Term
| a second generation azole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is primary therapy for the fungus aspergillus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antifungal has a high pervalence of visual disturbances and rentinal problems as well as contraindicated in pregnant women |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| they prevent the formation of the fungal cell wall by inhibiting the synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan --> results in osmotic instability and cell death |
|
|
Term
| which antifungal has no oral bioavailability, is unable to penetrate the CNS, and active against azole resistant candida species, but they have no activity against what fungus |
|
Definition
echinocandins
have no activity against cryptococcus |
|
|
Term
| examples of echinocandins |
|
Definition
caspofungin
micofungin
anidulafungin |
|
|
Term
| what antifungal is excellent against candida and aspergillus species as a salvage therapy for AMB or azole resistant aspergillis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antifungal has histamine like effects when administered via rapid infusions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antifungal is ideal for esophageal candidiasis and for prevention of candida infection after bone marrow transplant |
|
Definition
| micafungin (an echinocandin) |
|
|
Term
| what is another antifungal, other than micafungin, that is ideal for esophageal candidiasis |
|
Definition
| anidulafungin (an echinocandin) |
|
|
Term
which antifungal prevents ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase
what is the example |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antifungal is ideal for topical dermatohytes and onchyomycosis, but not usually candidosis and [ ]es in the hair, skin and nails |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antifungal drug is converted intracellulary to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis in the fungal cell, and has synergistic effects with amphotericin B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which antifungal drug is very insoluble, and binds to keratin, making it ideal for growth/infections found in rapid skin growth areas hair, or nails
because it binds to keratin, this drug is good for what type of infections
but what drug(s) is/are more effective than this drug for these same infection locations |
|
Definition
griseofulvin
dermatophytes
itraconazole and terbinafine are much more effective |
|
|
Term
| what antifungal do you tyically administer empirically before cultures come back |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antifungals could you use to treat candidiasis |
|
Definition
amphotericin B
all azoles
caspofungin
micofungin
anidulafungin |
|
|
Term
| what antifungals could you use to treat aspergillus |
|
Definition
amphotericin B
voriconazole
posaconazole
caspofungin |
|
|
Term
| what antifungals could you use to treat blastomycosis |
|
Definition
amphotericin B
itraconazole
ketoconazole
fluconazole |
|
|
Term
| what antifungal could you use to treat histoplasmosis |
|
Definition
amphotericin B
itraconazole
ketoconazole |
|
|
Term
| what antifungals could you use to treat cryptococcus |
|
Definition
amphotericin B + flucytosine
intraconazole or fluocnazole |
|
|
Term
| what are the herpes anti-viral drugs |
|
Definition
acyclovir
famciclovir
valacyclovir
ganciclovir
foscarnet
adefovir
cidofovir |
|
|
Term
| whjch antiviral drug requires 3 phosphorylation steps by viral enzymes to become active in order to competitively inhibit viral DNA polymerase, and is 10x more potent against HSV I and II than other herpes viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do viruses gain resistance to acyclovir |
|
Definition
| via down regulation of thymidine kinase, which is required for the phosphorylation and activation of acyclovir |
|
|
Term
| which drug is the pro drug of acyclovir |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral has better bioavailability and longer half life than acyclovir and is mostly used for genital herpes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral has a longer half life than acyclovir, but does NOT cause chain termination like acyclovir |
|
Definition
| famiciclovir (the pro drug of penciclovir) |
|
|
Term
| which antiviral is rapidly hydrolyzed in intestine and liver, leading to higher blood levels than oral acyclovir |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral inhibits DNA polymerase, is effective against all herpseviruses, but is especially active against CMV (100x more effective for CMV than acyclovir) |
|
Definition
| valganciclovir (pro drug) and ganciclovir |
|
|
Term
| which antiviral inhibits viral reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase, not requiring phosphorylation, and is effective against CMV as well as resistante herpes (and HIV) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral drug is a cytosine analog, leading to DNA chain termination within the virus; and effective against CMV, HSV, papilloma, polyoma, pox, and adenovirus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral do you give with probenecid to block active tubular secretion and decrease nephrotoxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral is a sialic acid analong that causes viral aggregation at the cell surface and reduces spread within the respiratory tract; is an inhaled powder and excreted unchanged in the urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral drug used to treat influenza is not recommended for asthmatics or COPD pts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral drug causes viral aggregation at the cell surface and reduces spread within the respiratory tract, but can potentially cause suicidal thoughts |
