Term
| _____is a factor which when altered, produces a change in the frequency or characteristic of a disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______is a state of dysfunc of body detectable by one or more of the person’s senses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ functional or anatomical abnormalities detectable only with dx aids, lab tests, indirect measures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a state of inability to adapt to stressor, leading to phys, behavioral, and physiological changes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ is a set of signs or series of events occurring together that often point to a single dz or condition as the cause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______is any subjective evidence of dz or of a pt’s condition, e.g. such evidence as perceived by the patient, a change in a patient’s condition indicative of some bodily or mental state |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is an objective physical finding found by the examiner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______is a collection of diseases with a common characteristic (major sign) starting point in diagnostic process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| measure of the test’s ability to id true positives, given that the tested group is truly positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| measure of the test’s ability to id true negatives, given that the tested group is truly negative |
|
|
Term
| what are five consumer issues in food animal production? |
|
Definition
1. Animal welfare 2. want wholesome and economical product 3. environmental impact 4. sustainability 5. organic |
|
|
Term
| what are four parameters of reproduction efficiency in dairy herds? |
|
Definition
- increases likelihood of cows remaining in herd
- increases number of cows that spend life in profitable milk prod
- increases calves born per year
- reduces involuntary calving
|
|
|
Term
| peak milk production in cows is at: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
peak dry matter intake occurs: |
|
Definition
2-3 weeks after peak milk production |
|
|
Term
| T or F: loss of body condition score during lactation in cows is never acceptable. |
|
Definition
| F: loss of 1bcs is okay, more than that will interfere with cycling |
|
|
Term
| what is the purpose of the voluntary waiting period? how long is it? |
|
Definition
| voluntary 60-70 day waiting for uterus to involute and return to positive energy balance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 7th month of gestation, dry period for 2 months to prepare for lactation and to optimize output |
|
|
Term
| how is pregnancy rate calculated? |
|
Definition
#cows pregnant/#cows eligible to become
or heat detection rate x conception rate |
|
|
Term
| what determines pregnancy rate? |
|
Definition
| heat detection and conception rates determine pregnancy rate |
|
|
Term
| what is the average pregancy rate in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| beyond _____% pregnancy rate, there is little economic benefit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 5 C's of dairy replacement rearing? |
|
Definition
o colostrum
o cleanliness
o comfort
o calories (nutrition)
o consistency |
|
|
Term
| what can you use to time ovulation for artificial insemination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when can pregnancy be detected in cows? |
|
Definition
by palpation is 35 days; earliest via US 26-33 days |
|
|
Term
| a vaccination program for dairy cattle should include what? |
|
Definition
- BVDV 1 and 2
- bovine herpes 1
- BRSV
- also:
- Leptospira
- Clostidia
- core endotoxins
- Brucella?
|
|
|
Term
| what is no longer used in navel dipping? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is CCI? what determines this? |
|
Definition
| calving to conception interval. determined by PR at the end of the VWP. |
|
|
Term
| as PR increases, CCI ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the two main determinants of success or failure of a colostrum program? |
|
Definition
| time and mass of Ig (quality x quantity) |
|
|
Term
| efficiency of absorption of colostrum in dairy cows is about ____% at birth, and gut closure occurs _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how much Ig mass is necessary for colostral success? what is the Ig mass content of good and excellent quality colostrum? What is the necessary amount necessary of these? |
|
Definition
>280g Ig
good= >50g/L Ig or 5-6L needed
excellent= >70g/L Ig or 4L needed |
|
|
Term
| how much colostrum should be given immediately? |
|
Definition
| 2-3 L or 1 gallon within the first hour |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| serum [Ig] can be determined by: |
