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NATOPS Question Bank 5
NATOPS
444
Other
Not Applicable
12/06/2010
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Term
Oil quantity below ________ % of usable capacity (this should be reported as a discrepancy) requires engine servicing before the next takeoff.
 Definition
80
Term
What is the engine oil system's usable capacity?
 Definition
13.6 quarts
Term
If the R OIL LOW light illuminates when the LOX FUEL OIL QTY test switch is depressed, right engine oil quantity is _______ percent of useable capacity.
 Definition
Between 20 and 80
Term
The engine's sixth through 12th stages of compression form the low pressure compressor.
 Definition
FALSE
Term
The L or R FUEL PSI light illuminates when fuel pressure downstream of the engine driven centrifugal stage fuel pump falls below _____ to _____ psi.
 Definition
11, 15
Term
What type of engines are installed in the EA-6B?
 Definition
Nonafterburning, axial flow, turbojet
Term
During engine start, the Starter light should go out by _____ % RPM.
 Definition
48
Term
During engine shutdown, the fuel pressurizing-and-dump valve drains the:
 Definition
Primary Manifold
Term
The EA-6B engine develops approximately _____ pounds of thrust at maximum continuous power.
 Definition
9300
Term
A fuel pressure differential of ____ to ____ psi across the engine fuel filter will cause fuel to bypass the filter.
 Definition
8, 10
Term
An unsolicited illumination of the L or R OIL LOW light indicates oil quantity has dropped below _____ % of useable capacity.
 Definition
20
Term
The engine's igniters are located in combustion chambers:( The engine is equiped with how many igniters
 Definition
2
Term
The approximate change in fuel flow with an inlet guide vane failure is _____ pph.
 Definition
450
Term
With an inlet guide failure, EGT will decrease approximately _____ degrees C.
 Definition
10
Term
What is normal engine oil system pressure above 90% RPM?
 Definition
40 to 50 psi
Term
Minimum oil pressure below 90 percent RPM is _____ psi.
 Definition
35
Term
What is the maximum allowable hourly engine oil consumption over a 10 hour period?
 Definition
36 oz
Term
During engine start, move the throttle around the horn to idle at ____ to ____ percent RPM.
 Definition
15, 18
Term
A _____ psi differential pressure across the respective fuel filter causes the L or R FILTER light to illuminate.
 Definition
5
Term
During start, monitor EGT to ensure it remains below _____ degrees C.
 Definition
474
Term
To perform a crossover bleed start, advance the operating engine to _____ % RPM.
 Definition
75
Term
The tachometer generator's signal represents rotational speed of the:
 Definition
High pressure compressor.
Term
What function is performed by the engine's diffuser section?
 Definition
Slows airflow and increases pressure to combustion chambers
Term
Normal idle RPM is ____ to ____ percent.
 Definition
50, 58
Term
If an OUTBD and INBD WG PSI light comes on in normal flight with the landing gear down, how can wing and drop tank transfer be reestablished?
 Definition
TANK PRESS switch to ORIDE
Term
During inflight refueling with the refueling switch in FLT, all received fuel will enter the fuselage and centerline drop tank if the WING DUMP switch is placed in the DUMP position.
 Definition
True
Term
On which stations can drop tanks be installed?
 Definition
1 through 5
Term
The fuselage tanks can carry _____ pounds of useable JP-5.
 Definition
8800
Term
With RAT power, only the drop tank fuel will transfer.
 Definition
False
Term
Which tanks can be selectively measured by the small needle on the fuel quantity indicator in block 82 aircraft?
 Definition
All of the above
Term
At what psi does the OUTBD WG light illuminate, and at what psi does it go out?
 Definition
5, 6
Term
Why can't the EA-6B dump fuel with a complete electrical failure?
 Definition
Dump valves won't open
Term
With a complete electrical failure, the wing tanks will not transfer fuel.
 Definition
False
Term
With the WING DUMP switch in the DUMP position, wing pressure is ____ psi.
 Definition
12
Term
With the WING DUMP switch in the DUMP position, the dump sequence is:
 Definition
None of the above
Term
The LOW FUEL caution light is located on the Fuel Management panel.
 Definition
False
Term
In which position must the WING DROP TANK TRANS switch be set to transfer fuel from the centerline drop tank?
 Definition
NORM
Term
What is the wing and drop tank pressures with the aircraft in flight and the TANK PRESS switch in the ORIDE position?
 Definition
12 and 25 psi, respectively
Term
How many fuselage tanks are in the EA-6B?
