
| What are some lacrostimulants used in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Cholinergic agents
2. Immunosuppressive agents like cyclosporine A |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of lacrimomimetics used in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Aqueous replacement
2. Mucinomimetics
3. Lipid replacement |
|
|
Term
| If a dog presents with a super dry eye, and an ipsilateral super dry nostril what does it most likely have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of dry eye in dogs? |
|
Definition
| Autoimmune - immune system attacks lacrimal gland |
|
|
Term
| What does pilocarpine do and how do you know when you've given too much of it? |
|
Definition
1. Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands
Topical solution is given orally
2. See a systemic increase in parasympathetic activity - know we've given too much and have to back down a dose when the dog starts vomiting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A drug given to transplant patients - noticed that it made women who were on it didn't have dry eyes
ONE OF THE FEW DRUGS APPROVED FOR USE IN VET MED BEFORE GOING TO PHYSICIANS |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Cyclosporine A? |
|
Definition
Inhibits T cell activation, thereby decreasing inflammation w/in the lacrimal gland - decreases IL-2 release and IL-2 receptor expression
Stimulates tear production
Non-inhibitory to corneal healing so can use w/ulcer
Vacillates btwn commercially available and not available - usually compound it if it is available |
|
|
Term
| What is a new immunomodulating drug in ocular pharmacology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four principles of drug therapy of CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Define therapeutic goals
2. Select appropriate drug
3. Monitor progress towards goal
4. Know potential adverse effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Abnormal electrical activity in the brain (on EEG) with one or more of the following:
1. Loss or deranged consciousness
2. Altered tone & movement
3. Autonomic disturbances
4. Abormal behavior (sensation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Repeated seizures over time |
|
|
Term
| What is status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways seizures are caused? |
|
Definition
1. Altered resting membrane potential
2. Altered balance of excitation and inhibition |
|
|
Term
| What are the four mechanisms of action of anticonvulsant drugs? |
|
Definition
1. Enhance inhibition thru the GABA-chloride ion channel complex
2. Pre-synaptic mechanism
3. Topiramate
4. Decrease action potential generation thru the sodium channels |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action used by most traditional anticonvulsants? |
|
Definition
| Enhance inhibition thru the GABA-chloride ion channel complex |
|
|
Term
| What four drugs enhance inhibition thru the GABA-chloride ion channel complex? |
|
Definition
1. Pregabalin (Lyrica)
2. Bromide
3. Benzodiazepines
4. Barbiturates |
|
|
Term
| What is Pregabalin (lyrica)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does bromide work to enhance inhibition thru the GABA-chloride ion channel complex? |
|
Definition
Displaces chloride and diffuses thru channel more readily. Thus more inhibition per channel opening
Used as a potassium salt orally |
|
|
Term
| How doe benzodiazepines work to enhance inhibition thru GABA-chloride ion channel complex? |
|
Definition
Affect GABA binding and channel kinetics
1. Diazepam used primarily in status epilepticus
2. Clonzepam or clorazepate occasionally used as short-term anticonvulsant |
|
|
Term
| How do barbiturates work to enhance inhibition thru the GABA-chloride ion channel complex? |
|
Definition
Affect channel kinetics
1. Phenobarbital used intravenously to treat status epilepticus and used orally as maintenance anticonvulsant
2. Pentobarbital occasionally used intravenously for treating status epilepticus
3. Primidone - metabolized to phenobarbital but more hepatotoxic, only drug approved for use in epilepsy in dogs |
|
|
Term
| What drug(s) use the pre-synaptic mechanism of action in anticonvulsant drugs and how does it work? |
|
Definition
1. Levetiracetam (Keppra) - newer anticonvulsant available as a generic
Very low toxicity
2. Mechanism not clear but appears to alter neurotransmission thru an effect on presynaptic vesicle binding
May decrease excitation thru excitatory AA neurotransmitters and calcium channels |
|
|
Term
| What is topiramate and how does it work? |
|
Definition
1. Type of mechanism of action of anticonvulsant drugs
Short serum terminal half-life but may have longer brain levels
2. Multiple mechanisms - sodium channel inactivation, GABA prolongation, Glutamate antagonism (AMPA receptor) |
|
|
Term
| What drugs decrease action potential generation thru the sodium channels in CNS pharmacology and how do they work? |
|
Definition
1. Phenytoin & carbamazepine (also valproate) - limits high frequency opening of sodium channels at axon hillock by enhancing channel inactivation, commonly used in ppl but half-life is too short in dogs
2. Zonisamide - new drug that is seeing increased use in dogs, reduces calcium currents and increases sodium channel inactivation |
|
|
Term
| What is the oldest antiepileptic drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some actions of Diazepam (valium)? |
|
Definition
1. Anti-anxiety
2. Anticonvulsant
3. Muscle relaxant
4. Appetite stimulant
|
|
|
Term
| What are the four pharmacologic considerations of CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Route of administration
2. Delivery to target tissue
3. Half-life
4. Core principles of therapy |
|
|
Term
| What are the differences in route of administration in CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Oral - easy to give, but slower to action. Bioavailability may be a concern for some drugs
2. Intravenous - rapid action, but difficult to give, more likely to have side effects
3. Per rectum (intranasal, transdermal) - can get rapid blood levels w/o having to give IV if highly lipid soluble |
|
|
Term
| What is the importance of half-life in CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Important in maintaining therapeutic levels