|
Definition
| oseltamivir (used to treat influenza) |
|
|
Term
| which antiviral has a broad spectrum (viral Hep) yet used mostly for RSV, and is a guanosine analog that inhibits nucelotide synthesis, given orally or inhalation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antiviral drug is a monoclonal antibody directed against RSV, given via IM injection, and can also be given prophylactically in pts at high risk of getting RSV (premies) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which antiviral drug is effective against Hep B and C, papilloma, genital herpes, HIV, melanoma, and multiple sclerosis; inhibits viral protein synthesis, but has a limit in its use because of bone marrow suppression and flu like symptom side effects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drug is often combined with an interferon to treat Hep C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what other drugs are used in the treatment of Hep B, used in combination with IFN |
|
Definition
lamivudine (inhibits DNA polymerase)
or
telbivudine (more potent than lamivudine; inhibits DNA polymerase)
or
adefovir, tenofovir, entecavir, ribavirin |
|
|
Term
| how are anti-retroviral drugs (anti-HIV drugs) effective (general descriptions) |
|
Definition
slow progression of HIV
increase circulating CD4 T cells
decrease number of infections (prophy)
prolong survival of pts with HIV
used in pregnancy and delivery |
|
|
Term
| what are the 5 major classes of anti-HIV drugs |
|
Definition
reverse transcriptase inhibitors
protease inhibitors
fusion inhibitors
integrase inhibitors
entry inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| which type of anti-retroviral drug is phoyphorylated and incorporated into DNA and competitively inhibits reverse transcriptase, and their toxicity depends on these drugs' ability to inhibit RT and not host DNA polymerase |
|
Definition
nuceloside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
they competitively inhibit reverse transcriptase by inhibiting the incorporation of native nucleotides and by terminating the elongation of pro-viral DNA because they lack the 3'-hydroxyl group |
|
|
Term
| which anti-retroviral drug was the first one, and is mainly recommended for post-exposure prophy in healthcare workers, what type of anti-retroviral is it |
|
Definition
| zidovudine (AZT) - a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| name the seven main NRTI anti-retroviral drugs |
|
Definition
zidovudine (AZT)
stavudine (D4T)
didanosine (DDI)
lamivudine (3TC)
emtricitabine (FTC)
abacavir (ABC)
tenofovir |
|
|
Term
| which NRTI is phosphorylated by different enzymes than the other NRTIs and has a potentially severe and fatal hypersensitivity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which NRTI is the only one that is a nucleotide analog, while the rest are nucleoside analongs |
|
Definition
tenofovir
(popular in ART combo) |
|
|
Term
| which anti-retroviral drug does not require phosphorylation and binds noncompetitively to a hyrophobic pocket in a subunit of HIV 1 RT, is susceptible to a single aa change in the binding pocket, and are highly potent, but MUST be combined with at least two other agents to avoid resistance |
|
Definition
non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
they are also eliminated by the liver (CYP3A4) |
|
|
Term
| which anti-retroviral drug is not effective against HIV 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
nevirapine (NVP)
delavirdine (DLV)
efavirenz (EFV) |
|
|
Term
| which type of anti-retroviral drug is a chemical that inhibits the action of the viral aspartyl protease, preventing maturation of the virus and binds reversibly to the active site of the enzyme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which group of anti-retroviral drugs has serious drug interactions, produces GI side effects (N/V/D), can increase blood glucose and lipid levels, and reduce bone mineral density |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
list the protease inhibitors
which one is recommended to "boost" the activity of another PI |
|
Definition
saquinavir
ritonavir - mostly used to decrease the metabolism of other PI drugs, because it is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor
atazanavir
darunavir
|
|
|
Term
| which anti-retroviral is the only one that must be injected, prevents fusion of the virus with host membrane, is only active against HIV 1, and is typically only reserved for pts who have failed other ART because of its cost |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| list the entry anti-retroviral drugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which group of anti-retrovirals blocks the integration of viral DNA into cellular DNA, and is typically effectivde against both HIV 1 and 2
what is the main one in this group |
|
Definition
integrase inhibitors (they bind to the integrase enzyme)
raltegravir |
|
|
Term
| what are the general characteristics of tNSAIDs |
|
Definition
no tolerance, physical or psychological dependence
