Term
| Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to: |
|
Definition
| protect cells from injury |
|
|
Term
| An individual with damage to the spinal cord may experience atrophy of which of the following organs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The process of cellular atrophy is accomplished through which of the following processes? |
|
Definition
| Formation of autophagic vacuoles |
|
|
Term
| In compensatory hyperplasia, growth factors stimulate cell division in response to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to: |
|
Definition
| all of the above (neoplasia (cancer), dysplasia, and metaplasia). |
|
|
Term
| In response to an increased workload, such as that caused by high blood pressure (hypertension), myocardial cells in the left ventricle will adapt through the process of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The process of muscle hypertrophy involves an increase in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papillomavirus results in cervical: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atypical hyperplasia (dysplasia) is characterized by abnormal changes in all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a form of metaplasia that can occur in the human body? |
|
Definition
| Squamous epithelial cells of the esophageal lining are replaced by glandular cells similar to those lining the stomach. |
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of hypoxic injury is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tissue ischemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation result in: |
|
Definition
| decreased ATP production. |
|
|
Term
| Injury to the endoplasmic reticulum due to hypoxic injury results in: |
|
Definition
| a decrease in protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| Lysosomal rupture during hypoxic injury leads to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Restoration of oxygen to oxygen-deprived tissues results in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Free radical injury can be caused by all of the following factors except: |
|
Definition
| tissue damage by antioxidants. |
|
|
Term
| Vitamin E, vitamin C, and beta-carotene are molecules in food that act as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lead poisoning affects nervous system function by which of the following mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| Lead interferes with neurotransmitter release. |
|
|
Term
| The population group most vulnerable to lead poisoning is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following organs is most frequently affected by ethanol injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fetal exposure to alcohol during pregnancy can result in: |
|
Definition
| all of the above. (low birth weight, mental retardation, death) |
|
|
Term
| Why is carbon monoxide exposure a life-threatening condition? |
|
Definition
| Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin and prevents normal oxygen transport to tissues. |
|
|
Term
| Death by suffocation can occur within minutes when ambient oxygen drops below: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following molecules accumulates in liver cells as a result of alcohol abuse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of genetic disorder is Tay-Sachs disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The process by which cells program themselves to die is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following cellular processes occurs during apoptosis? |
|
Definition
| Cleavage of key cellular proteins |
|
|
Term
| The postmortem decrease in body temperature is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The body’s first line of defense against microorganisms is/are the: |
|
Definition
| skin and mucous membranes. |
|
|
Term
| In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response: |
|
Definition
| recognizes specific invaders. |
|
|
Term
| The primary cell of immunity is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Humoral immunity is generated through the process of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person has resistance to a disease from natural exposure to an antigen, the person has which form of immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The condition in which the immune cells attack the individual’s own tissues as if they were invaders is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following cells has the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which process confers long-lasting immunity against a specific organism? |
|
Definition
| Production of memory cells |
|
|
Term
| The predominant antibody of a typical secondary immune response is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen X again, which of the following immune responses will occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of immunity is conferred when an individual is given a vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a function of antibodies? |
|
Definition
| Direct cell killing through the release of toxic chemicals |
|
|
Term
| Which type of antibody can be created in a laboratory for the treatment of diseases such as cancer and will only react with a single antigen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the main antibody transferred from a mother to an infant in breast milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a person has an allergic reaction to bee stings, which antibody causes the life-threatening hypersensitivity response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells can destroy infected or cancer cells by which of the following mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| Both A and B (Producing toxins and Stimulating apoptosis) |
|
|
Term
| Older individuals are at increased risk for which of the following problems? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (Autoimmune diseases, Hypersensitivity reactions, and Infections) |
|
|
Term