 Definition
3
Term
With RAT power, which tanks can be dumped?
 Definition
Wing, inboard, and outboard drops
Term
With ground power applied and before starting engines, the pilot pushes the BOOST PUMP TEST button. Normal indications are:
 Definition
L and R FUEL PSI lights on
Term
At normal and high AOA, what is the minimum amount of fuel remaining when the LOW FUEL light illuminates? (What is the amount of fuel remaining when the LOW FUEL light illuminates?)
 Definition
2300 lbs at 6.5 AOA
1800 lbs at higher AOA
Term
The aircraft is in flight with landing gear down. The TANK PRESS switch is in the NORM position. What is the wing pressure and drop tank pressure?
 Definition
Term
How is fuel transfer from the wing and wing drop tanks initiated when the aircraft is on the ground?
 Definition
By placing the switch to override.
Term
At normal cruise attitude, how much fuel remains when the LOW FUEL caution light illuminates? (Delete)
 Definition
2300lbs
Term
With no malfunctions, the EA-6B can dump to _____ pounds of fuel minimum at normal AOA and _____ at high AOA.
 Definition
Term
List the fuel pressures for wings and drops on deck (OVRD), airborne (clean and NORM), and airborne (gear down and NORM).
 Definition
Term
The fuel control monitors what four variables to determine flow?
 Definition
Burner pressure
Inlet Temperature
Throttle position
Engine RPM
Term
Why do we never perform the boost pump test while airborne?
 Definition
The pump could fail.
Term
What three things occur when the ENG FUEL MASTER switch is turned on?
 Definition
Energizes the electric boost pump
Enable the push to crank
Opens the fuel gate valves.
Term
The flight hydraulic accumulator gauge on the right keel reads 2000 psi, but no engines are running. The pressure is:
 Definition
Normal
Term
If the flap handle is down and the Emergency Flap switch is selected up, the flaps and slats:
 Definition
If down, will be driven up.
Term
Which hydraulic system is utilized to stop the aircraft on the ground in the event of a combined secondary system failure?
 Definition
Auxiliary
Term
With the Isolation Valve switch in the LDG position, the combined hydraulic system supplies fluid to:
 Definition
Combined primary and combined secondary systems.
The auxiliary hydraulic system.
Both b and c.
Term
Which system supplies fluid for auxiliary hydraulic system?
 Definition
Combined system
Term
Why are there two main hydraulic systems?
 Definition
Redundancy in the event of damage
Term
What condition will prevent recharging the brake cycles gauge?
 Definition
Combined hydraulic fluid loss
Term
How many hydraulic system pumps per engine are on the aircraft?
 Definition
2-one for the combined and one for the flight sys
Term
With a complete electrical failure, the isolation valve will:
 Definition
Open
Term
With a flight hydraulic system failure, the isolation valve is open with the Isolation Valve switch in the LDG position.
 Definition
False-valve closes
Term
There are no system failures, but when you attempt to raise the birdcage, it does not move immediately when you press the auxiliary hydraulic system switch. What is the most likely reason?
 Definition
Depletion of wheel brake accumulator
Term
How many controls are provided for charging the auxiliary hydraulic system?
 Definition
4
Term
What indications are provided by the two right hand gauges on the hydraulic indicator?
 Definition
Right engine flight and combined system pressure
Term
The flight or combined hydraulic system alone is capable of powering the flight controls throughout the flight envelope except at high indicated mach numbers.
 Definition
True- up to 90%
Term
Placing the Isolation valve switch to the FLT position energizes the isolation valve solenoid and causes the valve to close.
 Definition
True
Term
The landing gear handle is up, the Isolation Valve switch is in the LDG position, and the flight hydraulic system has failed. What is the status of the combined secondary hydraulic system?
 Definition
Unpressurized- combined secondary is lost with a flight hyd sys failure
Term
With the Isolation Valve switch in the LDG position, normal flight system pressure holds the isolation valve open.
 Definition
True
Term
How many aircraft systems are operated from the combined secondary hydraulic system?
 Definition
10
Term
In what position must the brake handle be for auxiliary brake operation?
 Definition
In and horizontal
Term
The auxiliary hydraulic system pressure indicator is:
 Definition
On the brake cycle gauge.
Term
When preparing to land, lowering flaps increases stabilizer leading edge down travel from 10 degrees to ________ degrees.(Delete, see 152)
 Definition
24
Term
While operating on the RAT, the hydraulic pressure gauges on the pilot's lower instrument panel indicate actual flight and combined system pressures.