individual variability in response
inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX1 and 2)
(need to give the max recommened dose for atleast one to two weeks and then if they are still complaining of pain, you can stop that NSAID and try another) |
|
|
Term
what are the two major disadvatages to giving a large dose of NSAIDS
and what are the advantages of giving an NSAID with an opioid |
|
Definition
a larger dose of NSAIDS: doestn' give them any further relief, and they are at a greater risk of toxicity
combining the two: delays the response of the opioid, and not having to give as large a dose of the opioid, and they have different MOAs, therefore, not adding to one another's side effects |
|
|
Term
what is the MOA of NSAIDS
and tNSAIDS specifically |
|
Definition
they block the cyclooxygenase enzyme, inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, forcing all of the arachodonic acid to go down the leukotrienes pathways
tNSAIDS |
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of corticosteroids |
|
Definition
| they inhibit phospholipids from converting to arachidonic acid by phospholipase, resulting in a decrease in the production of prastaglandins and leukotrienes |
|
|
Term
| which COX is constitutive and which is not |
|
Definition
COX1 is constitutive everywhere
COX2 is constitutive in the kidneys, but inducible in other locations via pain, fever, and inflammation |
|
|
Term
| what are the general PKs of NSAIDs |
|
Definition
| well absorbed, short half-life, zero-order kinetics, highly bound to plasma albumin, small Vd, forced alkaline diuresis (applies only to ASA) |
|
|
Term
| what are the therapeutic uses of NSAIDs |
|
Definition
analgesia - the prevention of prostaglandin production decreases the amount of nociception sensitization
anti-inflammatory - prostaglandins are mediators of inflammation because they cause erythema and edema and pain
anti-platelet - PGI2 predominates after ASA administration compared to TXA2 and TXA2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator, while PGI2 is a potent vasodilator and platelet DEaggregator
primary dysmenorrhea - normally there is an increase in endometrial synthesis of PGE2 and PGF2 during menstruation causing the pain, cramps and HA
ductus arteriosus - PGs keep it opening while in the womb, but if it needs to be closed after birth, need to inhibit production of the PGs |
|
|
Term
| does ASA reversible or irreversibly bind to COX 1, 2 or both |
|
Definition
| it irreversibly binds to both COX1 and COX2 |
|
|
Term
| what are the general adverse effects of NSAIDs |
|
Definition
GI complications
cardiovascular complications
platelet function disturbances
allergic rxns
prolongation of gestation or delay in spontaneous labor, increases postpartum bleeding
hepatic issues
hematologic issues (very rare) |
|
|
Term
| what are the possible adverse effects related to the degree of selectivity of enzyme |
|
Definition
| if drug has greater affinity for COX2 you have a higher cardiovascular risk (BP increase, MI, thrombosis, stroke) and if the drug has a higher affinity for COX1 you have a higher GI risk (bleeding, ulcer complications, perforation) |
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA behind NSAIDs causing GI toxicity |
|
Definition
NSAIDs inhibit PGI2 and PGE2 which causes an increase in acid secretion, a decrease in mucus prodcution (the main protective mechanism of the stomach against the acidity) and bicarb
the increased risk of bleeding is also caused by the antiplatelet effect of the drug |
|
|
Term
| risk factors for NSAID-related complications |
|
Definition
>60 years
high dose of NSAIDs
previous Hx
concurrent use of glucocorticoids
anticoags and antiplatelets
choice of NSAID |
|
|
Term
| what is the effect of increased renal PGs |
|
Definition
increased levels of PGs in the kidneys cause an increase in renal blood flow (because of their vasodilative effect) which increases the GFR, causing an increase in the excretion of water and Na out of the kidney - aka increase diuresis and natriuresis
|
|
|
Term
| which NSAIDs have the highest disturbance in platelet function and which have the lowest |
|
Definition
highest risk: ASA - causes an increased bleeding time for several days
lower risk: non-acetylated salicylates (sodium, salicyl, methyl, and choline salicylates), acetaminophen |
|
|
Term
| what in the body contains COX1 enzymes, but NOT COX2 enzymes |
|
Definition
| platelets do NOT have COX2 enzymes |
|
|
Term
| list the acetylated salicylates |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
list the nonacetylated salicylates |
|
Definition
Diflunisal
Salicylsalicylate
Methylsalicylate
Sodium salicylate
Magnesium choline salicylate |
|
|
Term
| list the nonsalicylate groups |
|
Definition
propionic acids (ex - ibuprofen)
oxicams
acetic acid derivatives (ex - ketorolac) |
|
|
Term
| what is the selective COX2 inhibitor NSAID |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the benefits of tylenol compared to ASA |
|
Definition
| has less side effects of ASA, no antiplatelet effect, no allergice effect, no toxicity to the kidneys (however does have toxicity to the liver), very little toxicity to the GI, and is given to children <18yrs of age to prevent Reyes syndrome |
|
|
Term
| which NSAIDs are commonly used in r. arthritis, osteoarthritis, gouty arthritis, pain and inflammation due to trauma and infection, and are found as low-dose formulations of OTC drugs |