2. Influences time needed to reach steady state blood levels - loading dose can achieve rapid levels, but more risk of side effect |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal for treatment of status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
| Stop seizures quickly b4 permanent brain damage or death |
|
|
Term
| What are the four problems with drug delivery to the CNS in status epilepticus treatment? |
|
Definition
1. The BBB: tight junctions and lack of fenestration in endothelial cells inhibit diffusion of most substances into brain. High lipid solubility necessary to adequately cross
2. Blood supply: brain receives a relatively high proportion of total blood flow due to its high metabolic demand
3. Intravenous bolus will lead to high blood levels initially
4. Highly lipid soluble drugs given IV will reach high brain concentrations due to the high blood levels, high blood flow and large lipid pool (the brain). However, they cross back into the bloodstream just as quickly and will then get redistributed into the body fat. Thus the effective half-life following an IV bolus is much shorter than the elimination half-life. With repeated doses body fat gets saturated and equilibrium established |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three reasons that diazepam is the drug of choice for status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
1. High lipid solubility - very rapid action, but short effective half-life due to redistribution; can be given per rectum if necessary
2. Good safety margin - sedation (rare paradoxical excitation/aggression); hypotension; propylene glycol/alcohol base can cause arrhythmia
3. High efficacy |
|
|
Term
| What is given if diazepam doesn't work to treat status epilepticus and what are the differences btwn them? |
|
Definition
IV phenobarbital or pentobarbital
1. shower to equilibrate across BBB
2. Narrow margin of safety; may end up having to intubate and support
3. Longer half-life |
|
|
Term
| What are the six therapeutic goals of long term treatment of epilepsy? |
|
Definition
1. Reduce frequency of seizures by at least 50%
2. Reduce severity of seizures
3. Prevent cluster seizures
4. Reduce postictal behavior changes
5. Ensure client compliance
6. Minimize side effects |
|
|
Term
| What is the therapeutic range of drugs? |
|
Definition
| Range of blood levels of drug that usually works (efficacious) in most cases |
|
|
Term
| What is the loading dose (in CNS pharmacology)? |
|
Definition
| Blood level desired x volume distribution |
|
|
Term
| What are some problems that can be associated with metabolism in CNS drugs? |
|
Definition
1. For some drugs, the metabolite is more active than the parent compound.
2. Some can have different metabolism in different species
3. Lipid solubility = non-polar = hepatic metabolism necessary for excretion for many drugs
4. If hepatic problems exists, need a drug that is not metabolized by the liver or toxic to it |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Some anticonvulsants have half-lifes too short to be useful in dogs, and some have very long half-lifes which create worries about toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are four things that can cause anticonvulsants to lose efficacy over time? |
|
Definition
1. Tolerance (benzodiazepines for chronic epilespy in dogs)
2. Enzyme induction - (phenobarbital)
3. Liver failure
4. Cimetidine inhibits P450 enzymes |
|
|
Term
| Do you want to do therapeutic drug monitoring of anticonvulsant drugs? |
|
Definition
| Yes - want to make sure that levels not too low or high |
|
|
Term
| What are the drugs most commonly used in CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Phenobarbital - Dr. O'Brien's drug of choice b/c inexpensive, effective in 70% of epileptics, side effects not too bad
2. Bromide - add on if phenobarbital is ineffective. Can use as sole anticonvulsant esp. if hepatic disease is present
3. Diazepam used per rectum in cases which tend to have clusters of seizures. Not used much for chronic maintainence since develop tolerance |
|
|
Term
| What are the four main side effects of anticonvulsants? |
|
Definition
1. CNS effects
2. Hepatoxicity
3. Possible pancreatitis w/bromide
4. Allergic reactions |
|
|
Term
| What are the CNS side effects for anticonvulsants? |
|
Definition
1. Sedation, ataxia
2. Rarelly excitability, irritability (disinhibition)
3. Usually develop tolerance to these after a few days unles levels are too high
4. Polyphagia, polydipsia (secondary polyuria)
5. Most are addictive and sudden withdrawal can precipitate seizures in normal animals
6. The side effects are usually dose dependent |
|
|
Term
| What area of the brain controls motivation, attention and arousal? |
|
Definition
Reticular activating system - pons, midbrain & diencephalon
Oversimplification of action - projects to cortex & regulates consciousness |
|
|
Term
| What are the major neurotransmitters of the RAS? |
|
Definition
Catecholamines:
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin (5-HT) |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal action of tranquiler drugs? |
|
Definition
1. Abolish or enhance specific behaviors
2. Tranquilization w/o excess lethargy
3. Sedation w/o side effects
4. +/- analgesia
5. +/- amnesia |
|
|
Term
| True/False: ideal tranquilizer drugs already exist. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are neuroleptics and how do they act? |
|
Definition
1. Major tranzuilizers
2. Act by blocking catecholamine receptors (antagonists) |
|
|
Term
| What do phenothiazines neuroleptics do and what are some examples? |
|
Definition
1. Block multiple receptor types
2. Acepromazine, chlorpromazine, azaparone |
|
|
Term
| What do buterophenones neuroleptics do and what are some examples? |
|
Definition
1. More selective for dopamine receptors
2. Droperidol, haloperidol |
|
|
Term
| True/False: neuroleptics don't have analgesic properties and are often used in conjunction with opiate for minor procedures and pre-anesthetics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of neuroleptics? |
|
Definition
1. Hypotension and other cardiovascular effects
2. Hypothermia
3. May lower seizure threshold. (want to avoid this w/epileptics)
4. Extrapyrimidal signs - tremors & weakness (rare) |
|
|
Term
| What does stimulating the alpha-2 receptor do? |
|
Definition
