Term
| What does D. latum cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria genus can live in neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prophylaxis for Hemophilus Influenzae |
|
Definition
| Vaccine:Type B polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid. Given between 2 and 18 months of age. Close contacts of infected person: Rifampin |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Tennessee |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common dermatophytes and what do they cause? |
|
Definition
| Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton cause all the tineas except for versicolor and nigra |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for dermatophyte infection |
|
Definition
| 1. Topical imidazoles 2. Oral griseofulvin (Tinea capitus and tinea unguium) |
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Naegleria cause? |
|
Definition
| Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Candida albicans |
|
Definition
| Dimorphic fungus, cutaneous OR systemic infection |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Taenia solium |
|
Definition
| Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses are double stranded? |
|
Definition
| All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae |
|
|
Term
| How are neisseria characterized? |
|
Definition
| Gram-negative cocci that resemble paired coffee beans |
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Klebsiella cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name: Klebsiella pneumoniae) 2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies) |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Arkansas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Tinea corporis? |
|
Definition
| Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton) |
|
|
Term
| What causes a fungus ball? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Babesia cause? |
|
Definition
| Babesiosis: Fever and anemia |
|
|
Term
| Which worm: Undercooked pork |
|
Definition
| 1. Taenia solium (tapeworm) 2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm) |
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses are single stranded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gonococcus and meningococcus: Polysaccharide capsule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs and symptoms of Klebsiella infection |
|
Definition
| 1. Red currant jelly sputum 2. Abscess in lungs |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Southern California |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Tinea cruris? |
|
Definition
| Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton) |
|
|
Term
| Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts? |
|
Definition
| 1. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Giardia lamblia 3. Cryptosporidium 4. Toxoplasma All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces) |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum |
|
Definition
| Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses have linear genomes? |
|
Definition
| All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular |
|
|
Term
| Gonococcus and meningococcus: Maltose fermentation |
|
Definition
| G: No (Gonococcus ferments Glucose) M: Yes (MeninGococcus ferments Maltose and Glucose) |
|
|
Term
| Orange sputum: What bugs? |
|
Definition
| 1. Pneumococcus 2. Klebsiella (or described as ""red currant jelly sputum"") |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton) |
|
|
Term
| Histologic appearance of aspergillus |
|
Definition
| Mold (not dimorphic) with septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45 degree) angle). Rare fruiting bodies. |
|
|
Term
| Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes? |
|
Definition
| Naeglaria (via cribriform plate) |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis |
|
Definition
| Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection |
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses have circular genomes? |
|
Definition
| papova virus and hepadna which are circular |
|
|
Term
| Gonococcus and meningococcus: Vaccine availability |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Red currant jelly sputum: What bug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Mississippi river valley |
|
Definition
| Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis) |
|
|
Term
| What causes Tinea capitis? |
|
Definition
| Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton) |
|
|
Term
| What disease states does cryptococcus neoformans cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Cryptococcal meningitis 2. Cryptococcosis |
|
|
Term
| Which protozoa are transmitted sexually? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis |
|
Definition
| Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection |
|
|
Term
| Important points about echinococcus granulosus |
|
Definition
| Tapeworm (Cestode) 1. Ingested eggs from dog feces 2. Liver cysts 3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
| Which RNA viruses are single stranded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Gonococcus cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Gonorrhea 2. septic arthritis 3. neonatal conjunctivitis 4. PID |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Ohio river valley |
|
Definition
| Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis) |
|
|
Term
| Histologic appearance of cryptococcus neoformans |
|
Definition
| 5-10 micrometer yeasts with wide capsular halo. Narrow based unequal budding. |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Malassezia furfur |
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection |
|
|
Term
| Which RNA viruses are double stranded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Meningococcus cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Meningococcemia 2. Meningitis 3. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Salmonella vs. Shigella: Motile |
|
Definition
| Both (Though, the evidence that shigella is motile is recent.) Can invade and disseminate hematogenously. |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Southwestern US |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is cryptococcus neoformans stained? |
|
Definition
| 1. India ink 2. Latex agglutination test for polysaccharide capsular antigen |
|
|
Term
| Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug? |
|
Definition
| Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid)) |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii |
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection |
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
| Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV) |
|
|
Term
| What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome? |
|
Definition
| massive, usually bilateral, hemorrhage into the adrenal glands caused by fulminant meningococcemia. |
|
|
Term
| Where is cryptococcus neoformans found? |