|
Definition
naproxen (longest half life)
ibuprofen
ketoproen
all three are nonsalicylate NSAIDs (under the nonselective COX inhibitors) |
|
|
Term
| which drug is the most potent inhibitor or COX isozymes and is used to treat moderate to severe acute inflammatory conditions, r. arthritis, and occasionally for gout as well as PDA in infants |
|
Definition
indomethacin (Indocin)
a nonsalicylate acetic acid derivative (a type of nonselective COX NSAID |
|
|
Term
| which NSAID has common, severe CNS side effects (including severe frontal HA, dizziness, vertigo, light headedness, mental confusion, severe depression, psychosis, hallucination because it mimics serotonin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which NSAID is the first injectable NSAID (but can be used orally or topically) that is a potent analgesic used for moderate to severe post-operative pain, but has a limitation to its length of use (5 days) because of its toxicity to the kidneys and GI |
|
Definition
| ketorolac (toradol) a nonsalicylate acetic acid derivative |
|
|
Term
| what are the main differences between selective and nonselective COX inhibitors |
|
Definition
selective COX2 inhibitor (celecoxib - Celebrex) does NOT have anti-platelet effects (and can be prescribed to pts on anticoag therapy)
also: pts allergic to ASA/NSAIDs may also show allergy to this drug, and it is NOT recommended for use in children, want to use minimal effective dose for the shortest possible time |
|
|
Term
| what are the possible side affects of selective COX2 inhibitors |
|
Definition
at high enough doses, you can still inhibit COX1, hence adverse GI symptoms (diarrhea, nausea, dyspepsia, ABD pain, lower extremity edema (most common)
renal toxicity (similar to non selective NSAIDs)
prothrombosis - coxib increases the levels of TXA2 (posten vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator) while decreasing the levels of PGI2 (potent vasodilator and platelet deaggregator)
sulfa allergic rxn |
|
|
Term
| what are possible drug interactions when taking NSAIDs |
|
Definition
tNSAIDs decrease the therapeutic efficacy of all anti-HTN drugs except CCB (because most anti-HTN drugs go through the pathway of PGs to work)
NSAIDs may increases the toxicity of lithium and methotrexate
celecoxib is contraindicated in pts allergice to sulfa drugs |
|
|
Term
| which group of drugs is capable of slowing the progression of joint erosions in pts with RA, have a slow onset of action and can cause considerable toxicity, and act by inhibiting the proliferation and activity of lymphocytes and polymorphonuclear leukocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what DMARD is the most widely used and most effective, can be combined with other drugs of this class for enhanced activity and is generally well tolerated and can be used for chronic therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what group of drugs has drugs in its class that bind to and inactivate TNF |
|
Definition
| etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab |
|
|
Term
| which type of DMARD decreases T-call activation and which blocks the biologic activity of IL1 by competitively inhibiting IL1 binding to IL1-R1 |
|
Definition
abatacept
anakinra
these drugs are administered intermittently by injection and appear to benefit many pts with RA, but all carry the risk of increased infections |
|
|
Term
| what are some of the DMARDs |
|
Definition
gold salts
glucocorticoids
leflunomide
hydroxychloroquine
sulfasalazine
penicillamine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| it is caused by hyperuricemia and the deposition of urate crystals in joints |
|
|
Term
| which drugs increase uric acid excretion and which drug inhibits uric acid formation, all used to prevent gout attacks |
|
Definition
uricosuric drugs (probenacid, and sulfinpyraszone)
allopurinol |
|
|
Term
| who is an acute gout attack treated |
|
Definition
| with an NSAID (indomethacin) or colchicine |
|
|
Term
| which drug inhibits the motility of leukocytes, thereby preventing leukocytes' migration into joints and their ability to cause urate crystal induced joint inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the general characteristics of DMARDs |
|
Definition
reduce/alter the course of RA
retard the progress of arthritic tissue destruction
common to combine with a tNSAID |
|
|
Term
| which DMARDs are TNF antagonists |
|
Definition
the biological DMARDs:
adalimubab
infliximab
etanercept |
|
|
Term
| which DMARD is an immunosuppressive drug, has a relatively rapid onset of action compared to the others and has less toxcity that most other DMARDs, but is teratogenic |
|
Definition
| methotrexate - is the DOC by rheumatologists |
|
|
Term
| which DMARD decreases pyrimidine synthesis, is a prodrug, has high protein binding, and a very long half life (15-18 days), but has liver toxicity and is teratogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which DMARDs have adverse effects of getting opportunistic infections (esp TB), liver disease, and having a severe allergy, and is usually given with methotrexate to keep the methotrexate active longer |
|
Definition
TNF antagonists:
infliximab
etanercept
adalimimab |
|
|
Term
| what symptoms or conditions can promote the development of gout |
|
Definition
obesity
weight gain
alcohol intake
high blood pressure
abnormal kidney function