| A decrease in cell-mediated (T cell) immunity decreases at puberty because of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Activation of the clotting system results in the production of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All of the following chemicals will induce a fever during inflammation except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An elevation of which cell accounts for a “left shift” in the white blood cell count differential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells defend against viral invasion through the production and secretion of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the respiratory system, the release of leukotrienes during an inflammatory response induces: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Manifestation of local inflammation includes: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Warmth and redness of the skin are indicators of inflammation. Which of the following processes is responsible for this clinical manifestation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of a persistent bacterial infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which white blood cell plays an important role in inhibiting the inflammatory response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A child who has a history of many allergies, recurrent respiratory tract infections, and chronic yeast infections of the gastrointestinal tract may have an underlying immune disease called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A differential rise in which white blood cells is typically seen with viral infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person with type AB blood is a universal: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A systemic manifestation of infection is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Desensitization therapy improves allergies by which of the following mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| Producing antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE |
|
|
Term
| Vaccines have been developed to protect against pathogens. For which types of organisms have vaccines been developed? |
|
Definition
| Both A and B (Viruses and Bacteria) |
|
|
Term
| What type of reaction occurs when the body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are fungal infections resistant to most antibiotic therapies? |
|
Definition
| Fungi have thick polysaccharide walls that resist antibiotics. |
|
|
Term
| A 36-year-old male is experiencing frontotemporal hair recession. He is diagnosed with male pattern baldness, a form of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her physician tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 19-year-old female developed a circular, demarcated, and salmon-pink lesion. Two weeks later she developed more lesions over the trunk and upper part of the extremities. This manifestation is most consistent with which of the following disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fungal infection of the nail plate |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a viral skin infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 42 year old client has thick plaque, white, scaly and flaky skin. The nurse knows that these symptoms occurs when the cell cycle is shortened as it occurs with which
of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A client asks the nurse in the dermatologist’s office what a carbuncle infection is. The nurse replies that it is a: |
|
Definition
| Bacterial infection of the hair follicles extending to the dermis |
|
|
Term
| In differentiating a basal cell carcinoma from a squamous cell carcinoma, you understand that a basal cell carcinoma lesion is: |
|
Definition
| pearly gray, smooth appearance with rolled border, depressed center and slow growing |
|
|
Term
| Most forms of focal brain injury or diffuse axonal injury are associated with increased: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A concussion is defined as temporary axonal disturbance with loss of consciousness lasting less than: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Spinal shock involves loss of: |
|
Definition
| All of the above (skeletal motor function, peripheral sensory function, and autonomic function) |
|
|
Term
| Autonomic hyperreflexia is often caused by: |
|
Definition
| pain stimulation below the level of the spinal cord lesion. |
|
|
Term
| In terms of risk factors, cerebral vascular accidents (strokes) are most similar to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is obstruction of a cerebral artery by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the pathophysiology of cerebral infarction, the release of which substance is associated with neuron hyperpolarization and seizure activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), blood accumulates: |
|
Definition
| in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the brain and skull. |
|
|
Term
| The most common source of life-threatening meningitis is: |
|
Definition
| streptococcus pneumoniae. |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of bacterial meningitis can include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Encephalitis is usually caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by: |
|
Definition
| immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons. |
|
|
Term
| The tonic phase of an epileptic seizure is characterized by: |
|
Definition
| involuntary muscle contraction and loss of consciousness. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following vertebral disorders involves a structural defect (often hereditary) that causes forward displacement of affected vertebra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following problems are likely to occur following a severe focal brain injury? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (Cerebral edema, Subdural hematoma, and Contrecoup injury) |
|
|
Term
| A decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is related to which of the following physiological changes? |
|
Definition
| Decrease in arterial blood pressure |
|
|
Term
| The displacement of the temporal lobe into the tentorial notch resulting in brain stem compression is know as a(n): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulation in the ventricles or subarachnoid space is a condition called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An individual with paralysis of the lower extremities has: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main source of bleeding in subdural hematomas is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which intervertebral disks are most likely to be herniated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for stroke syndromes include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
| anticoagulant medications. |
|
|
Term
| The most common neurologic disorder observed in individuals with AIDS is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is caused by the degeneration of: |
|
Definition
| motor neurons in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. |
|
|
Term
| Immediately following a spinal cord injury, spinal reflexes below the level of the lesion are disrupted because of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of autonomic hyperreflexia include the following: |