|
Definition
| Soil and pigeon droppings. |
|
|
Term
| Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly? |
|
Definition
| Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid)) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection |
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Haemophilus Influenzae cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Epiglottitis 2. Meningitis 3. Otitis media 4. Pneumonia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 4 Fs:1. Food 2. Fingers 3. Feces 4. Flies |
|
|
Term
| What is the histologic appearance of Mucor? |
|
Definition
| Just like Rhizopus Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees) |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Trichophyton |
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection |
|
|
Term
| Which RNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
| + strand ssRNA (almost the same as mRNA) |
|
|
Term
| How is Haemophilus Influenzae characterized? |
|
Definition
| Small gram-negative coccoid rod. |
|
|
Term
| Salmonella vs. Shigella: Virulence |
|
Definition
| Salmonella: 100,000 organisms Shigella: 10 organisms |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is this area known for: Minnesota |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus? |
|
Definition
| Just like Mucor Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees) |
|
|
Term
| Which RNA viruses have noninfectious naked nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Haemophilus Influenzae transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus? |
|
Definition
| 1. Ketoacidotic diabetics 2. Leukemics |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus |
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection (Aspergilosis in AIDS patients) |
|
|
Term
| Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane? |
|
Definition
| All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of Haemophilus Influenzae is most pathogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the vector for histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate? |
|
Definition
| 1. Walls of blood vessels, causing infarction of distal tissue 2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans |
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection (has a capsule) |
|
|
Term
| Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do bird and bat droppings carry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is pneumocystis jirovecii? |
|
Definition
| Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as a protozoan) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection (Ketoacidotic Diabetes) |
|
|
Term
| Which viruses are haploid? |
|
Definition
| All except retroviruses (diploid) |
|
|
Term
| Yersinia enterocolitica infection: Clinical presentation |
|
Definition
| 1. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers 2. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis |
|
|
Term
| What characterizes dimorphic fungi? |
|
Definition
| Mold in soil (lower temperature) and yeast in tissue (body temperature) |
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Pneumocystis cause? |
|
Definition
| Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion predisposes to disease. |
|
|
Term
| Which viruses are diploid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Seafood |
|
Definition
| Vibrio: 1. parahaemolyticus 2. vulnificus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, and Paracoccidioidomycosis (but not coccidioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue) |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Pneumocystis carini |
|
Definition
| Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection AIDS |
|
|
Term
| Where do DNA viruses replicate? |
|
Definition
| In the nucleus (except pox) |
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated rice |
|
Definition
| Bacillus cereus Be Cereus! You can get sick from rice?! |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for coccidiomycosis |
|
Definition
| Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| Where do RNA viruses replicate? |
|
Definition
| Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses) |
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Mayonnaise |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for paracoccidiomycosis |
|
Definition
| Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| Characterization of sporotrix schenckii |
|
Definition
| Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation. |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses are icosahedral? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Custard |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Histoplasmosis |
|
Definition
| Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| Presentation of sporotrichosis |
|
Definition
| 1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn 2. Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose: Leishmania |
|
Definition
| Macrophages containing amastigotes |
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Giardia lamblia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus? |
|
Definition
| All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerases) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Live attenuated vaccines |
|
Definition
| Both (with a few cases of reversion to virulence) |
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Bulging cans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cultured on Sabouraud's agar? |
|
Definition
| Fungi (specifically dimorphic fungi) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for: Entameba histolytica |
|
Definition
| Metronidazole and iodoquinol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Killed vaccines |
|
Definition
| Humoral immunity (stable) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for: Giardia lamblia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type of bug: Cryptosporidium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR vaccine |
|
Definition
| Live attenuated, egg-based |
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Honey |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Amebiasis 2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery) 3. liver abscess 4. RUQ pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Poultry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Giardiasis 2. Bloating 3. Flatulence 4. Foul-smelling diarrhea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug causes contamination of this food: Eggs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever vaccine |
|
Definition
| Live attenuated, egg-based |
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio parahaemolyticus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause? |
|
Definition
| Diarrhea 1. AIDS: Severe 2. Non-HIV: Mild watery |