certain drugs |
|
|
Term
| what are the three "aims" of gout treatment |
|
Definition
antiinflammatory therapy - prompt, attempt to reverse the symptoms of an acute attack
antiinflammatory prophy - reverse/minimize the recurrence of the gout
antihyperuricemic therapy - prevent and reverse the consequences of the deposition of the uric crystals in the joints, kidneys, and tissues |
|
|
Term
| what are the types of antiinflammatory therapy used for treating gout |
|
Definition
tNSAIDs (naproxen, ibuprofen, indomethacin)
colchicine
corticosteroid (intraarticularly or parenterally) |
|
|
Term
| which gout drug decreases phagocytosis and is a antimitotic drug that binds to tubulin, but has severe GI toxicity (diarrhea, ABD cramps, N/V) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when should colchicine be stopped when being used for the treatment of gout |
|
Definition
pain and inflammation improve significantly within 24-36 hours
GI disturbance becomes intolerable - go to a corticosteroid
total dose teached 6 - 8 mg |
|
|
Term
| when should antiinflammatory prophy be considered in the treatment regimen for gout |
|
Definition
when gout pts have frequent acute attacks (>3/year)
t has an attack during initial months of antihyperuricemic theray
before and after elective surgery |
|
|
Term
| which drug is DOC for antiinflammatory phrohy in gout pts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what drugs are used for antihyperuricemic therapy in gout pts |
|
Definition
uricosurics
xanthine oxidase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| list the two main uricosurics that are antihyperuricemic drugs used in gout therapy |
|
Definition
probenecid
sulfinpyrazone
they increase urate excretion |
|
|
Term
| list the two main xanthine oxidase inhibitors that are antihyperuricemic drugs used in gout therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two main potential complications of using antihyperuricemic drugs and how are these minimized |
|
Definition
acute attack of gout during the initial days of tx; to minimize:
start antiinflamm prophy drug (colchicine) at same time
after an acute attack, delay the start in the antihyperuricemic
start with a lower therapeutic dose and gradually increase to max dose over weeks to moths
urate stone formation in the kidneys; to prevent:
excessive fluid intake (2-4 L/day) |
|
|
Term
| which gout drug increases the renal clearance of other organic acids, has a low toxicity, and should be avoided in peptic ulcer pts, and in pts with low urine output, low creatitine clearance (aka have impaired renal function) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which gout drug has antiplatelet activity (therefore good for pts with increased risk of thrombotic events), but causes GI complaints, should be avoided in peptic ulcer pts, and is more potent than its counterpart within the same class of drug |
|
Definition
sulfinpyrazone
can be used to probenecid to have an additive effect |
|
|
Term
| which gout drugs prevent the breakdown of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid, therefore decreasing the plasma and urinary levels of uric acid and can be used in impaired renal function pts or noncompliant gout pts |
|
Definition
xanthine oxidase inhibitors
allopurinol
febuxostat |
|
|
Term
| what drugs interact with allopurinol |
|
Definition
azathioprine
ampicillin
cyclophosphamide (will induce bone marrow suppression) |
|
|
Term
| which gout drug is used for long-standing chronic gout and/or for pts who have been refractory to therapy, and is an enzyme that lower uric acid levels by its metabolic inactivation and urinary excretion, but has possible severe allergic rxns |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pain impulses are sent by primary afferent neurons to the spinal cord where ascending connections from the what project to the limbic structures and the cortex
(aka - what spinal tract is involved in sending pain info to the brain) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| descending inhibitory fibers from the periaqueductal gray matter activate the midbrain and spinal cord nuerons to release what |
|
Definition
| enkephalins, serotonin, and norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| besides analgesia, what are the other possible effects that opioid agonists can cause |
|
Definition
| they can cause sedation, euphoria, miosis, respiratory depression, peripheral vasodilation, constipation, drug dependence, antitussive, N/V |
|
|
Term
| which opioid recetor is primarily responsible for analgesic effects as well as respiratory depression and opioid dependence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which opioid agonists (the "strong) act on the mu receptor
which ones are used in the treatment of severe or moderate pain
and which one is normally used in the treatment of opioid addiction |
|
Definition
morphine, fentanyl, meperidine, and methadone
to treat severe to moderate pain: morphine, fentanyl, mepereidine
to treat addiction: methadone |
|
|
Term
why are the "moderate" opioid agonists typically combined with a nonopioid analgesic
list these opioids |
|
Definition
because the moderate opioid agonists produce maximally analgesia at doses that cannot be tolerated
codeine, hydrocodone, propoxyphene (they are used to treat moderate or mild pain) |
|
|
Term