|
Definition
- single radial immunodiffusion (RID)
- ELISA
- zinc sulphate turbidity (ZST)
- sodium suphite precipitation (SSP)
- glutaraldehyde test (GT)
- serum total protein (TP)
|
|
|
Term
| low TP calves have a _____risk of mortality |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
protective effects of absorbed colostral Ig last at least: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the navel disinfection protocol? |
|
Definition
| at birth, when put into its pen, and again 12-18 hours later using chlorhex or iodophor |
|
|
Term
| what are the three housing requirements for newborn calves? |
|
Definition
- clean and dry
- good (natural) ventilation
- prevention of calf-to-calf contact
|
|
|
Term
| what is the preferred calf housing system? why? |
|
Definition
| hutch. ample ventilation and shade, movable for easy cleaning, isolates calves. |
|
|
Term
| what is the spacing requirement for hutches? how often should they be moved? |
|
Definition
>2 hutches apart
moved every 3-4 days in wet weather, 10 days in dry weather |
|
|
Term
| when using calf barns, what are two recommendations: |
|
Definition
| use every other stall, and clean with water hose INfrequently to avoid aerosolization of pathogens |
|
|
Term
| how should calves be fed? |
|
Definition
- fresh (pasteurized) milk or hi qual milk substitute
- feed 2x daily
- feed out of open-faced bucket INCLUDE WATER
- higher enviro temp, lower lb milk/d requirement
- all equipment MUST be cleaned and sanities after every use
- Vit E and Selenium for prevention of white muscle disease
- Vit A and D
|
|
|
Term
| in cold weather, calves should be fed ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F: the majority of cows make good colostrum. |
|
Definition
| F. only 35% do. most have been bred for quantity not quality. |
|
|
Term
| when should calves be offered hi quality grain? |
|
Definition
| day 3, will begin eating between day 21-8 |
|
|
Term
| when should calves be bled to determine colostral intake? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F: most dairies perform assisted colostrum delivery |
|
Definition
| False. more than 80% allow for natural colostrum delivery |
|
|
Term
| what are the recommended vx for calves? |
|
Definition
o 7-way clostridium vx for prev of overeating disease and bloat o IBR, PI3, BVD, BRSV vx |
|
|
Term
| when does weaning occur in calves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the goal of growth in calves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when should calves be regrouped? |
|
Definition
| 1-3 weeks post-weaning (to get over stress) |
|
|
Term
| What are the terms for young sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the terms for males sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the terms for female sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are castrated sheep and goats called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percent of the world's goats are where? |
|
Definition
| 96% in developing countries |
|
|
Term
| What are the meat breeds of goat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the pet breeds of goat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What makes fainting goats faint? |
|
Definition
| Caprine myotonia congenita. Autosomal dominant defect at muscle fiber membrane likely Cl- channel defect. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of caprine myotonia congenita? |
|
Definition
| Transient tetanic spasms of striated muscle initiated by visual, tactile, auditory stimuli. No loss of consciousness. Bunny hopping, falling over, legs extended, stiff gait after |
|
|
Term
| What are the dairy breeds of goat? |
|
Definition
| Alpine, la mancha, nubian, oberhasli, saanen, toggenburg. |
|
|
Term
| What fiber comes from goats? |
|
Definition
| Angora (mohair) and cashmere |
|
|
Term
| Are there more sheep or goats in the world? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the meat breeds of sheep? |
|
Definition
| Cheviot, dorset, Hampshire, Southdown, Suffolk, texel, Tunis |
|
|
Term
| What are the fine wool sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the long wool sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the dairy breed sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the dual purpose sheep? |
|
Definition
| Corriedale. Wool and dairy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hot environments. Black belly, dorper, katahdin, royal white, st croix |
|
|
Term
| what animal is used most for meat and milk? goats or sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the legal limit for somatic cells in goat milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is false?