| Blocks norepinephrine release |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists are also neuroleptics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of alpha-2 adrenergic agonists in CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some side effects of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in CNS pharmacology? |
|
Definition
1. Often induces emesis
2. In addition to tranquilizer, also has analgesic properties
3. Cardiovascular side effects
4. Is reversible by alpha-2 antagonists |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of anxiolytics? |
|
Definition
1. Benzodiazepines
2. Buspirone |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about buspirone? |
|
Definition
| Antianxiety w/o the muscle relaxation, anticonvulsant & sedative effects of benzodiazepines |
|
|
Term
| What are some problems with anxiolytics? |
|
Definition
1. Slight risk of irritability & aggression (release from inhibition)
2. Rare acute hepatic necrosis reported in cats following diazepam |
|
|
Term
| What are two appetite stimulants? |
|
Definition
1. Benzodiazepines - very potent in cats
2. Cyproheptadine - histamine and serotonin antagonist |
|
|
Term
| What are some caveats with psychoactive drugs? |
|
Definition
1. Should always be used in conjunction w/behavior modification
2. Few are approved for use in animals
3. Most recommendations based on anecdotal reports; very little hard science
4. Effects could be unpredictable
5. Need to consider liability if human is injured |
|
|
Term
| What are antidepressants used for? |
|
Definition
| Compulsive behavior, separation anxiety, phobias, urine marking, aggression? |
|
|
Term
| What are two kinds of antidepressants? |
|
Definition
1. Tricyclics
2. Fluoxetine (prozac) |
|
|
Term
| What do tricyclics antidepressants do? |
|
Definition
1. Block catecholamine reuptake
2. Cardiovascular side effects
3. Clomipramine now approved for use in separation anxiety in dogs - needs to be combined w/behavior modification |
|
|
Term
| What do fluoxetine antidepressants do? |
|
Definition
1. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor
2. Approved for use in dogs
3. Aggression and urine marking |
|
|
Term
| What drug has been promoted for treating senility and how does it work? |
|
Definition
1. L-deprenyl (selegiline)
2. Inhibits monoamine oxidase B, thus increasing catecholamines |
|
|
Term
| What are appetite stimulants used for and what are some problems associated with specific stimulants? |
|
Definition
1. Used especially in cats to prevent hepatic lipidosis
2. Diazepam - worry about precipitating acute hepatic necrosis (rare)
Cyproheptadine - antihistamine and serotonin antagonist |
|
|
Term
| What are the five functions of the kidneys? |
|
Definition
1. Regulation of water and inorganic-ion balance
2. Removal of metabolic waste products from the blood (urea, uric acid, and creatinine)
3. Removal of foreign chemicals from the blood and their excretion in the urine
4. Gluconeogenesis (during prolonged fasting)
5. Secretion of hormones - erythropoietin (controls erythrocyte production); renin (enzyme) (controls formation of angiotensin, which influences blood pressure and sodium balance); 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3 (influences calcium balance)
Those in bold are affected by diuretics - number 1 is most important |
|
|
Term
| What cells make up the Juxtaglomerular apparatus? |
|
Definition
1. Macula densa: specialized cells sense Na+ load
2. Juxtaglomerular cells: secrete renin (modulated by sympathetic nervous system) |
|
|
Term
| What is the major process affected by diuretics? |
|
Definition
| Reabsorption! by diffusion or mediated transport |
|
|
Term
| What is excreted = filtered (what things)? |
|
Definition
Inulin or creatinine
~ GFR |
|
|
Term
| If a thing is excreted < filtered what is happening? |
|
Definition
| It is partially reabsorbed (conserved) |
|
|
Term
| If something is filtered but not excreted what is it? |
|
Definition
Completely reabsorbed like many nutrients
Specifically glucose |
|
|
Term
| If something is excreted >> filtered what is it? |
|
Definition
Filtered and secreted to the extent that all of it passes thru the kidney to the urine
Ex: PAH ~ renal blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What are the four principles for reabsorption of Na+ and water? |
|
Definition
1. Reabsorption of Na+ is by diffusion and/or mediated transport
2. Water reabsorption is by diffusion - dependent on Na+ reabsorption (in general)
3. Reabsorption of water and ions is regulated. (nutrient reabsorption is not regulated)
4. Reabsorption of Na+ is an active process occurring in all tubular segments except descending limb of loop of Henle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Increase the volume of urine (also can change composition of urine)
Predominant effect: Na+ and H2O reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| What does the glomerulus do? |
|
Definition
| Formation of an ultrafiltrate of plasma (free of cells & protein) |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary role of the proximal tubule? |
|
Definition
| Reabsorption of filtered water & solutes |
|
|
Term
| What are two important functions of the proximal tubule? |
|
Definition
1. Active Na+ transport (major site for it)
2. Major site for solute secretion (EXCEPT for K+) |
|
|
Term
| How is Na+ reabsorbed at the tubular lumen? |
|
Definition
1. Carbonic acid is formed by enzyme, carbonic anhydrase
2. Bicarbonate is reabsorbed
3. H+ is secreted into tubular lumen in exchange for Na+
4. Electrogenic Na+/K+ ATPase maintains low intracellular Na+ |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the loop of Henle? |
|
Definition
| Reabsorbed major ions (to a lesser extent also reabsorbs water) |
|
|
Term
| What is important about the Loop of Henle? |
|
Definition
Creates a hyperosmotic interstial fluid: countercurrent multiplier system
Have a hyperosmotic medullary interstitium |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the descending thin limb of the Loop of Henle? |
|
Definition
Highly permeable to H2O (diffuses out - down the conc. gradient)
NO NA+ REABSORPTION
Increased solute conc. in lumen |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the ascending thin limb of the Loop of Henle? |
|
Definition
IMPERMEABLE TO H2O!