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Campylobacter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Toxoplasma cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. HIV: Brain abscess 2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions) |
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Salmonella |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states does Plasmodium cause? |
|
Definition
| Malaria: 1. Cyclic fever 2. Headache 3. Anemia 4. Splenomegaly 5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum) |
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Shigella |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enteroinvasive E. coli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Yersinia enterocolitica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HBV vaccine |
|
Definition
| Recombinant (antigen is recombinant HBsAg) |
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. difficile |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Definition: Viral recombination |
|
Definition
| Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology |
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Entamoeba histolytica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterotoxigenic E. coli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Definition: Viral Reassortment |
|
Definition
| Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics. |
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio cholerae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. |
|
Definition
| Viral Reassortment Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics. |
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. perfringens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Definition: Viral Complementation |
|
Definition
| When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus ""complements"" the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses. |
|
|
Term
| Bloody or watery diarrhea: Protozoa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. |
|
Definition
| Viral Phenotypic Mixing Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile, lactose negative gram negative bugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean for a virus to be naked? |
|
Definition
| It has only a nucleocapsid, and no envelope. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with schistocytes and azotemia |
|
Definition
| Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7) Caused by shiga-like toxin |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean for viruses to be negative stranded? |
|
Definition
| Must transcribe negative strand to positive, using RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic syndrome |
|
Definition
| Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7) Caused by shiga-like toxin |
|
|
Term
| What does IgM HAVAb measure? |
|
Definition
| IgM antibody to HAV. Best test to detect active Hepatitis A. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HBV surface antigen. Continued presence indicates carrier state. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with symptoms of appendicitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antibody to HBsAg. Provides immunity to hepatitis B. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea in a day care center |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antigen associated with core of HBV, doesn't seem to be measured. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pseudomembranous colitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antibody to core antigen. Positive during window period (no HBsAg or HBsAb detected). IgM HBcAb is an indicator of recent disease. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with protozoans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. Important indicator of transmissibility. (BEware!) |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in someone who just visited Mexico |
|
Definition
| Enterotoxigenic E coli (no preformed toxin) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with comma-shaped organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gene that encodes for p24 capsid, the nucleocapsid in HIV |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with appearance of rice water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gene that encodes for gp41 and gp120 proteins, the envelope proteins in HIV. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with gangrenous leg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Interior envelope protein in HIV |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in an immunocompromised patient |
|
Definition
| Protozoa (eg Giardia or Cryptosporidium) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nucleocapsid protein in HIV, coded for by gag gene. |
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea |
|
Definition
| Think viruses first. Rotavirus Adenovirus Norwalk virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Envelope protein which traverses bilayer. If it is a mushroom stalk, then gp120 is the head. Both coded for by env. |
|
|
Term
| Difference between mechanisms of cholera and pertussis toxins |
|
Definition
| Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on" on) Pertussis: Permanently disables GI (turns the "off"" ff) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Envelope protein that serves as mushroom cap to gp41 stalk. Both coded for by env. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that functions as adenylyl cyclase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gene which codes for HIV reverse transcriptase |
|
|
Term
| Disease states caused by Legionella (list only) |
|
Definition
| 1. Asymptomatic infection 2. Pontiac fever 3. Legionnaires disease |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of osteomyelitis in most people. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Caused by Legionella. Presents like influenza. Strikes suddenly and completely resolves in one week. |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of osteomyelitis in sexually active people. |
|
Definition
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae (rare), septic arthritis more common |
|
|
Term
| Describe Legionnaires' disease |
|
Definition
| Very high fever with severe pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of osteomyelitis in diabetics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Has a beta-lacatamase (penicillin-resistant) 1. Erythromycin 2. Rifampin |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of osteomyelitis in drug addicts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age. Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few microbes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with sickle cell disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Legionella |
|
Definition
| Grows on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with prosthetic replacement |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of vertebral osteomyelitis |