|
Definition
| Headache and blurred vision |
|
|
Term
| A severe focal injury to the temporal region of the skull can rupture the middle meningeal artery, resulting in an epidural hemorrhage. In this type of intracranial hemorrhage, the bleeding occurs between the dura mater and the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A major risk factor for the development of a chronic subdural hematoma is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is not a type of subdural hematoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intracerebral hemorrhages most frequently occur in the: |
|
Definition
| frontal and temporal lobes. |
|
|
Term
| Syndrome of inappropriate diuretic hormone (SIADH) results in excessive: |
|
Definition
| renal retention of water without sodium retention. |
|
|
Term
| Classic symptoms of diabetes insipidus (DI) include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When evaluating the kidney function of an individual with diabetes insipidus (DI), the nurse would observe: |
|
Definition
| high volume urine output. |
|
|
Term
| In adults, the most serious consequence of panhypopituitarism is the loss of: |
|
Definition
| adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). |
|
|
Term
| Acromegaly is caused by increased secretion of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prolactinomas (pituitary tumors that secrete prolactin) cause which of the following problems in women? |
|
Definition
| Breast milk production without pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| A clinician would suspect thyrotoxicosis if a patient presented with which of the following symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Weight loss and enlarged thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
| Graves disease is an example of a: |
|
Definition
| type II hypersensitivity. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of exophthalmos in Graves disease? |
|
Definition
| Degenerative changes in the muscle and orbital edema |
|
|
Term
| An endocrinologist orders a series of lab tests to assess thyroid function. Low levels of thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are indicative of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in adults is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thyroid carcinoma usually presents with the following thyroid tissue changes: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is: |
|
Definition
| parathyroid gland injury or removal. |
|
|
Term
| The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) involves: |
|
Definition
| all of the above. (autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, production of antibodies against insulin, and type IV hypersensitivity against pancreatic islet cells). |
|
|
Term
| A new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes is based on: |
|
Definition
| fasting plasma glucose levels and glucose tolerance tests. |
|
|
Term
| Hyperglycemia and lipid abnormalities in type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) are a result of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms that a person with type 1 diabetes has administered too much insulin include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gestational diabetes can occur: during |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The purpose of monitoring glycosylated hemoglobin levels in persons with diabetes is to: |
|
Definition
| monitor long-term serum glucose control. |
|
|
Term
| The symptom of polyuria in diabetes mellitus (DM) is caused by: |
|
Definition
| increased glucose in the urine. |
|
|
Term
| What effect does the presence of advanced glycosylation end products (AGEs) have in diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The development of an acute metabolic acidosis from insulin deficiency is due to which of the following processes? |
|
Definition
| Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production |
|
|
Term
| Alterations in lipid and protein metabolism lead to chronic complications of DM through which of the following processes? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (Activation of protein kinase C, Induction of the polyol pathway, and Glycosylation) |
|
|
Term
| Chronic complications of DM include which of the following? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (peripheral neuropathies, end-stage renal disease, and coronary artery disease) |
|
|
Term
| Cushing disease is commonly caused by: |
|
Definition
| ectopic production of ACTH from a lung tumor. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following alterations would you expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of Addison disease is: |
|
Definition
| autoimmune injury to the adrenal cortex. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a typical characteristic of benign tumors? |
|
Definition
| Benign tumors are surrounded by a capsule. |
|
|
Term
| Malignant tumors have a tendency to: |
|
Definition
| all of the above. (grow rapidly, metastasize to distant tissues, and invade surrounding tissues). |
|
|
Term
| Referring to cancer, the term anaplasia means: |
|
Definition
| loss of cellular differentiation. |
|
|
Term
| Tumor cell markers can be used to: |
|
Definition
| all of the above. (screen individuals for cancer, diagnose tumor type, and follow the clinical course of tumor development). |
|
|
Term
| Immortality in cancer cells is obtained through the production of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The normal function of tumor suppressor genes in an individual without cancer is to: |
|
Definition
| control production of anti-growth signals. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following mutational routes is necessary to cause cancer with a tumor suppressor gene mutation? |
|
Definition
| Deletion of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene. |
|
|
Term
| Viruses are associated with all of the following cancers except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following viruses has been implicated in the development of cervical cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Obesity is an important risk factor for all of the following cancers except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following statements about alcohol intake and cancer risk is true? |
|
Definition
| Alcohol intake increases the development of smoking-related cancers. |
|
|
Term
| Local tissue invasion by a tumor is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| Release of lytic enzymes by the tumor cells, which causes tissue degradation |