| which opioid agonist is a dual action analgesic that activates opioid receptors and blocks neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which drugs exhibit partial agonist or antagonist activity at mu receptors and exhibit agonist or antagonist activity at kappa receptors, and what are the benefits of these types of drugs |
|
Definition
the mixed opioid agonist-antagonists: buprenorhine, butorphanol, nalbuphine, pentazocine
they produce less respiratory depression and are associated with a lower risk of drug dependence than full opioid agonists |
|
|
Term
| what are the opioid antagonists that are used to counteract the adverse effects of opioids in overdose or to prevent and treat alcohol and opioid dependence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how are opioids different from NSAIDs |
|
Definition
| opioids have a significant abuse potential (tolerance, physical and psychological dependence); they are more powerful analgesics but lack anti-inflammatory and antipyretic effects; have significant first pass metabolism; and their site of action is within the CNS |
|
|
Term
presynaptically, activation of mu receptors blocks the opening or closing of voltage sensitive Ca channels;
postsynaptically, mu receptor activation enhances or inhibits the opening of K+ channels |
|
Definition
activation of mu receptors presynaptically blocks the opening of voltage sensitive Ca channels
mu receptor activation postsynaptically enhances the opening of K+ channels |
|
|
Term
| when opioid agonists bind to the opioid receptor, does that cause cAMP levels to rise or decrease |
|
Definition
| the [ ] of cAMP decreases when an opioid |
|
|
Term
| do opioids (the majority) narrow or widen airways and do they, or do they not release histamine |
|
Definition
| morphine and several others narrow airways and release histamine |
|
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Term
| what are other factors that can create an additive effect to the side effect of respiratory depression (aka - what else can make respiratory depression worse or more likely) |
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Definition
other meds (sedatives), alcohol,
sleep (normally respirations decrease during sleep)
age (newborns and elderly are more sensitive to resp depression)
diseases (COPD, renal disease)
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Term
| what is the pathognominic finding of opioid overdose |
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Definition
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Term
| what are the anti-dairrheal effects of opioid agonists |
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Definition
| opioids decrease stomach motility, intestinal. biliary and pancreatic secretions, increases tones, decreases peristaltic contractions in the SB |
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Term
| contraindications to opioid agonists |
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Definition
| asthmatics, COPD, hypoxic conditions, head injury and craniotomy pts |
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Term
| what are signs and symptoms of acute withdrawal to opioids |
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Definition
signs and symptoms that are opposite to the acute opioid effects:
ABD cramps, muscle aches, insomnia, hyperventilation, sweating, chills, fever, anorexia, muscle and join tpain, diarrhea, tachycardia
increase BP and hyperexcitability |
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Term
| what are the meds you can use to treat the symptoms of opioid withdrawal |
|
Definition
clonidine: autonomic symptoms
muscle relaxants: spasms and twitching
NSAIDs: aches
antiemetics: N/V
antidiarrheal bismuth subsalicylate: diarrhea
trazodone: insomnia |
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Term
| which opioid has similar actions to morphine but causes little to no histamine release, therefore making it an ideal drug for pts dealing with pruritus or urticaria |
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Definition
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Term
| which opioid may cause less N/V and constipation than morphine |
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Definition
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Term
| which opioid agonist is much weaker than morphine but has a much more effective antitussive effect than morphine |
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Definition
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Term
| which opioid agonist mimics morphine, is more effective than morphine when given orally, has a longer duration of action, can be used for chronic pain, and is also used in detoxing heroin addicts |
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Definition
methadone HCL
(levomethadyl acetate - an analog of methadone, is also used for heroin detox, but has an even longer halflife than methadone) |
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Term
| which opioid is extremely potent, doesn't release histamine, has the ability to come as a skin patch (which shouldn't be given to fever pts) and is often used during some awake diagnositc procedures (bronchoscopy) |
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Definition
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Term