|
Definition
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pott's disease) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gram negative. Gram stains poorly (use silver stain) |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of urinary tract infections in ambulatory people |
|
Definition
| Mostly ascending infections 1. E. coli (50-80%) 2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%) in young amubulatory women 3. Klebsiella (8-10%) |
|
|
Term
| Legionella: How is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Aerosol transmission from environmental water sources (AC, Showers, whirlpools, cooling towers, supermarket produce mist) |
|
|
Term
| Common causes of urinary tract infections in the hospital |
|
Definition
| Mostly ascending infections 1. E. coli 2. Proteus 3. Klebsiella 4. Serratia 5. Pseudomonas |
|
|
Term
| Sexuality of fungal spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Epidemiology of urinary tract infections |
|
Definition
| Mostly ascending infections. Ratio of women:men is 10:1. (short urethra colonized by fecal flora) |
|
|
Term
| Which fungal infections are transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores? |
|
Definition
| 1. Coccidioidomycosis 2. Histoplasmosis |
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial CMV infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial RSV infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Candida Albicans infection |
|
Definition
| Superficial: Nystatin Serious systemic: Amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial E. coli infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Histologic appearance of Candida Albicans |
|
Definition
| Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius |
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial Proteus mirablis infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which fungus causes thrush in immunocompromised |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. |
|
Definition
| Respiratory therapy equipment |
|
|
Term
| Which fungus causes vulvovaginitis? |
|
Definition
| Candida albicans (high pH, diabetes, use of antibiotics) |
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial HBV infection. |
|
Definition
| Work in renal dialysis unit |
|
|
Term
| Which fungus is endemic to Southwestern US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial Candida albicans infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which fungus is endemic to Mississippi and Ohio river valleys |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factor for nosocomial Legionella infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 most common causes of nosocomial infections |
|
Definition
| 1. E. coli (UTI) 2. S. aureus (wound infection) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus aureus (means pus in a natural body cavity, not an abscess) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug: Pediatric infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common causes of pneumonia in people with cystic fibrosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug: Branching rods in oral infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug: Traumatic open wound infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug: Dog or cat bite |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug: Sepsis in a newborn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bug: Meningitis in a newborn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism is associated w/ HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathy and uremic Sx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MC contaminant of blood transfusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are trophozoites phagocytosed RBCs? |
|
Definition
| Entameba histolytica (Ameba) |
|
|
Term
| What organism causes chorioamnionitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasma Membrane |
|
Definition
| Function: Site of oxidative and transport enzymes Chemical composition: Lipoprotein bilayer |
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IgA proteases? |
|
Definition
| Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces |
|
|
Term
| Which heat-stable lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Capsule |
|
Definition
| Function: Protects against phagocytosis Chemical composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which contains D-glutamate) |
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Ribosome |
|
Definition
| Function: Protein synthesis Chemical composition: 50S and 30S subunits |
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Cell Wall/Cell Membrane |
|
Definition
| Gram positives only Function: Major surface antigen Chemical composition: Teichoic acid, which induces TNF and IL-1 |
|
|
Term
| What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of superantigens? |
|
Definition
| 1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor 2. Large numbers of T cells are activated. 3. Stimulates release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 |
|
|
Term
| Which molecule, unique to the bacterial cell wall, provides rigid support and resistance against osmotic pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cell membrane structure is unique to gram-positive organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Peptidoglycan |
|
Definition
| Function: Rigid support and Protects against osmotic pressure Chemical composition: Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains |
|
|
Term
| List of bugs that release superantigens |
|
Definition
| 1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Plasmid |
|
Definition
| Function: Contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins Chemical composition: DNA |
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Spore |
|
Definition
| Function: Provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals Chemical composition: Keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid |
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Flagellium |
|
Definition
| Function: Motility Chemical composition: Protein |
|
|
Term
| What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Glycocalyx |
|
Definition
| Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (eg indwelling catheters) Chemical composition: Polysaccharide |
|
|
Term
| Function of this structure: IgA proteases |
|
Definition
| Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria have IgA proteases? |
|
Definition
| 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Neisseria meningitidis 3. Neisseria gonorrheae 4. Hemophilus influenzae |
|
|
Term
| What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Treponema |
|
Definition
| Too thin to be visualized |
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Rickettsia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria |
|
Definition
| high-lipid-content cell wall |