Na+ diffuses out - down the conc. gradient |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle? |
|
Definition
IMPERMEABLE TO H20 & UREA
Active Na+ transport (Na+K+/2Cl- symport) - reabsorbs 25% filtered Na+
Lumenal fluid - becomes dilute |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the late distal tubule & cortical collecting duct? |
|
Definition
K+ secretion & hormonal regulation
Active Na+ reabsorption in exchange for K+
Aldosterone promotes Na+, K+ exchange
K+ gets into the urine and you lose K+ |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the cortical collecting duct? |
|
Definition
| Lumenal membrane has K+ channel - unique to this part of the renal tubule so that K+ that enters cells is secreted into tubular fluid |
|
|
Term
| What type of system is the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the macula densa cells sense and what does this cause? |
|
Definition
1. Sense decreased Na+ load
2. Makes JG cells secrete renin |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of increasing renin? |
|
Definition
| Increased renin --> increased Angiotensin --> increased aldosterone --> increased Na+ reabsorption --> decreased Na+ excretion |
|
|
Term
| What does aldosterone do? |
|
Definition
Also controlled by K+
Increased K+ in extracellular fluid of adrenal cortex leads to
Increased aldosterone secretion
Causes:
Increased K+ excretion by kidney instead of saving Na+ |
|
|
Term
| What is important about the medullary collecting duct? |
|
Definition
Major site for hormonal control of Na+ and H2O reabsorption
Vasopression (ADH) is required for H2O reabsorption
Some H+ excretion - carbonic anhydrase dependent |
|
|
Term
| Where do osmotic diuretics work? |
|
Definition
| Proximal tubule & Descending loop of Henle |
|
|
Term
| What are the four characterastics that you want osmotic diuretics to have? |
|
Definition
1. Freely filtered
2. Limited reabsorption
3. Pharmacologically inert
4. Resistant to metabolism |
|
|
Term
| What is the site/mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Proximal tubule and loop of Henle: osmotic effect - hold water in tubular lumen
2. Reduced Na+ reabsorption - reduced medullary tonicity - reduced water reabsorption along loop of Henle |
|
|
Term
| What are the three effects of osmotic diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Initial expansion of intravascular fluid volume, increased renal blood flow - sometimes a good thing, but not usually
2. Increased excretion of urinary electrolytes - isosmotic water loss due to disturbance w/countercurrent balance
3. Maintain diuretic effect during hypovolemia or shock - trauma |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred osmotic diuretic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How should you give mannitol and what are the indications and contraindications of mannitol?
|
|
Definition
1. Poor GIT absorption - give parenterally
2. Indications - cerebral edema, glaucoma, prophylaxis of acute renal failure (questionable value if given after renal damage), promote excretion of certain toxins
3. Contraindications - congestive heart failure (especially w/pulmonary edema); anuric renal failure that does not respond to a test dose |
|
|
Term
| What are the site/mechanism of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors diuretics? |
|
Definition
Primarily proximal tubule (inhibits carbonic anhydrase - duh!)
Decrease H+ secretion, decreases Na+ and HCO3- reabsorption
Minor effects at collecting duct - more Na+ in lumenal fluid, more Na+ exchanged for K+ - increased K+ secretion |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
1. Increased excretion of HCO3-, Na+, K+ and water (transient)
2. Metabolic acidosis and decreased excretion of ammonia
3. Decreased production of aqueous humor (b/c dependent on CA) |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred CAI diuretic? |
|
Definition
| Methazolamide (neptazane) |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of using CAI diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Major use if for treatment of glaucoma (to lower IOP)
2. Can be used to produce alkaline urine (transient effect)
3. Also have been used for udder edema in cattle (extralabel use) |
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications for CAI diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Allergy to sulfonamides (these are related compounds)
2. History of renal or urinary calculi that form in alkaline urine
3. Presence of Na+ or K+ depletion
4. Presence of metabolic or respiratory acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the site/mechanism of action for loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
2. Inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl- symport (why used so much in vet med)
3. Inhibit paracellular diffusion of Na+, K+, Mg++, Ca++ (decreased electrical gradient)
4. Minor effect - some inhibition of Na+ and Cl- reabsorption in proximal and distal tubules
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Highly protein bound in plasma, but actively secreted by proximal tubule
2. Profound diuresis - most effective for edematous conditions - where the name "high ceiling diuretic" comes from |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of Loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Profound increase in Na+ excretion (up to 25% of filtered load) - also increase excretion of Cl-, H2O, K+, H+, Ca++, and Mg++ (most profound effects on Na+ and Ca++ excretion)
2. Mild systemic venodilator (acutely increase renal blood flow)
3. Bronchodilator in humans, horses and guinea pigs
4. Increased renin secretion (due to decreased plasma Na+)
5. Metabolic alkalosis - rarely clinically significant |
|
|
Term
| True/False: Improvement of a cough with furosemide means that the animal was in heart failure with pulmonary edema. |
|
Definition
| FALSE - does not necessarily mean this - but can be in DDx |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred loop diuretic and what is its pharmacokinetics? |
|
Definition
FUROSEMIDE
Onset of action - IV = 5 min; oral = 1 hr
Peak effect: IV = 30 min; oral = 1-2 hrs
Duration: IV ~ 2-3 hrs; oral 4-6 hrs
Oral absorption may be decreased in right heart failure
|
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Congestive heart failure: ascited, pleural effusion, & pulmonary edema (i.e. non-inflammatory edema)
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Prophylaxis for epistaxis (exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage, EIPH) in the equine
4. Udder edema (food animal withdrawal time = 48 hrs)
5. Cerebral edema (if haven't had significant blood loss; if you do have that use mannitol)