1. worldwide there are more goats than cattle
2. Boer, Spanish, Kiko are popular meat goat breeds in US
3. Small ruminant milk typically has a lower somatic cell count than cow milk
4. meat and wool prod are the most common uses of sheep in the US |
|
Definition
| 3. Small ruminant milk typically has a lower somatic cell count than cow milk |
|
|
Term
| how can you tell sheep and goats apart? |
|
Definition
· sheep: tail down, no bear or wattles, upper lip divided by distinct philtrum, often more lateral, curly horns
· goats: tail up, many are horned, beards, wattles, shallow philtrum |
|
|
Term
| in general, which produces more milk, goats or sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are some disease concerns with unpasteurized goat/sheep milk? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter jejuni, Q fever (more direct contact), Listeriosis (from illegal imports)
Brucella melitensis |
|
|
Term
| for fiber production, how are sheep and goats sheared? |
|
Definition
goats-standing or recumbent
sheep-recumbent |
|
|
Term
| what is the average body weight of a sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the differences between sheep and goat meat production? |
|
Definition
· altho many lamb producers feed out their own lambs to market weight, others sell them as feeder lambs, almost all goat producers feed out their own kids
· 2 breeding/kidding seasons/year are common in goat enterprises
· less concentrates fed for finishing off kids than lambs |
|
|
Term
| what are the antagonist, fighting, and alarm signals of sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
goats: sideways hooking, rear on hind legs, high pitched sneeze
sheep: butt head on, butt head on, snort and stamp one forefoot |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following is false?
a. if male kids are castrated prior to puberty, the scent glands on the head do not mature.
b. goat kids should generally be disbudded in the first week of life, except nubian, pygmy, and angora kids can be disbudded at 10-14 days
c. to disbud kids, an electric dehorning iron should be applied to the bud for ~60 seconds.
d. lidocaine should typically be diluted to 0.5% prior to use for disbudding goat kids. |
|
Definition
| c. never more than 10 seconds |
|
|
Term
which of the following is false?
a. internal parsites are the most important production-limiting problem of small ruminants in the SE US.
b. bottle jaw, poor body condition, and pale mm are common signs of internal parasitism.
c. pasture management (rest periods, avoiding overgrazing) and keeping supplemental feed of the ground can help reduce parasite exposure
d. the FAMCHA scoring system is useful to detect animals with heavy trichostrongylus
e. witholding feed or feeding only dry hay for 12-24 hours prior to deworming can increase the efficacy of oral dewormers due to a slowed gut transit time. |
|
Definition
| D. only detects anemia and only used in areas with heavy Haemochus |
|
|
Term
Which is false?
1. pet sheep and goats tend to become obese and should be limit-fed to maintain a BCS of 2.5-3/5
2. sheep prefer to obtain ~80% of their diet by browsing
3. urine acidifiers are often used in diets of pet wethers to help prevent urolithiasis
4. ewes and does typically require supplemental feeding in late gestation, especially when carrying multiple fetuses
5. to avoid rumen acidosis when feeding large amounts of grain, it should be fed as part of a TMR or following hay feeding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what can be added to small ruminant feed to prevent urolithiasis? |
|
Definition
| urine acidifiers (e.g. ammonium chloride) |
|
|
Term
| how much should water intake be increased to support milk production in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how much grain should be included when feeding non-breeding, non-pregnant, wethers, and pet small ruminants?
|
|
Definition
| no more than 1lb grain/day |
|
|
Term
| how should ewes and does be fed in late gestation and why? |
|
Definition
- § ewes: 2-2.5lb cereal grain (oats or corn) during late gestation
- § does: 1-2 lb concentrate during late gestation
- during last 6 weeks: 70-80% fetal growth
|
|
|
Term
| when is peak milk production in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| during lactation in small ruminants, how should concentrates be fed? |
|
Definition
o concentrates should be fed as TMR or after hay feeding to avoid acidosis |
|
|
Term
| when should small ruminants be weaned? |
|
Definition
| 2-4months if eating solids |
|
|
Term
| when is puberty and when is breeding ideally started in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
puberty: 5-12 months
breeding at ~70% of mature size: 7-10 months |
|
|
Term
| how long is gestation in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
gestation 147 days for sheep, 150 for goats |
|
|
Term
| what is the repro rate target in most small ruminants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| describe the estrus cycle of the small ruminant. |
|
Definition
seasonal polyestrus
short-day breeders-melatonin, shortening of day |
|
|
Term
| what is the whitten effect? |
|
Definition
induction of cyclicity by abrupt introduction of male.
ewes must be in shallow anestrus
ovulation in 48 hours (no signs of heat)
estrus in 17 days |
|
|
Term
| describe does and ewes in heat |
|
Definition
· does: flagging, vocalization, mounting
· ewes: subtle, will stand for ram to mate |
|
|
Term
| how can goats be handled? |
|
Definition
easily trained, can be trained to use halter or collar, can be restrained by horns by grasping base, with second hand on tail, or by straddling at withers.