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycoplasma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Legionella pneumophila |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Chlamydia |
|
Definition
| Intracellular parasite which lacks muramic acid in cell wall |
|
|
Term
| How is the following bug visualized?: Treponema |
|
Definition
| 1. Darkfield microscopy 2. Fluorescent antibody staining 3. silver stain |
|
|
Term
| Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria |
|
Definition
| Acid fast for high lipid content cell wall |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Lag |
|
Definition
| 1st phase: Metabolic activity without division |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Log |
|
Definition
| 2nd phase: Rapid cell division |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Stationary |
|
Definition
| 3rd phase: Nutrient depletion slows growth |
|
|
Term
| What happens in the following phase of bacterial growth, and where does it fall in the order?: Death |
|
Definition
| 4th phase: Prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products leads to death |
|
|
Term
| Mechanism of superantigens |
|
Definition
| 1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor 2. Large numbers of T cells are activated. 3. Stimulates release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 |
|
|
Term
| List of bugs that release superantigens |
|
Definition
| 1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| What to know about exotoxins released by Clostridium tetani |
|
Definition
| Blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. Causes ""lockjaw"" |
|
|
Term
| What to know about exotoxins released by Bacillus anthracis |
|
Definition
| 1 toxin in the toxin complex is edema factor, an adenylate cyclase |
|
|
Term
| What to know about exotoxins released by Shigella |
|
Definition
| Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7). Cleaves host cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic uremic syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| Endotoxin: What is it and where is it found? |
|
Definition
| Lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. Heat stable. |
|
|
Term
| Endotoxin: What does it activate and what do they release? |
|
Definition
| 1. Macrophages (IL-1, TNF, Nitric oxide) 2. Alternative complement pathway (C3a, C5a) 3. Hageman factor (Coagulation cascade) |
|
|
Term
| What mediators are released when endotoxin activates macrophages, and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| 1. IL-1: Fever 2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue necrosis 3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock) |
|
|
Term
| What mediators are released when endotoxin activates the alternative complement cascade, and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| 1. C3a: Hypotension and edema 2. C5a: Neutrophil chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
| What mediators are released when endotoxin activates Hageman factor, and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| Coagulation cascade: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy |
|
|
Term
| What method is used to differentiate Neisseria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do meningococci ferment? |
|
Definition
| MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose |
|
|
Term
| What do gonococci ferment? |
|
Definition
| Gonococci ferments Glucose |
|
|
Term
| What are the pigment producing bacteria and what pigments do they produce? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment Serratia marcescens: red pigment |
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Hemophilus influenzae |
|
Definition
| Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin) |
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Bordetella pertussis |
|
Definition
| Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar |
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: M. tuberculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria |
|
Definition
| Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar |
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Legionella |
|
Definition
| Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine |
|
|
Term
| Special culture requirements for: Fungi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What microbes can be stained with: Congo red |
|
Definition
| Amyloid. Apple-green birefringence in polarized light (because of beta-pleated sheets) |
|
|
Term
| What microbes can be stained with: Giemsa's |
|
Definition
| 1. Borrelia 2. Plasmodium 3. Trypanosomes 4. Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
| What microbes can be stained with: periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) |
|
Definition
| Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to diagnose Whipple's disease |
|
|
Term
| What microbes can be stained with: Ziehl-Neelsen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What microbes can be stained with: India ink |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What microbes can be stained with: Silver stain |
|
Definition
| 1. Fungi 2. PCP (Pneumocystis Pneumonia) 3. Legionella 4. Treponema |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the genetic code for a bacterial toxin is encoded in a lysogenic phage. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| BCDE 1. Botulinum 2. Cholera 3. Diphtheria 4. Erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus Pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| List four obligate aerobes. |
|
Definition
| Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus |
|
|
Term
| Where in the lung does M. tuberculosis prefer, and why? |
|
Definition
| Apices of the lung, as they have the highest PO2. |
|
|
Term
| What conditions occur concurrently with P. Aeruginosa infection? |
|
Definition
| 1. Burn wounds 2. Nosocomial pneumonia 3. Pneumonias in Cystic Fibrosis patients |
|
|
Term
| List 3 obligate anaerobes |
|
Definition
| Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces |
|
|
Term
| What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack? |
|
Definition
| Catalase (aka glutathione peroxidase) AND/OR Superoxide dismutase (converts O2-radical[ie superoxide] to H2O2) |
|
|
Term
| Why are anaerobes foul-smelling? |
|
Definition
| They produce short-chain fatty acids. |
|
|
Term
| What do anaerobes produce in tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are anaerobes normal flora? |
|
Definition
| 1. GI tract 2. Between teeth and gums |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotics are particularly ineffective against anaerobes? |
|
Definition
| AminO2glycosides, as they require O2 to enter the bacterial cell. |
|
|
Term
| List the obligate intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
| Rickettsia and Chlamydia. |
|
|
Term
| What is the defining characteristic of obligate intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
| Can't make their own ATP. |