| which opioid agonist has a faster onset then morphine (but virtually identical to it), has no interference with uterine contractions, but has serious interactions with MAOI antidepressants and is less spasmogenic in biliary, GI and bronchial smooth muscles |
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Definition
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Term
| which opioid is a mu agonist that also blocks NE and serotonin reuptake, has a potent analgesic metabolite, does not release histamine, has less respiratory depression effects than morphine, and is only partially antagonized by naloxone |
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Definition
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Term
| what type of opioid drug(s) produces analgesia due to its kappa agonist action, but has weak competitive antagonisms at mu receptors; has a ceiling effect for respiratory depression and has a lesser propensity to produce physical dependence |
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Definition
| mixed opioid agonist/antagonists and partial agonists |
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Term
| what is the only mixed agonist-antagonist opioid drug that is avialable orally and parenterally; increases the workload of the heart, and can possibly cause hallucinations at high doses |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which opioid ANTAGONIST has the better oral bioavailability and a longer half life |
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Definition
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Term
| which anti-protozoal drug is good for anaerobic bacteria and anaerobic protozoans (is the DOC for amebiasis, gairdiasis, trichomoniasis, C diff); impairs DNA function leading to a strand breakage by formation of free radicals, inhibits the metabolism of warfarin, and can possibly cause steven's johnson syndrome and disulfiram-like rxn with alcohol |
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Definition
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Term
| which anti-protozoal drug has similar mechanism as metronidazole (damages DNA), is used for the same infections, plus metronidazole resistant trichomonas, has a longer half-life and is better tolerated (but still antabuse like rxns with alcohol), and requires shorter treatment periods |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which anti-protozoal drug has uses against giardiasis and cryptosporidosis (ADIS), inhibits pyruvate:ferredoxin oxidoreductase and has few drug interactions and is well tolerated |
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Definition
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Term
| which anti-protozoal drug is primarily used to treat luminal amebicides, is an aminoglycoside that is not absorbed and therefore stays in the GI tract and has same mechanism as neomycin and kanamycin (30S inhibitor) |
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Definition
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Term
| which anti-helmintic drug is effective against most worms (pin, whip, round, hook), uncouples oxidative phosphorylation (decreasing ATP levels), inhibits microtubule synthesis, KILLS the worm, is teratogenic in animals, and has effects with alcohol |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which anti-helmintic drug covers similar worms as mebendazole, but is better absorbed, induces P450s, more effective for microsporidosis, has a broader spectrum, and has better absorption with a high fat meal |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which anti-helmintic drug is effective against intestinal medatodes, and paralyzes the worm (NOT kill) via cholinesterase inhibitor, and has a low absorptive ability |
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Definition
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Term
| which anti-helmintic drug paralyzes the worm by increasing membrane permeability to Ca, but can kill the worm when used in high doses, and has systemic absorption |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which anti-helmintic drug paralyzes the worm by increasing permeability of chloride ions, leading to hyperpolarization, has systemic absorption, and is teratogenic in animals |
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Definition
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Term
| with migraines - which occurs first, vasoconstriction, or vasodilation, and is the pain typically bilateral or unilateral |
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Definition
| cerebral vasoconstriction and ischemia are followed by vasodilation, inflammation, and a unilateral, pulsatile HA |
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Term
| what are some drugs used for migraine prophy |
|
Definition
anticonvulsants (valproate)
antidepressants(amitriptyline)
NSAIDs (naproxen)
beta antagonists (propanolol)
CCBs (verapamil)
5HT receptor antagonists (methysergide) |
|
|
Term
| how long does it typically take for the benefit of drugs used as prophy to be observed |
|
Definition
| three to four weeks before benefits are observed |
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|
Term
what are some groups of drugs used for aborting migraines
and generally, how do these work |
|
Definition
ergot alkaloids (ergotamine)
triptan drugs (sumatriptan)