|
|
|
Term
| how should small ruminants be transported? |
|
Definition
transport in groups, not overcrowded, avoid transporting preggers in last 4-6wks of gestation, heat and cold stress considerations |
|
|
Term
| how can you tell if a small ruminant is sick? |
|
Definition
listless, inappetance, poor BCS compared to others, lagging, resting/walking on knees |
|
|
Term
| how is pregnancy diagnosed in ewes and does? |
|
Definition
progesterone >5 days post breeding
ultrasound 45-90days post breeding |
|
|
Term
| what is the Blitz treatment used to eradicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do you estimate age in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
|
<1yr
|
No permanent teeth
|
|
1 yr
|
2 perm teeth
|
|
2 yr
|
4
|
|
3
|
6
|
|
4
|
8
|
|
>4 yrs
|
Worn permanent teeth
|
|
|
|
Term
| when should kids be disbudded? |
|
Definition
· 5-7 day does, 3-5 day bucks
· Nubian , pygmy, angora goats at 10-14 days |
|
|
Term
| what is the toxic dose of lidocaine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what restraint can be used during disbudding? |
|
Definition
· xylazine, ketamine, butorphanol or gas mask or restraint devices |
|
|
Term
| how should a nerve block be performed prior to disbudding? |
|
Definition
· local nerve block dilute 2% lidocaine to 0.5% with sterile water, inject 1ml over each of 4 nerves in kid weighing >3 kg |
|
|
Term
| what nerves should be blocked prior to disbudding? |
|
Definition
· cornual branch of lacrimal and cornual branch of intratrochlear nerve |
|
|
Term
| T or F: electric cautery can be used to disbud older goats. |
|
Definition
| false. past 6 weeks of age, should be done surgically |
|
|
Term
| where are the scent glands in a buck? will every buck have them? |
|
Definition
· located posterior-medially to horn bud. if castrated prior to 7.5 months, will not develop these. |
|
|
Term
| what are some special considerations for the physical exam in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
- check sinuses for fighting injuries in rams
- teeth: dental problems common cause of poor doers
- urine: briefly occlude nostrils in ewes to get sample
- udder: sheep and goats have udder in halves not quarters
- weigh often, at deworming, medicating, birthweight
|
|
|
Term
| how is BCS assessed in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
| spinous and tranverse processes palpated |
|
|
Term
| when are scrapie tags needed? |
|
Definition
| small ruminants, >1 yr, interstate commerce |
|
|
Term
| what are the three methods of castration in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
o Burdizzo
o surgical
o elastrator bands (predispose to tetanus) |
|
|
Term
| when should small ruminants be castrated? |
|
Definition
· 4-14 days of age
· pets: delay until 6-8 weeks to potentially reduce later problems with obstructive urolithiasis, especially in pygmies or mini breeds |
|
|
Term
| when should tail docking be performed in lambs? |
|
Definition
· >24hrs to 7 days of age, definitely by 6 weeks |
|
|
Term
| how long should a tail be after docking in lambs? |
|
Definition
| should cover vulva (ewes) or anus (rams), AVMA says no shorter than distal end of caudal tail fold, |
|
|
Term
| if tail docking is done too short, what are some possible consequences? |
|
Definition
| vaginal and rectal prolapse, perineal neoplasia |
|
|
Term
| how often should hoofs be trimmed? |
|
Definition
| twice yearly, more often if soft ground or heavy rainfall |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common nematodes infections in small ruminants? where are they found? |
|
Definition
HOT
Haemonchus (SE US), Ostertagia (temperate climates), and Trichostrongylus |
|
|
Term
| what are some factors that increase susceptibility to nematode infections in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
| overcrowding, overgrazing, malnutrition, poor quality pasture |
|
|
Term
| when does haemonchus contortus peak? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how can haemonchus contortus be controlled? |
|
Definition
- o don’t feed on ground, feed troughs that young won’t play/sleep/defecate in
- o anthelmintics