6. Only diuretic w/significant effect in patients w/impaired renal function |
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications/cautions with loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Anuria/progressive renal disease
2. Hypokalemia (b/c causes K loss)
3. Allergy to sulfonamides
4. Possible ototoxicity (ear loss) w/rapid IV administration (rare)
5. Ca++ wasting in cows may precipitate milk fever
6. Beware of profound dehydration (esp. if stops drinking - duh)
7. NSAIDS attenuate natriuretic effects of furosemide (might have to increase dose) |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for Thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
| Rescue diuretics - b/c not going to be first choice and not going to be used by themselves but can cause diuretic effect |
|
|
Term
| What is the site/mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Early distal tubule (BEFORE Na+/K+ exchange)
2. Inhibit Na+/Cl- symport
3. Also minor inhibition of CA in proximal tubule |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Secreted into proximal tubule
2. Decreased Na+ reabsorption and increased K+ secretion
(increased Na+ load in tubular fluid, promotes Na+/K+ exchange) |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Moderate diuresis - rarely used as first line diuretic
2. Increased excretion of Na+, Cl-, and K+
3. Decreased excretion of Ca++ |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred thiazide diuretic and its pharmacokinetics? |
|
Definition
HYDROCHLOROTHIAZIDE (HydroDiuril)
Onset of action (oral): 2 hrs for hydrochorothiazide
Peak effect at 4 hrs
Duration ~ 12 hrs |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Not first-line for mono-therapy
2. Refractory heart failure (resistance to furosemide) - rescue w/thiazide - canine (diuretic effect on own + restores diuresis to furosemide)
3. Ascites due to liver disease
4. Diabetes insipidus (paradoxically decreases urine flow)
5. Udder edema (extra-label use) |
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications/cautions with thiazide diurectics? |
|
Definition
1. Hypokalemia
2. Diabetes mellitus (due to diabetogenic effect)
3. Use w/caution in CHF (high aldosterone levels) - may already have K+ loss
4. If using as "rescue", decrease dose of furosemide by 50% (may need K+ replacement) |
|
|
Term
| What are the site and two mechanisms of action of K+ Sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
Site: late distal tubule and collecting duct
1. Antagonize aldosterone (spironolactone) - blocks active Na+/K+ exchange
2. Block sodium channels (triamterine) in tubular cells of the late distal tubule and collecting duct |
|
|
Term
| What are the characeristics of K+ sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
| Actively secreted by the renal tubules |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of K+ sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
1. Increased excretion of NaCl
2. Decreased excretion of K+, H+, Ca++ and Mg++ |
|
|
Term
| What are the pharmacokinets of spironolactone, a K+ sparing diuretic? |
|
Definition
1. Protein bound, but actively secreted by renal tubules
2. Gradual onset and offset of action: peak effect 2-3 days after therapy is started |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of spironolactone, a K+ sparing diuretic? |
|
Definition
1. Used in small animals - mainly cats & dogs
2. Refractory heart failure - used mainly in combination w/other diuretic agents (primarily furosemdie - small additional diuretic effect & decreases K+ excretion); spironolactone + ACE inhibitor - be aware of risk of hyperkalemia (both are K+ sparing) unless furosemide is also given
3. Ascites caused by RHF, hepatic disease, or nephrotic syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications/cautions with spironolactone, a K+ sparing diuretic? |
|
Definition
1. Hyperkalemia
2. Use caution administering w/other drugs that increase blood K+ (ACE inhibitors & NSAIDS)
3. Not advisable to combine w/ACE inhibitor, unless also giving furosemide
4. Induces hepatic microsomal enzymes (watch for drug interactions) |
|
|
Term
| List the properties of an ideal inhalation anesthetic. |
|
Definition
1. Stable w/o preservatives
2. Compatible w/existing equipment
3. Non-flammable
4. Easily vaporized under ambient conditions
5. Non-irritating to airways
6. Low blood solubility to allow rapid changes of anesthetic depth
7. Very potent
8. No cardiovascular depression
9. Compatible w/catecholamines and other vasoactive drugs
10. Produces good skeletal muscle relaxation
11. Resists degradation in the body
12. Inexpensive
13. Non-toxic |
|
|
Term
| What is the Meyer-Overton theory of the mechanism of action of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| Volatile anesthetics dissolve in cell membranes and cause a distortion which decreases conductance of Na thru the cell membrane |
|
|
Term
| What is the protein receptor hypothesis of the mechanism of action of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| Volatile anesthetics interact w/an as yet unidentified receptor in the CNS |
|
|
Term
| What is the alterations in neurotransmitter availability theory of the mechanism of action of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| Volatile anesthetics could interfere w/the formation, release, or breakdown of neurotransmitters in the CNS |
|
|
Term
| Which organic inhalant anesthetic is not an ether? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What inorganic inhalant anesthetic is used today? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference btwn a gas and a vapor? |
|
Definition
Gas = an agent that exists in its gaseous form at room temperature and sea level pressure
Vapor = the gaseous state of a substance that at room temperature and sea level pressure is a liquid |
|
|
Term
| Define saturated vapor pressure and why is the SVP of an anesthetic important? |
|
Definition
| SVP represents a maximum concentration of molecules in the vapor state that can exist for a given liquid at each temperature. The SVP is important b/c anesthetic vaporizers are made based on SVP of the agent. |
|
|
Term
| Which anesthetic has a boiling point near room temperature and why is that important? |
|
Definition
1. Desflurane
2. Important b/c a special vaporizer is needed in order to use it and it is very expensive |
|
|
Term
| Explain what a partition coefficient is and how it is clinically important when applied to inhalation anesthetics. |
|
Definition
The partition coefficient is the ratio of the concentration of anesthetics in 2 phases, such as blood and gas. It describes the affinity of an anesthetic for one solvent over another after equilibrium has been reached.