 Definition
False
Term
What indications are displayed by the two top gauges on the hydraulic indicator?
 Definition
Right and left engine flight system pressure
Term
Hydraulic systems are operating normally, but the aircraft is on RAT power. Which hydraulic system or systems are pressurized?
 Definition
Flight and Combined
Auxiliary
B and C
Term
Under which condition will a RUD THRO light illuminate?
 Definition
Assist spin recovery system is on
Term
Nosewheel steering is automatically activated when aircraft weight is on the wheels during a field landing.
 Definition
False
Term
What condition must exist to allow combined secondary system pressurization.
 Definition
Flight system pressurized and isolation valve open
Normal combined system pressure
Both a and c
Term
The tandem flight control actuators allow operation of the flight controls from the flight hydraulic or auxiliary hydraulic system.
 Definition
False
Term
Electrical power to control the landing gear hydraulic system comes from the ________ circuit breaker.
 Definition
Gear/Hook CB
Term
List the 10 items powered by the combined secondary hydraulic system.
 Definition
5 UP: wing fold, wing lock, flaps, slats, pop-ups
5 down: landing gear, arresting hook retract, wheel brakes, nose wheel steering, strut locks
Term
Normal hydraulic system pressure is ________ psi.
 Definition
3000 psi
Term
In Block 89 aircraft the HYD SYS caution light illuminates when discharge pressure from the combined or flight engine driven hydraulic pumps falls below ________ psi plus or minus 100 psi.
 Definition
1400 goes out at >1900
Term
List the systems powered by auxiliary hydraulics.
 Definition
BAR-
Birdcage/Aux brakes/Radome
Term
List ten items on the combined secondary hydraulic system. Circle those with an alternate means of activation.
 Definition
5 UP: wing fold, wing lock, *flaps, *slats, pop-ups
5 down: *landing gear, arresting hook retract, *wheel brakes, nose wheel steering, strut locks
Term
List the items on the flight hydraulic system.
 Definition
1/2 flight controls
AFCS
Isolation Valve
Term
You have extended the flaps to 30 degrees. At what position will the slats be?
 Definition
27 degrees
Term
With hydraulic systems normal, flap control handle set to 20 degrees and flaps and slats positioned at 20 degrees and out, selection of the Emergency Flap switch will override the hydraulic system.
 Definition
True
Term
The flap hydraulic motor is not braked unless the flaps are in a detent selected position.
 Definition
True
Term
Where is the Rudder Trim switch located?
 Definition
Pilot's left console
Term
Moving the stick grip 'coolie cap' switch left or right adjusts stabilizer trim.
 Definition
False- flaperon trim
Term
How many degrees is full rudder deflection with spin assist on?
 Definition
35
Term
If the trim button becomes dislodged, contact with the exposed probe with electrical power on can result in incapacitation or unconsciousness.
 Definition
True
Term
How many degrees of asymmetrical difference between speedbrakes will cause the speedbrakes to close?
 Definition
greater than 8 degrees asymmetric: automatically close
Term
0.3 inches of rudder pedal deflection is required to achieve full rudder deflection in the clean cruise configuaration.
 Definition
True
Term
How much rudder pedal deflection is required to achieve full rudder deflection in the i) Clean cruise configuration ii) Flaps down iii) ASR - On
 Definition
1) flaps up: .3"
2) flaps down: 1.9"
3) ASR On: 2.9"
Term
When the stabilizer is in the flaps up configuaration, what appears in the STAB window of the integrated position indicator?
 Definition
CLEAN
Term
Where is the STAB TRIM indicator located?
 Definition
Below the PHD
Term
When Assist Spin Recovery switch is turned off, the aircraft nose will:
 Definition
Pitch down.
Term
In normal flight, the left and right wing flaperon panels rise up simultaneously to spoil lift and create aircraft roll.
 Definition
False
Term
Flaps are down and weight is off the wheels. Rudder travel limit is ________ degrees either side of neutral.
 Definition
24
Term
Flaps may not extend fully to 30 degrees above ________ knots.
 Definition
180
Term
What aircraft maneuver is induced by placing the Assist Spin Recovery switch on?
 Definition
Nose up pitch
Term
Where is the flaperon trim indicator located?
 Definition
On the control stick
Term
With a combined hydraulic failure, assist spin recovery throws can be obtained by using the 24 Vdc backup battery.
 Definition
False- no hydraulic fluid available with the combined system is lost
Term
In the AUTO mode, selecting the AFCS Emergency Disconnect switch will revert the system to STAB AUG.