these drugs stimulate 5HT receptors, this stimulation causes cerebral vasoconstriction, inhibits the release of peptides and other mediators of inflammation and vasodilation from trigeminal neurons, and inhibits activation of trigeminal nucleus in brain stem
other drugs include:
NSAIDs, opioid analgesics and isometheptene (sympathomimemtic) |
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Term
| which group(s) of migraine drugs have the possibily of causing rebound HAs, and therefore require restriction of their dosage and frequency and are contraindicated in pts with CAD |
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Definition
| ergot alkaloids and triptan drugs |
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|
Term
what are some common side effects of ergots
what are some common sid effects of triptans |
|
Definition
ergots: N/V, and muscle cramps
triptans: chest tightness and drowsiness |
|
|
Term
which drugs are effective against preventing cluster headaches
and which drugs are effective against aborting them |
|
Definition
prevention:
lithium
methysergide
verapamil
aborting:
ergot alkaloids
sumatriptan
inhaled O2
intranasal lidocaine
glucocorticoids |
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Term
| tension headaches respond to what tye of drugs |
|
Definition
| NSAIDs and muscle relaxants |
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Term
| long term use of NSAIDs can lead to hepatic or renal toxicity or both |
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Definition
| can lead to both hepatic and renal toxicity |
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|
Term
| NSAIDs act primarily by inhibiting or activating COX and the synthesis or inhibition of prostaglandins |
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Definition
| they act primarily by INHIBITING COX and the SYNTHESIS of prostaglandins |
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|
Term
nonselective COX inhibitors include:
and which one doesn't cause gastric irritation and bleeding and it's use doesn't cause peptic ulcer |
|
Definition
acetaminophen, ASA, ibuprofen, indomethacin, ketoprofen, ketorolac, and naproxen
except for acetaminophen, all of these agents can cause gastric irritation and bleeding and their long term use can lead to peptic ulcers |
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|
Term
| which NSAID is an effective analgesic and antipyretic agent, but lacks significant anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet activity |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which NSAID has a minor metabolite that is hepatotoxic possibly causing fatal liver failure |
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Definition
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|
Term
| what drug is used as an antidote for acetaminophen hepatotoxicity |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which NSAID has potent antiplatelet effects at low doses (bc it acetylates and irreversibly inhibits platelet COX), and produces analgesic and antipyretic effects at the same low dosage, but requires higher doses to counteract inflammation |
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Definition
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|
Term
which drug causes tinnitus at high therapeutic doses, and hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis, followed my metabolic acidosis at toxic doses
what drug then counteracts the acidosis, increasing urinary excretion of salicylic acid |
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Definition
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|
Term
| which NSAID is a potent COX inhibitor that can be used to treat moderate to severe acute inflammatory conditions as well as for the closure of the ductus arteriosus in infants |
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Definition
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|
Term
| physical dependence, which results from neuronal adaptation to the continued presence of a drug, is usually associated with ________. physical dependence results in a characteristic __________ when drug use in discontinued |
|
Definition
drug tolerance
withdrawal syndrome |
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|
Term
| T/F: alcohol and other CNS depressants produce motor and cognitive impairment, sedation, euphoria, and behavioral disinhibition |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| which drug with the potential of abuse produces altered tactile sensation and overdose and cause severe cardiovascular and neural toxicity |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| which drug of abuse produces a mild euphoria, talkativeness, conjunctivitis, and increased appetite |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| which drug with the potential of abuse causes hullucinations WITHOUT producing delirium |
|
Definition
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|
Term
the treatment of drug dependence and withdrawal can include some type of substitution therapy, such as:
(for alcohol, opioids, and cigarettes) |
|
Definition
a benzodiazepine substituted for alcohol
methadone for an opioid
and nicotine chewing gum or skin patches for cigarettes
alcohol and opioid dependent pts can be treated with naltrexone (opioid antagonist that blocks opioid receptor link in dopamine reinforcement pathway) transdermal patches as well |
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