|
|
Term
| The process of cancer cells entering into blood vessels is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most commonly reported symptom in individuals with cancer is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cachexia is a syndrome that includes all of the following symptoms except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following modes of treatment is not used to eradicate cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 28-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is seen in a prenatal clinic for the first time late in her second trimester of pregnancy. She reports severe fatigue and experiences shortness of breath when going up stairs. Laboratory evaluation reveals low hematocrit and hemoglobin levels. Which of the following is a (are) potential cause(s) of her anemia? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (anemia of chronic inflammation, iron deficiency, and folate deficiency). |
|
|
Term
| A deficiency in which vitamin will lead to decreased clotting capabilities and increased risk of bleeding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Agranulocytosis increases a person’s risk of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anemia from recent blood loss (acute blood loss) usually exhibits a red blood cell morphology that is: |
|
Definition
| normocytic and normochromic. |
|
|
Term
| A unique manifestation of hemolytic anemia (i.e., generally absent in other forms) is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical manifestations unique to vitamin B12 anemia (i.e., usually absent in other types of anemia) include: |
|
Definition
| paresthesias, muscle weakness, and ataxia. |
|
|
Term
| Clinical manifestations of iron deficiency include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythropoietin, the hormone that regulates erythropoiesis, is released by the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an inherited clotting factor deficiency. |
|
|
Term
| Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) occurs in 5% to 15% of all individuals receiving heparin therapy. In these individuals, the administration of heparin induces: |
|
Definition
| platelet aggregation and thrombus formation. |
|
|
Term
| Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is caused by: |
|
Definition
| antibody destruction of platelets in the spleen. |
|
|
Term
| Iron is stored in the tissues as: |
|
Definition
| all of the above. (myoglobin, ferritin, and hemosiderin). |
|
|
Term
| Leukemia is classified as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is gastric bypass surgery for morbid obesity a risk factor for the development of pernicious (vitamin B12 deficiency) anemia? |
|
Definition
| Intrinsic factor production by the gastric epithelium is reduced. |
|
|
Term
| According to Laplace's law, the pressure required to inflate an alveolus is directly related to the: |
|
Definition
| amount of surface tension. |
|
|
Term
| A decrease in tidal volume results in a decrease in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A frequent complication of chronic bronchitis related to the hypersecretion of mucus is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A high ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by: |
|
Definition
| obstruction to pulmonary blood flow. |
|
|
Term
| Air is expelled from the alveoli during exhalation due to the effects of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration and is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is generally the result of: |
|
Definition
| thick mucous secretions and smooth muscle hypertrophy. |
|
|
Term
| A life-threatening complication of asthma is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alveolar hypoxia results in: |
|
Definition
| pulmonary artery and arteriole vasoconstriction. |
|
|
Term
| ______ atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue caused by external pressure exerted by a tumor, fluid, or air. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by: |
|
Definition
| rapid respirations alternating with periods of apnea. |
|
|
Term
| Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which of the following complications? |
|
Definition
| Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
|
|
Term
| Coal miners or individuals exposed to asbestos often develop a chronic respiratory condition called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Covering the lungs is a serous membrane called the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypoventilation results in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), alveolar damage and impaired surfactant secretion lead to each of the following problems except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals who have recently developed chronic bronchitis most often present with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of the pleura that causes pain on inspiration is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In individuals with asthma, exposure to an allergen leads to which of the following pathophysiological events? |
|
Definition
| Bronchoconstriction and airway edema |
|
|
Term
| _____ is a term that signifies right-sided heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lung injury that results in diffuse pulmonary inflammation and infiltrates and that is followed by development of a hyaline membrane at the alveolocapillary interface is a condition known as: |
|
Definition
| acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). |
|
|
Term
| Metaplastic changes to bronchial epithelial tissues are frequently caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema most often is caused by: |
|
Definition
| systemic infection (sepsis). |
|
|
Term
| Pneumonia leads to hypoxemia due to: |
|
Definition
| the accumulation of exudates and fibrin deposition. |
|
|
Term
| Pulmonary edema and pneumothorax are examples of ______ pulmonary disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory acidosis can result from: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory failure is defined by which one of the following laboratory alterations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for tuberculosis (TB) include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is transmitted via which of the following mechanisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of dyspnea include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Staff at an inner-city homeless shelter send 46-year-old Henry Ship by ambulance to a local hospital after he begins coughing up blood. On arrival at the emergency room, he is feverish and says that he has felt very fatigued for several weeks. He also reports experiencing night sweats. Mr. Ship’s symptoms are most likely caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Surfactant coats the inner surface of the alveoli and: |