This is clinically important b/c this determines the solubility of an anesthetic |
|
|
Term
| When given the blood/gas partition coefficients for anesthetic agents be able to make comparisons about those agents based on the partition coefficients. |
|
Definition
| The blood/gas PC indicates the speed of anesthetic induction, recovery, and change of anesthetic depth. The larger the blood/gas PC is, the greater the solubility of the agent. An anesthetic agent w/a small blood/gas PC has a lower solubility, which allows more rapid changes to anesthetic depth than one w/a large blood/gas PC. |
|
|
Term
| Does the movement of inhalant anesthetic agents in the body occur due to concentration gradients or partial pressure gradients? |
|
Definition
| Partial pressure gradients |
|
|
Term
| How does increased solubility in the blood (larger blood/gas PC) affect anesthetic uptake from the alveoli? |
|
Definition
| Agent will be taken up in large amounts in the blood; b/c of their high solubility, a relatively large amount must be dissolved in blood b4 equilibrium is reached |
|
|
Term
| How does increased cardiac output affect anesthetic uptake from the alveoli? |
|
Definition
| Increases uptake in peripheral circulation, so there is a delay in the rise of the partial pressure of the anesthetic; blood flow to the brain is kept constant |
|
|
Term
| How does a decreased cardiac output affect how quickly an animal will go to sleep when being anesthetized w/an inhalant anesthetic? |
|
Definition
| With decreased CO, the partial pressure of the anesthetic in the brain increases faster (less is going out into the peripheral circulation) and the animal becomes unconscious faster |
|
|
Term
| Define minimum alveolar concentration (MAC). |
|
Definition
| MAC is the minimum alveolar concentration of an anesthetic that prevents gross purposeful movement in 50% of the subjects exposed to a noxious stimulus (similar to ED50); defined as the percentage of 1 atmosphere and represents an anesthetic partial pressure at the anesthetic site of action (Px = C/100 * Pbar) |
|
|
Term
| How can the MAC be useful clinically? |
|
Definition
| MAC is an indicator of potency (higher MAC value = less potent) of an agent and is useful in comparing different anesthetic agents against one another. It also allows you to quantify analgesic properties of other drugs (if there is an analgesic effect, it affects the MAC). |
|
|
Term
| Can the MAC of an anesthetic be affected by any factors? |
|
Definition
| Yes, it is affected by changes in body temperature, age, and pregnancy. For every 1 degree C drop in body temperature, the MAC drops 2-5%. Increasing age and pregnancy also decrease MAC. |
|
|
Term
| What are the differences in the cardiovascular effects of the ether anesthetics and halothane? |
|
Definition
| They can cause dose-dependent hypotension and dysrhythmias. All produce a dose-dependent decrease in CO due to a decrease in cardiac contractility, but halothane produces the most prominent effect. Vasodilation also occurs, which is more prominent w/the ether anesthetics. All inhalation anesthetics increase the automaticity of the myocardium, which may cause dysrythmias. Halothane tends to sensitize the heart to catecholamines. |
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic is the most metabolized?
1. Halothane
2. Methoxyflurane
3. Sevoflurane
4. Isoflurane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following anesthetics is metabolized the least?
1. Halothane
2. Methoxyflurane
3. Sevoflurane
4. Isoflurane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is compound A? How is it produced? Is it directly toxic? |
|
Definition
| Compound a is a vinyl ether that is produced from sevoflurane metabolism when it is exposed to the CO2 absorbents in the anesthetic machine. It is inhaled and absorbed and undergoes metabolism in the kidney. Compound A is not directly toxic; it is a metabolite of drug metabolism produced in the kidney, which is nephrotoxic. |
|
|
Term
| How do local anesthetics work? |
|
Definition
| Local anesthetics inhibit propagation (conduction) of nerve impulses by blocking sodium channels, which cause rapid depolarization by allowing rapid inward movement of Na. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe a differential blockade? |
|
Definition
| Differential blockade is when you block sensory fibers, but not motor fibers. Sympathetic and pain fiber nerves typically block first, and the last to block are motor fibers. However, the differential sensitivity of all nerve fibers is determined by fiber size, fiber type, nerve location, length of nerve exposed to local anesthetic, time for equilibration in tissue, and the agent used. |
|
|
Term
| In a basic environment are local anesthetics more ionized or non-ionized? Why? |
|
Definition
| In a basic environment, they are more non-ionized, b/c most tertiary amines are weak bases and they have a pK above physiological pH. More non-ionized drug means that more of the drug can interact w/the cell membrane and will have a faster onset and higher potency. |
|
|
Term
| What causes the local block to wear off after local anesthetic is injected near a nerve? |
|
Definition
| The drug is removed by systemic circulation. Most local anesthetics cause vasodilation, so they tend to speed their own diffusion away from the site. |
|
|
Term
| Why are epinephrines sometimes added to lidocaine? |
|
Definition
| To produce vasoconstriction to prolong the local anesthetic's effect. |
|
|
Term
| What topically applied local anesthetic can cause hemoglobin damage, especially in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the generic names of the 3 most commonly used local anesthetics in veterinary medicine? Which is the longest acting and which is the shortest acting? |