- o pasture management: avoid overstocking, use pasture rest periods, use clean/safe pastures, supplemental feed in times of pasture stress
- o multi-species grazing with cattle or horses
- o graze tannin-rich forages that help control nematodes
- o zero grazing (feedlots)
- o genetic selection for parasite-resistant populations
|
|
|
Term
| there is a high level of resistance to dewormers in SE US except for: |
|
Definition
| moxidection and levamisole |
|
|
Term
| increased resistance to dewormers is seen with: (2 factors) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how can dewormer resistance be prevented? |
|
Definition
- don't dose by calendar/regularly,
- minimize number of treatments
- treat after heavy rain,
- NEVER underdose
- use FAMACHA to detect anemic animals
- change out/rotate effective treatments yearly
|
|
|
Term
| what is the vaccination protocol for small ruminants? |
|
Definition
- enterotoxemia (C. perfringens C and D) 10wk, booster in 1 month
- tetanus 10wk, booster in 1 month
- contagious ecthyma (orf) only if existing problem. 4wk, booster in 1 month
|
|
|
Term
| dewormer resistance can be measured by? |
|
Definition
| fecal egg count reduction test. used to measure the animal with heaviest parasite load to dose herd |
|
|
Term
| what should be fed in addition to deworming treatment in small ruminants? |
|
Definition
| dry hay 12-24 hours prior and 12 hours after oral dewormers to slow gut transit. fasted prior to this |
|
|
Term
| what are the six P's in small ruminant illnesses? |
|
Definition
· parasitism
· pinkeye
· pneumonia
· pododermatitis (footrot)
· predation
· pregnancy toxemia |
|
|
Term
95% of mastitis is due to:
|
|
Definition
- Strep agalactiae
- Staph aureus
- S. uberis
- Strep dysgalactia
|
|
|
Term
| white coffee-ground milk is characteristic of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most common clinical form of mastitis is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the most common form of mastitis is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| "ping-pong" crypto is seen when? |
|
Definition
| when using calf barns. close contact keeps crypto passing from calf to calf |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common predators of small ruminants? what can be done to prevent predation? |
|
Definition
coyotes and domestic dogs.
use of donkeys, llamas (not intact males), well-fed guard dogs. active elimination of predators (trap, shoot) |
|
|
Term
| what supplemental injections are given to newborn small ruminants? Is this necessary in Florida? |
|
Definition
| vit E/selenium in Se-deficient areas. Yes, needed in Florida |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- orbivirus
- spread by mosquitoes,
- severe clinical disease, abortion, facial erosions
- really bad in lambs, longterm effects
- seem to recover, then tank and die.
- vx only in California
- try and control mosquitos
- usually occurs in sheep that are brought from non-bluetongue states
|
|
|
Term
| in dealing with which small ruminant disease should you wear gloves? |
|
Definition
| orf. Contagious ecthyma (Sore mouth). causes blistering |
|
|
Term
| what causes Caseous Lymphadenitis and how can it be controlled? |
|
Definition
corynebacterium ovis.
good sanitation, don't buy infected, sanitize shears
|
|
|
Term
| describe footrot, including the responsible pathogens. |
|
Definition
- Dichelobacter nodosus (foot) and Fusobacterium necrophorum (soil)
- severe lameness, exudative inflam and necrosis with foul odor
- recovered animals can be carriers.
- prevent with trimming and foot bath, quarantine, vx
|
|
|
Term
| what are the signs of malnutrition and starvation? |
|
Definition
hunched stance, weakness, dehydration, hypothermia. poor BCS, recumbency, death. |
|
|
Term
| when does orbivirus peak? |
|
Definition
| late summer and fall in the NW, spring and summer in FL in introduced sheep (think when mosquitoes peak) |
|
|
Term
| describe neonatal diarrhea in small ruminants including responsible agents. |
|
Definition
- E.coli, salmonella, C perfringens type C, rotavirus, crypto
- northern parts of US.
- confinement exacerbates
- management and sanitation key, also colostrum.