|
Definition
| prevents alveolar collapse during expiration. |
|
|
Term
| The collapse of a previously inflated area of lung tissue is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The region between the lungs that contains the heart, trachea, and primary bronchi is called the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A consequence of switching from aerobic to anaerobic cellular metabolism during shock states is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anaphylactic shock manifests with the rapid onset of which set of symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Dyspnea, hypotension, and urticaria. |
|
|
Term
| Anaphylactic shock occurs in response to severe: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An individual with secondary hypertension has an abnormal blood pressure caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An unstable plaque in the coronary arteries can result in which of the following complications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures generally results from this condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A risk factor that is associated with atherosclerosis and primary hypertension is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Atherosclerosis of the aorta can cause isolated systolic hypertension by: |
|
Definition
| decreasing arterial distensibility. |
|
|
Term
| Causes of hypovolemic shock include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical manifestations of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the lower leg include: |
|
Definition
| pain and edema in the affected limb. |
|
|
Term
| Congestive heart failure (CHF) results in which of the following intraventricular hemodynamic changes? |
|
Definition
| Increased left ventricular preload. |
|
|
Term
| Dysfunction in the normal secretion of natriuretic hormones affects renal reabsorption of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Elevated levels of which of the following markers are indicative of an acute myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
| Isoenzyme of creatine phosphate (CK-MB) and Troponin 1 |
|
|
Term
| Exchange of nutrients between the blood and the tissues takes place in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Factors associated with endothelial injury in atherosclerosis include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infective endocarditis is most often caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In MODS, which of the following events contribute to organ failure? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (microvascular clotting, interstitial edema, and exhaustion of fuel supply). |
|
|
Term
| In shock, how does the body maintain blood glucose levels once available glucose and glycogen stores are used up? |
|
Definition
| By breaking down protein to fuel gluconeogenesis. |
|
|
Term
| In the elderly, aortic stenosis usually results from which of the following conditions? |
|
Definition
| degeneration and calcification of the valve. |
|
|
Term
| Left ventricular afterload is determined by: |
|
Definition
| systemic vascular resistance. |
|
|
Term
| Multiplying heart rate by stroke volume determines: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neurogenic shock is caused by: |
|
Definition
| a lack of sympathetic activity. |
|
|
Term
| Orthostatic hypotension refers to a decrease in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure when an individual: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prinzmetal angina is caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The heart chamber that pumps blood to the systemic circulation is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cardiac valve disease in the United States, which tends to be most prevalent in young women, is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common consequence of atherosclerosis is: |
|
Definition
| obstruction of the blood vessel lumen. |
|
|
Term
| The pathophysiology of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) can be described though three processes, known as Virchow's triad. Which of the following is not a component of Virchow's triad? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pressure of the volume in the ventricle at the end of diastole is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unstable angina is considered a precursor to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following forms of hyperdyslipidemia is associated with the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following molecules forms a meshwork to stabilize the platelet plug during hemostasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following conditions is caused by the collection of fluid in the pericardial sac, resulting in tamponade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which set of clinical manifestations is highly characteristic of a septic shock state? |
|
Definition
| Tachycardia, generalized edema, and warm skin. |
|
|
Term
| Activation of the renin-angiotensin system stimulates the secretion of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute tubular necrosis leading to acute renal failure can result from all of the following problems except: |
|
Definition
| increased ammonia levels from liver failure. |
|
|
Term
| After passing through the proximal convoluted tubule, the urine filtrate flows into the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A major modifiable risk factor for the development of renal calculi in the general population is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to urinary tract infection, which of the following is a risk factor in the development of pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
| Urinary retention and reflux |
|
|
Term
| In chronic renal failure, which of the following hormones often needs to be therapeutically replaced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased levels of aldosterone stimulate the reabsorption of which of the following molecules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Individuals with chronic renal failure are at risk for osteomalacia and spontaneous bone fractures because: |
|
Definition
| of a vitamin D deficiency. |
|
|
Term