|
|
Term
| List the facultative intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
| Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia |
|
|
Term
| List four major examples of encapsulated bacteria |
|
Definition
| 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Hemophilus influenzae (especially B serotype) 3. Neisseria meningitidis 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| What does a positive quellung reaction indicate? |
|
Definition
| Positive quellung: If encapsulated bug is present, capsule swells when specific anticapsular antisera are added. |
|
|
Term
| In which vaccines does the capsule serve as an antigen? |
|
Definition
| Pneumovax, H influenzae B, Meningococcal vaccines |
|
|
Term
| What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines that have a capsular antigen? |
|
Definition
| Increases the immunogenicity and T-cell dependent responce. |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria form spores? |
|
Definition
| Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani) |
|
|
Term
| How can one destroy spores? |
|
Definition
| Autoclave (as is done to surgical equipment) |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic? |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus (all catalase-negative) |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic? |
|
Definition
| Rods: Listeria monocytogenes Cocci:If catalase positive and coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus If catalase negative, Streptococcus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the important points about Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
| 1. Tumbling motility 2. Meningitis in newborns 3. Unpasteurized milk |
|
|
Term
| Gram positive: Which are catalase positive and which are catalase negative? |
|
Definition
| Positive: Staph Negative: Strep |
|
|
Term
| Gram positive: Which are catalase positive bacteria make coagulase? |
|
Definition
| Staph aureus does. Staph epidermidis and saprophyticus do not. |
|
|
Term
| Which antibody enhances host defenses against Streptococcus Pyogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antibody to M protein enhances host defenses against what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does ASO titer detect? |
|
Definition
| Recent S. Pyogenes infection |
|
|
Term
| How can one detect recent S. Pyogenes infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
| 1. Subcutaneous nodules 2. Polyarthritis 3. Erythema marginatum 4. Chorea 5. Carditis (bacterial endocarditis) |
|
|
Term
| What drug resistances do the enterococci show? |
|
Definition
| 1. Penicillin G 2. Ampicillin 3. Vancomycin |
|
|
Term
| What is Lancefield grouping determined by? |
|
Definition
| Differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall |
|
|
Term
| Which Group D bacteria are hardier? |
|
Definition
| Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococci. They can grow in 6.5% NaCl |
|
|
Term
| A colony of bacteria grows in 6.5% NaCl. What is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states/problems does Staphylococcus epidermidis cause? |
|
Definition
| Infection of prosthetic devices and catheters. Contaminates blood cultures. |
|
|
Term
| How is Streptococcus Viridans characterized? |
|
Definition
| 1. Alpha hemolysis 2. Optochin resistant 3. Normal mouth flora |
|
|
Term
| Where is Strep. Viridans part of the normal flora? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease states/problems does Streptococcus Viridans cause? |
|
Definition
| 1. Dental caries (Streptococcus mutans) 2. Subacute Bacterial endocarditis (Streptococcus Sanguis) |
|
|
Term
| How are clostridia characterized? |
|
Definition
| 1. Gram positive rods 2. Spore forming 3. Obligate anaerobes |
|
|
Term
| What disease state does Clostridium difficile cause? |
|
Definition
| pseudomembranous colitis secondary to clindamycin or ampicillin use. (Mnemonic: DIfficile causes DIarrhea) |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for C. difficile infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lab diagnosis basis for Cornyebacterium diphtheriae |
|
Definition
| Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules, grown on tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium) |
|
|
Term
| How is Bacillus anthracis characterized? |
|
Definition
| 1. Gram positive rod 2. Spore forming 3. Protein capsule |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria have a protein capsule? |
|
Definition
| Bacillus anthracis (the only one) |
|
|
Term
| What are the mechanisms of anthrax infection? |
|
Definition
| 1. Non-inhalation contact with bacillus anthracis 2. Formation of malignant pustule (painless ulcer) 3. Progression to bacteremia 4. Death |
|
|
Term
| What are the mechanisms of anthrax disease? |
|
Definition
| 1. Inhalation of spores 2. Development of flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage and shock. |
|
|
Term
| What organism: Development of flulike symptoms followed by fever, pulmonary hemorrhage and shock. |
|
Definition
| Inhalation anthrax: Bacillus anthracis |
|
|
Term
| What organism: Gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi |
|
Definition
| Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides |
|
|
Term
| What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules in sinus tracts |
|
Definition
| Actinomyces israelii "Sulfer granules that aren't really sulfer seen in orofacial infections |
|
|
Term
| What disease state does Actinomyces israelii cause? |
|
Definition
| Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules draining out skin through sinus tracts |
|
|
Term
| How is Actinomyces israelii characterised? |
|
Definition
| Gram-positive anaerobic rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Nocardia also has this description) |
|
|
Term
| How is Nocardia asteroides characterized? |
|
Definition
| Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this description) |
|
|
Term
| What disease state does Nocardia asteroides cause? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Actinomyces israelii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component is unique to gram positive cell walls? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What component is unique to gram negative cell walls? |
|
Definition
| Lipopolysaccharide (LPS); Endotoxin |
|
|
Term
| Treponema do not gram stain well, so what method would be used to visualize this bacteria? |
|
Definition
| Darkfield microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining |
|
|
Term
| Mycobacteria do not gram stain well so what method is used to visualize them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Legionella do not gram stain well so what method is used to visualize them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is more fatal, exotoxin or endotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What induces high-titer antibodies and is used in vaccines, exotoxin or endotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is NOT secreted from the cell, exotoxin or endotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Binds directly to MHC-II and T-cell receptor activating T cells to release IFN-gamma and IL-2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Responsible for toxic shock syndrome? |