|
Definition
1. Lidocaine
2. Bupivicaine - longest
3. Procaine - shortest |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is most cardiotoxic?
1. Lidocaine
2. Bupivicaine
3. Procaine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the differences btwn local infiltration of local anesthetic and a peripheral nerve block. |
|
Definition
| Local infiltration is when you are blocking several nerve fibers in an area by injecting the local anesthetic into a general area. Usually the injection is made proximal to the area you want to block, and it requires less skill than doing a peripheral block. Peripheral nerve block is when you are blocking a specific nerve (e.g. paralumbar block, dental block, etc.) |
|
|
Term
| 2% lidocaine contains how many milligrams/milliliter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the reasons indicated for the use of NMB anesthetic drugs. |
|
Definition
| Most common use in vet med is intraocular surgeries (for cyclopegia), but can also be used for thoracotomy, obese animals, improve surgical access, edoscopy/intubation, and balanced anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| Why is succinylcholine infrequently used as a NMB in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
| Succinylcholine is a depolarizing NMJ blocker, which cannot be reversed like non-depolarizing agents can. Also, it has not analgesic properties and many side effects. |
|
|
Term
| What drugs enhance the effects of NMB? |
|
Definition
| MANY: inhalation anesthetics, aminoglycosides, diuretics, polymixins, tetracyclines, lincomycin, clindamycin, lithium, local anesthetics, barbiturates, propranolol, magnesium, calcium antagonists |
|
|
Term
| How is neuromuscular blockade monitored? |
|
Definition
| Blockade is monitored by setting up a peripheral nerve stimulator, which will stimulate motor nerves to assess the strength of contraction. The tibial nerve, ulnar nerve, or facial nerve can be used for monitoring. The twitch height is measured after stimulation (various modes of stimulation can be used; train of four and double burst are most common) and a fade in height/strength of twitch overtime corresponds to a good NMJ block. |
|
|
Term
| List the drugs used to reverse NMB. What is their mechanism of action? |
|
Definition
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used including edrophonium, neostigmine, pyridostigmine.
They act by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down ACh in nicotinic ACh receptor synapses, so that ACh stays around in the synapse longer. They are usually administered along w/atropine or glycopyrollate to prevent bradycardia, lacrimation, etc. b/c of activation of muscarinic receptors.
4-Aminopyridine can also be used as a reversal, which acts by increasing the release of ACh at the NMJ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Most anesthetic drugs act at GABA receptors to enhance inhibitory effects and hyperpolarization. |
|
|
Term
| What is the chemical difference btwn thiopental and pentobarbital? |
|
Definition
| Thiopental has a sulfar atom connected to C2 of the barbituric acid moiety, and pentobarbital has an oxygen atom connected to C2 of the barbituric acid moiety. Otherwise the structure is identical |
|
|
Term
| How do thiopental and pentobarbital differ, with respect to clinical use? |
|
Definition
| Thiopental is ultra short-acting, and pentobarbital is short-acting. Thiopental is good for induction of anesthesia b/c it works very quickly, but pentobarbital is mainly used for anesthesia nowadays. There are many side effects w/barbiturates, so other safer classes of drugs have largely replaced their use in anesthesia. |
|
|
Term
| Why does a patient wake up after a single injection of thiopental? Why is recovery prolonged after multiple injections? |
|
Definition
| Thiopental is rapidly redistributed away from the central compartment (brain) to the muscle, which allows for rapid recovery. However, thiopental tends to accumulate in the body, which prolongs the recovery. This is because the redistribution sites become saturated, so the body must rely on metabolism to break down the excess, which happens very slowly. |
|
|
Term
| List the three drugs that have been used with guaifenesin to induce anesthesia in the horse. |
|
Definition
1. Xylazine
2. Ketamine
3. Thiopental |
|
|
Term
| What are the major side effects associated w/Althesin administration? |
|
Definition
| It is associated w/allergic type reactions (decreased blood pressure, urticaria/erythema) due to its tendency to release histamine from mast cells. |
|
|
Term
| Name a major advantage of Althesin in cats. |
|
Definition
| It has a high therapeutic index, little cumulative effect, and rapid induction and recovery w/muscle relaxation. Cats recover much better w/this than ketamine, so it may replace ketamine use in cats. |
|
|
Term
| How does ketamine affect cardiopulmonary parameters, intracranial pressure, and cerebral metabolic rate? How does this compare to most other injectable agents? |
|
Definition
| Ketamine actually acts as an indirect cardiac stimulant, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac output, myocardial oxygen consumption, and decreases vascular resistance. It can increase intracranial pressure and increases cerebral metabolic rate. These are unique features, as most other injectable anesthetics depress the CV and don't affect cerebral blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are included in the drug combination marketed as Telezol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Etomide proveds for anesthetic induction w/minimal cardiopulmonary changes. What are three DISADVANTAGES to etomidate use? |
|
Definition
1. Inhibits steroidogenesis --> rise in cortisol blunted; stress response can be beneficial in helping animal heal
2. Can cause myoclonus, vocalizations, and pain on injection
3. Contains propylene glycol, so can cause hemolysis |
|
|
Term
| List the similarities btwn propofool and thiopental. |