| In renal failure, the kidneys will continue to adapt until renal function reaches what percent of normal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Loss of one kidney results in ______ of the remaining kidney. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nephrotic syndrome occurs when there is loss of _____ in the urine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Renal insufficiency refers to a decline in renal function to ____ of normal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cause of glomerulonephritis is: |
|
Definition
| antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on the glomerular membrane. |
|
|
Term
| The primary manifestation of acute renal failure is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a primary laboratory finding in chronic renal failure? |
|
Definition
| Increased serum creatinine |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of the peripheral edema that often manifests with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Loss of plasma proteins in urine |
|
|
Term
| What would urinalysis show in a patient who is developing glomerular disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are risk factors for the development of renal cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (Male gender, Tobacco use, and Obesity). |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following infections is most commonly associated with the development of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are symptoms of uremia and azotemia? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (Pruritus, Fatigue, and Nausea). |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following substances does not normally get filtered in the kidneys? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders is characterized by a lesion of the central or peripheral nervous system that affects bladder control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following symptoms manifests with both urinary tract infection and pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following substances are actively secreted by the renal tubules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following dietary nutrients must be restricted in individuals with advanced chronic renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following hormones stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following complications associated with renal failure creates the greatest need for immediate dialysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which one of the following microorganisms causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections (UTIs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which structure is situated just below the urinary bladder in the male? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the _____ through the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Appendicitis usually presents with pain that manifests in which abdominal quadrant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bilirubin in bile comes from: |
|
Definition
| phagocytosis of aged red blood cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the accumulation of gallstones in the gallbladder. |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of constipation include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common characteristics of Chron disease include which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) include: |
|
Definition
| heartburn, dysphagia, and pain within one hour of eating. |
|
|
Term
| Diverticulosis can be related to which of the following dietary problems? |
|
Definition
| Diet high in refined foods |
|
|
Term
| Functions of the liver include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
| secretion of digestive enzymes. |
|
|
Term
| Gastric ulcers are characterized by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intestinal obstruction can lead to all of the following complications except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the liver, ammonia is converted to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Jaundice related to biliary duct obstruction is manifested by which of the following laboratory alterations? |
|
Definition
| Increased conjugated bilirubin |
|
|
Term
| Paralytic ileus often occurs after: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parasympathetic stimulation of the digestive system results in: |
|
Definition
| increased gastric and pancreatic secretions. |
|
|
Term
| Pepsin is necessary for the digestion of which of the following nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Severe trauma can result in stress ulcers that often first manifest with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy are caused by increased serum levels of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The classic symptoms of a small bowel obstruction are: |
|
Definition
| vomiting, severe abdominal pain, and abdominal distension. |
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of chronic gastritis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of portal hypertension is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The presence of digested dark blood in the stool is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following structures prevents reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus? |
|
Definition
| Lower esophageal sphincter |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following statements explains why portal hypertension leads to ascites? |
|
Definition
| Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following symptoms is associated with hepatic encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
| Memory loss and confusion, progressing to coma |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following structures is not part of the small intestine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following conditions is a complication of gastrointestinal bleeding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders is characterized by night blindness, osteopathy, and clotting disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders is characterized by the inability to digest all nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cystocele commonly results in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord is known as a (an): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) results in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of secondary amenorrhea other than pregnancy and menopause include which of the following? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (pituitary tumors, thyroid disorders, and extreme weight loss). |