|
Definition
| TSST-1 released by Staph. aureus; Strep. pyogenes can also cause toxic shock-like symptoms |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of meningitis, otitis media (children), pneumonia, and sinusitis |
|
Definition
| Streptococcus pneumonia; "MOPS" |
|
|
Term
| ADP-ribosylating toxin of this organism inactivates EF-2 leading to pseudomembranous pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diptheriae (Pseudomonas also inactivate EF-2 but more closely related to burn victims not pharyngitis) |
|
|
Term
| ADP ribosylating toxin of these organism leads to G protein stimulation of adenylyl cyclase. |
|
Definition
| Vibrio cholerae; E. coli has a heat labile toxin that works in a similar manner to cause watery diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| This organisms heat stable toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase (instead of adenylate cyclase) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ADP ribosylating toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase to cause whooping cough? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The alpha-toxin of this organism causes gas gangrene and double zone of hemolysis on blood agar. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Toxin of this organism blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine? |
|
Definition
| C. tetani; causes "lockjaw" |
|
|
Term
| Toxin of this organism blocks the release of acetylcholine? |
|
Definition
| C. botulinum; causes flaccid paralysis "floppy baby" |
|
|
Term
| Toxin of this organism kills enterocytes resulting in pseudomembranous colitis? |
|
Definition
| C. difficile, often secondary to the antibiotic clindamycin or ampicillin |
|
|
Term
| This toxin cleaves host cell rRNA? |
|
Definition
| Shiga toxin produced by shigella (also produced by some strains of E. coli) |
|
|
Term
| The toxin of this organism is a hemolysin? |
|
Definition
| streptolysin O of S. pyogenes(Beta hemolytic) |
|
|
Term
| Endotoxin activates release of what factors from macrophages? |
|
Definition
| IL-1 (fever), TNF (fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis), NO (hypotension) |
|
|
Term
| Endotoxin activates which members of the complement pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endotoxin activates what factor to cause DIC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you differentiate between N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae (lab test)? |
|
Definition
| Meningitidis ferments maltose and gonorrhoeae does not |
|
|
Term
| How would you differentiate between the cocci staphylococcus and streptococcus? |
|
Definition
| Staph is catalase positive and strep is catalase negative |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 common gram positive rods? |
|
Definition
| Clostridium, listeria, bacillus, corynebacterium |
|
|
Term
| This coccoid rod requires chocolate agar with factor V and X for isolation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This obligate aerobe requires a Lowenstein-Jensen agar for isolation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PAS positive macrophages are found in this disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This organism is identified by india ink. |
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Definition
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Term
| This two organisms are difficult to gram stain because they can't make their own ATP. |
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Definition
| Rickettsia and chlamydia, intracellular organisms |
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Term
| How would you distinguish strep pneumonia from viridans streptococci? |
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Definition
| Both are catalase negative (strep) and alpha hemolytic; pneumo is optochin sensitive and viridans is optochin resistant |
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Term
| Ingestion of this gram positive cocci's preformed toxin is a common cause of food poisening. |
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Definition
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Term
| This organisms of normal flora can cause subacute endocarditis? |
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Definition
| Viridans streptococci (often as dental procedure sequelae) |
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Term
| This organism of normal flora can infect prosthetic devices, catheters, and contaminate blood cultures. |
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Definition
| Staphylococcus epidermidis |
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Term
| This gram positive, spore forming bacilli produces an a-toxin that causes myonecrosis, gas gangrene, or hemolysis. |
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Definition
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Term
| Gram+, spore bacilli causes painless ulceration on skin contact or progressive pulmonary problems on inhalation. |
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Definition
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Term
| Treatment for gram-positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi. |
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Definition
| Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroides; SNAP (Sulfa for Nocordia, Actinomyces use Penicillin) |
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Term
| The outer membrane layer of these organisms inhibit entry of penicillin G and vancomycin. |
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Definition
| Gram negative bugs; some may however be susceptible to derivatives of penicillin G such as ampicillin |
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|
Term
| Which variant of Neisseria has a polysaccharide capsule? |
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Definition
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Term
| Can cause epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia. |
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Definition
| Haemophilus influenze; does not cause the flu however |
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|
Term
| This organism causes pneumonia in alcoholics, and diabetics, with a red currant jelly sputum. |
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Definition
| Klebsiella; 3 A's: aspiration pneumonia, abscess in lungs, alcoholics |
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|
Term
| 3 lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria? |