- just symptom treatment.
|
|
|
Term
| tenesmus in small ruminants is a sign of what? what other signs may be present and what is the treatment? when is this disease the worst? |
|
Definition
Coccidiosis. greenish/yellow diarrhea, rarely blood tinged, off feed, wt loss, fecal material smeared around rectum. 10-50% morbid, 10%mortality. proper sanitation. amprolium or sulfa drugs. worst is at weaning or high stress
|
|
|
Term
| How is Johne's disease different in small ruminants compared to cattle? |
|
Definition
| in small ruminants, diarrhea occurs closer to the end. otherwise, very similar |
|
|
Term
| T or F: dystocia in small ruminants is complicated and small animal practitioners should avoid intervening in dystocias. |
|
Definition
| False. easy flank or midline C-section under gas anesthesia or valium. just DO SOMETHING!!! |
|
|
Term
| which bovine diseases are in the US? which are not? |
|
Definition
in US: BSE, Brucellosis, Tuberculosis
NOT in US: FMD (aphthovirus), heartwater (ehrlichia rumenantium), texas cattle fever (babesia bigemina and bovis |
|
|
Term
| describe pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants |
|
Definition
- generally ketosis, but term also used to refer to hypocalcemia syndromes
- ewes/does during advanced pregnancy (postpartum in cows).
- more in multiple fetus carriers.
- neg energy balance, hypoglycemia, increased fat catabolism, ketonemia, ketonuria with CNS signs.
- tx: C-section, induce parturition, IV dextrose, oral propylene glycol, Ca
|
|
|
Term
| what is the most important first line of defense against invasion of pathogenic bacteria in the teat? why? |
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Definition
teat canal
smooth muscle
keratin squamous epi
keratin-baceriostatic |
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Term
| what are the primary udder pathogens? |
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Definition
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S. aureus
S. agalactiae
Mycoplasma
S dysgalactia* (also enviromental)
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Term
| how can S. agalactiae be controlled? |
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Definition
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Blitz treatment:
§ post-milking teat disinfection
§ dry cow therapy (Abx up in teat)
§ ID infected cows and treat |
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Term
| what causes contagious mastitis? |
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Definition
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Term
| T or F: S. aureus mastitis can be treated with β-lactams |
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Definition
| False. produces penicillinase. |
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Term
| what mastitis-causing bacteria are non susceptible to eradication? |
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Definition
| the enviro ones: S. uberis and dysgalactia |
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Term
| describe coliforms. who is at risk? |
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Definition
- environmental
- opportunistic
- peracute to acute
- likely to kill the cow
- E.coli, Klebsiella, Serratia, Aeromonas
- higher quality milk producing herds are at higher risk
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Term
| what is the goal of clinical mastitis cases? |
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Definition
| <3% of milking cows with mastitis/month |
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Term
| the somatic cell legal limit in cow milk is: |
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Definition
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Term
| what does the lab pasteurized count indicate? what should this number be? |
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Definition
the amount of bacteria growing after pasteurization (thermophiles)-indicates how well equipment is cleaned.
<300 bacteria/ml |
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Term
| what is the legal limit of bacteria in milk? how is this measured? |
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Definition
<100,000 bacteria/ml
standard plate count |
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Term
| what does the preliminary incubation count indicate? |
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Definition
| # of bacteria growing after refrigerated incubation. indicates how well and quickly milk is refrigerated |
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Term
| what are the limitations of the California mastitis test? |
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Definition
- good for screening subclinical mastitis
- good at id'ing cows with high SCC (>1 million)
- not good at differentiating infected from non-infected (<or > 200k)
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Term
| in individual somatic cell count, a linear SCC of 4 indicates_________actual SCC, which means a milk loss of _____________lb/d |
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Definition
linear SCC4=200,000 actual SCC= milk loss 3lb/d |
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Term
| when milking, the udder and teat should be: |
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Definition
| clean and dry. but mostly dry. |
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Term
| what are fed and non-fed cattle? |
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Definition
fed-cattle: cattle raised from calf to 21 months of age with purpose of becoming meat
non-fed cattle: some other function in life, but now entering food chain (culled dairy cows, beef cows raising calves, etc). |
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