|
|
Term
| Failure to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics by age 14 is a condition called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Galactorrhea is a disorder of the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by: |
|
Definition
| sexually transmitted infections. |
|
|
Term
| Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually causes: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer include: |
|
Definition
| obesity, early menarche, and infertility. |
|
|
Term
| Sexual maturation occurring before age 6 in girls or age 9 in boys is a condition known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of prostate cancer are similar to: |
|
Definition
| benign prostatic hyperplasia. |
|
|
Term
| The condition in which one or both testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum in early childhood development is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for routine screening of which gynecological cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is used to screen for which prostate problem? |
|
Definition
| Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) |
|
|
Term
| Urethritis is a common disorder of the male urethra and is most commonly caused by: |
|
Definition
| sexually transmitted infection. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following sexually transmitted infections are associated with cervicitis and can result in pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding, and the presence of purulent cervical discharge? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (chlamydia, trichomoniasis, and gonorrhea). |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following hormonal abnormalities is associated with the development of breast cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders of the male reproductive system is a surgical emergency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following symptoms suggests that a woman should be carefully evaluated for breast cancer? |
|
Definition
| All of the above (dimpling of the skin on the breast, enlarged axillary lymph nodes, and abnormal discharge from the nipple). |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A bone breaks in a place where there was pre-existing disease. What type of fracture is being described? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a tendon is torn off its bony attachment. |
|
|
Term
| Ankylosing spondylitis results in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A torus fracture occurs when: |
|
Definition
| the cortex of the bone buckles. |
|
|
Term
| In children, growth in long bones primarily takes place at the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inflammation of a tendon where it attaches to the bone at its origin is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In osteomyelitis, the area of necrotic bone at the site of the infection is called the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myoglobinuria (rhabdomyolysis) can result in failure of which of the following organs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain and inflammation associated with gout are caused by crystallization of _____ ______ in the tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pain in fibromyalgia is attributed to: |
|
Definition
| decrease in pain tolerance. |
|
|
Term
| Phase 1 of the bone remodeling cycle involves: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatoid arthritis results from joint inflammation caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for osteoarthritis include all of the following except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Severe muscle trauma from crush injuries can result in which of the following complications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Synovial joint problems in rheumatoid arthritis are due to which of the following pathologies? |
|
Definition
| Articular cartilage is lost through enzymatic breakdown. |
|
|
Term
| The best screening test for osteoporosis is: |
|
Definition
| a dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan. |
|
|
Term
| The cause of most cases of endogenous osteomyelitis is (are): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The chief pathologic feature of degenerative joint disease is: |
|
Definition
| degeneration of articular cartilage. |
|
|
Term
| The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main energy source or fuel for skeletal muscle contraction is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves: |
|
Definition
| abnormal calcium crystallization |
|
|
Term
| The primary manifestation of osteoarthritis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cells have the capability of dissolving bone tissue and releasing the stored calcium into the bloodstream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which molecule prevents a muscle contraction from occurring when the muscle is at rest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which muscle delivers the power stroke during the cross-bridge cycle of muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following fractures involves fragmentation of the articular cartilage and generally occurs in adolescents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following molecules form the crystalline structure of hydroxyapatite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following pairs of symptoms is likely to manifest following a femoral fracture? |
|
Definition
| Pain and swelling in the thigh |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following substances prevent proper bone healing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders presents with significant bone demineralization from a vitamin D deficiency and usually results in skeletal pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following ions is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate a muscle contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following diseases is characterized by osteomalacia in the growing bones of children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following disorders in characterized by enlargement and softening of the bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following measures is most effective for preventing pulmonary emboli in patients who are recovering from a major surgery? |
|
Definition
| Ambulate patients frequently to prevent blood clot formation. |
|
|
Term
| An important cause of bacterial persistence resulting in recurring urinary tract infections includes: |
|
Definition
| microbial resistance to antibiotics. |
|
|