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Definition
| Klebsiella, E.coli, Enterobacter; grow pink colonies on MacConkeys agar |
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Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Gram negative "coccoid" rod which requires NAD and hematin for culture? |
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Definition
| H. influenzae; NAD is factor V and hematin is factor X |
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Term
| Coccoid rod with an ADP ribosylating toxin? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Lactose non-fermenting rod, oxidase positive? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Lactose non-fermenting rod, oxidase negative, bloody diarrhea, motile? |
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Definition
| Salmonella; "salmon swim" |
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|
Term
| Lactose non-fermenting rod, oxidase positive, bloody diarrhea, immotile? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This organism can cause bloody diarrhea, and mimic Crohn's or a "pseudoappendicitis". |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes food poisoning through contaminated seafood? |
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Definition
| Vibrio parahaemolyticus and V. vulificus |
|
|
Term
| Causes food poisoning through reheated rice? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes food poisoning in meats. (4 organisms) |
|
Definition
| S. aureus, C perfringens (reheated meat), E.coli, Salmonella |
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|
Term
| These 3 viruses cause watery diarrhea? |
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Definition
| rotavirus, adenovirus, norwalk virus |
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|
Term
| This organism causes bloody diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This protozoan can cause bloody diarrhea. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| These protoza can cause watery diarrhea, but one strikes campers and the other the immunocomprimised. |
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Definition
| Giardia (campers) cryptosporidium (immunocompromised) |
|
|
Term
| This organism can cause watery diarrhea and gas gangrene? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This organisms toxin permanently activates Gs causing rice water diarrhea? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This organisms toxin disables Gi, causing a whooping cough? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| The toxin of this organism is composed of a bacterial adenylate cyclase (edema factor) which increases cAMP. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This organism requires silver stain and has an aerosol transmission from environmental water source. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This organism is associated with wound and burn infection and a common cause of pneumonia in those with CF. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This urease positive organism is associated with 90% of duodenal ulcers |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This bacteria is commonly spread by tick bite? |
|
Definition
| Borrelia burgdorferi in lyme disease (francisella tularensis is also spread by tick bite) |
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|
Term
| This bacteria is associated with flea bite? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| This bacteria is the cause of cellulitis with dog and cat bites. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| In vaginosis, greenish, vaginal discharge with fishy smell, what would be expected under the microscope? |
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Definition
| Gardnerella vaginalis; clue cells, or vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria |
|
|
Term
| What are common presentations of pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
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Definition
| Burn and wound infections and Pneumonia (esp in CF), Sepsis (black lesions on skin), External otitis (swimmers ear), UTI, Diabetic osteomyelitis |
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|
Term
| What is the treatment of H. pylori? |
|
Definition
| 1)bismuth, metronidazole, and TTC or amoxicillin 2) Metronidazole, omeprazole, clarithromycin (expensive) |
|
|
Term
| This organism causes an undulant fever and is often acquired from dairy products. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
| aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (piperacillin, ticarcillin) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for legionella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for G. vaginalis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
| ceftriaxone (meningitis), rifampin (prophylaxis in close contacts) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 causes of a positive PPD test? (excluding false positive) |
|
Definition
| Current infection, past exposure, BCG vaccination |
|
|
Term
| What is the Ghon complex? |
|
Definition
| TB granulomas with lobar (usually lower) and perihilar lymph node involvement. Reflects primary infection. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most commmon symptoms of TB? |
|
Definition
| fever, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis |
|
|
Term
| Patients presents with loss of eyebrows, nasal collapse, a deformed earlobe, and multiple lesions of the face. |
|
Definition
| Leprosy; mycobacterium leprae |
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|
Term
| Patient presents with fever, headache, and rash. Diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Rickettsiae; classic triad of fever, headache and rash. Others my apply but if this is all you get, think Ricketts! |
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|
Term
| What is the treatment for all forms of Rickettsiae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patient presents with rash on palms of hand and soles of feet. What is the differential? (Hint: 3 of them) |
|
Definition
| Rocky mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia), syphillis, Coxsackie A (Hand, foot, and mouth disease) |
|
|
Term
| What is the Weil-Felix reaction? |
|
Definition
| antirickettsial antibodies, usually positive for rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic cause of "walking" pneumonia? (insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| tetracycline or erythromycin |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms of chlamydia? |
|
Definition
| Elementary body which is extracellular form that enters cell by endocytosis; Reticulate body which replicates in cell by fission |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 spirochetes? |
|
Definition
| Borrelia, leptospira, and treponema |
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