|
Definition
| Minimal analgesia, sedative/inductive effects, enhance dysrhthmogenic effects of epinephrine (though thiopental does more) |
|
|
Term
| List the differences btwn propofol and thiopental. |
|
Definition
Propofol is a phenol, thiopental is a Schedule III drug
Beware of stuff growing in propofol
Propfol metabolizes faster and does not have cumulative effects like thiopental can |
|
|
Term
| Why isn't urethane used in clinical veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
| It is carcinogenic; it is long-acting, and it is only used in non-survival lab animal surgeries |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most likely following chronic opioid use: Constipation/Diarrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the effects of opioids on respiratory function. How do the effects of fentanyl differ from those of butorphanol? |
|
Definition
| Opioids depress respiratory function, due to a secondary increase in intracranial pressure and hypercapnia. Butorphanol is only a partial agonist, so there is less respiratory depression w/it than fentanyl (a full agonist) |
|
|
Term
| Name the opioid receptors and the endogenous ligand for each. |
|
Definition
Mu1/Mu2 = morphine, endorphins, endomorphins
Kappa = dynorphins, ketocyclazine
Delta = enkephalins
Sigma = SKF-10, 047
N/OFQ = buprenorphine |
|
|
Term
| What is an agonist (using an anesthetic drug as an example)? |
|
Definition
Fentanyl is an example
Act at the receptor to have an effect
Determines magnitude of effect and potency (also depends on receptor density, efficiency, affinity and efficacy) |
|
|
Term
| What is a partial agonist (using an anesthetic drug as an example)? |
|
Definition
Butorphanol is an example
Effect is less than what it would be if it was a full agonist
Has a ceiling effect (affords some safety from overdose)
Effects most at mu receptors |
|
|
Term
| What is an agonist-partial agonist (using an anesthetic drug as an example)? |
|
Definition
Morphine-Butorphanol is an example
Partial agonist partially reverses effect of agonist |
|
|
Term
| What is an agonist-antagonist (using an anesthetic drug as an example)? |
|
Definition
Morphine + Naloxone is an example --> decreases amount of analgesia (doesn't completely turn off agonist)
Act as antagonist at some receptors and agonist at others
Shifts curve to the right |
|
|
Term
| How is the extracellular signal initiated by an opioid transduced to the cytoplasm of the cell? |
|
Definition
| Via a seven transmembrane domain receptor, which can be receptor-dependent K channels or voltage-gated Ca channels; by inhibiting adenylate cyclase (decrease cAMP), phospholipase C, and MAP kinase. This inhibits release of acetylcholine, glutamic acid, serotonin, substance P, and norepinephrine. |
|
|
Term
| Describe how opioids may be used in the perioperative period. |
|
Definition
Central effects on supraspinal and spinal = can be given in CSF, alter ascending nocioceptive transmission, alter descending pain control circuits via midbrain to spinal cord dorsal horn
Sedation (dysphoria or excitement can also occur)
Vomiting = vomiting at low doses, inhibition at high doses
Increased sphincter tone |
|
|
Term
| What are the central nervous sytem effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
| Opioids alter ascending nocioceptive transmission, which means that the signal strength from the site of pain to the CNS decreases (spinal cord dorsal horn). They also activate descending pain control circuits to further inhibit tranmission (midbrain to spinal cord dorsal horn) |
|
|
Term
| How do opioids affect body temperature? |
|
Definition
| They decrease body temperature (except maybe in cats w/full agonists - increase body temperature) |
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Term
| Why is general anesthesia used for diagnostic or therapeutic procedures? |
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Definition
| To facilitate humane restraint, efficiency, control convulsions, prevent recognition of pain, euthanasia, induce and maintain sedation; decrease stress (for both animal and personnel), protection of veterinary staff, allow immobilization of animal for procedure, decrease autonomic activity, optimize cardiovascular and respiratory function |
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Term
| Name drugs that could be used for premedication of anesthesia. |
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Definition
Atropine
Glycopyrollate
Acepromazine
Xylazine
Diazepam
Morphine
Butorphanol
Carprofen
Meloxicam |
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Term
| Name drugs that could be used for induction of anesthesia. |
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Definition
Ketamine/Xylazine
Thiopental
Propofol
Etomidate
Alphaxalone
Tiletamine/Zolazepam
Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
other Benzodiazepines |
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Term
| Name drugs that could be used for maintainence of anesthesia. |
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Definition
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Ketamine
Tiletamine
Propofol
Etomidate
Alphaxalone
Inhalant + opioid (fentanyl) |
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Term
| Name physiological parameters that may be monitored in anesthetized patients. |
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Definition
Blood pressure
Heart rate
Respiratory rate
Oxygen saturation
ECG
Temperature |
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Term
| Name factors that may influence outcome from anesthesia. |
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Definition
| Duration of anesthesia, types & dosages of drugs used before, during, and after anesthesia, pain management, drug interactions, species, breed, age, physical status, concurrent disease, surgical procedure, equipment available, skill of personnel |
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