 Definition
False
Term
The Speedbrake Control switch is placed in the forward position. What will be displayed on the speedbrake indicator when the brakes reach the selected position?
 Definition
IN
Term
What is the possible result of switching the ASR system on at low airspeed?
 Definition
Aircraft stall due to nose pitchup
Term
Where is the Assist Spin Recovery switch located?
 Definition
Throttle quadrant
Term
Full lateral control stick movement results in outboard and inboard flaperon panel deflection of 51 degrees.
 Definition
True
Term
What does illumination of the RUD THRO caution light mean?
 Definition
Extended throws are available
Term
What four conditions must be met for flaperon popup to work?
 Definition
popup switch: armed
Left W-ON-W
Throttles: Idle
Wings spread and locked.
Stick within 1" neutral laterally
Term
List the conditions that cause the Wheels Warning light to flash.
 Definition
1. Thottles: <83 +/- 3%
2. Gear not down and locked
3. Flaps other than UP
Term
During landing rollout you notice a continuous lack of nosewheel steering. You should suspect a ________ weight-on-wheels switch failure. Is antiskid available? Explain.
 Definition
Right WOW switch
no, right wow failure results in a sustained brake release signal when below 10-15 kts (brakes will completely release) with no caution light.
Term
Nosewheel steering limits are ________ degrees either side of center.
 Definition
60
Term
Nosewheel steering responds to lateral movements of the control stick.
 Definition
False
Term
In flight, the wheels warning light will flash when flaps are not retracted, all three wheels are not down and locked, and one throttle is retarded below 83 +/- 3%. (Delete)
 Definition
True
Term
Where is the Hook Transition light located?
 Definition
Hook Lift button
Term
Left or right lateral movement of the control stick is limited to ________ inch(es) when the flaperons are popped up.
 Definition
1
Term
The Wheels Transition light will illuminate if the landing gear's position does not agree with the landing gear handle's position.
 Definition
True
Term
During FCLP, the correct procedure to eliminate a flashing approach indexer light is to:
 Definition
Place the HOOK BYPASS switch to TOUGH-GO.
Term
Which circuit breaker provides electrical power to the landing gear selector valve?
 Definition
Gear/hook CB
Term
The pilot can increase the number of auxiliary brake applications by use of the hand pump or electric pump, either in flight or on the ground.
 Definition
True
Term
If raising the landing gear using the override method, the pilot should also:
 Definition
Disarm the Flaperon popups.
Term
What will deactivate the antiskid system?
 Definition
Depressing the Nosewheel Steering switch
The ANTISKID switch is OFF.
Wheel brake handle pulled or turned
All of the above
Term
The Anti-skid light will illuminate if:
 Definition
The ANTISKID switch is OFF.
Locked wheel circuitry has timed out.
The system has malfunctioned.
The wheel brake handle is not in and vertical.
All of the above.
The system has malfunctioned.
Term
If the aircraft has normal hydraulic and electrical power, and weight is on the wheels, what condition will activate the nosewheel steering system.
 Definition
Hook down
Term
The left WOW switch completes the electrical circuit to the landing gear handle lock solenoid to prevent inadvertent movement of the landing gear handle on the ground.
 Definition
True
Term
With the hook up, normal arresting hook dashpot pressure is ________ psi.
 Definition
1000
Term
Nosewheel steering is activated. What is required if a turn tighter than 60 degrees is desired.
 Definition
Use differential braking
Term
In what position should the brake handle be for normal wheel brake operation.
 Definition
IN and vertical
Term
What are the indications in the cockpit if the nosewheel is cocked while airborne?
 Definition
TOW LINK in the IPI nosewheel window and flashing approach indexer
Term
How many emergency brake applications are available without recharging the accumulator?
 Definition
4 to 7
Term
The tow link is lowered by:
 Definition
By hand.
Term
When airborne with the antiskid system armed, the WOW switch causes:
 Definition
Complete brake release.
Term
Which hydraulic system pressurizes the normal braking system?
 Definition
Combined secondary
Term
Placing the landing gear handle to the down position:
 Definition
Electrically positions the landing gear selector valve to the down position allowing hydraulic pressure to lower the landing gear.
Term
You should dump cabin pressure before lowering the landing gear above ________ feet MSL.
 Definition
8000" MSL
Term
Flaps are up, ASR is off, aircraft is airborne. Rudder travel limits are _____ degrees either side of neutral.
 Definition
+/-4
Term
List five secondary indications that all three landing gear are down and locked.
 Definition
1. Wheels warning Light: OFF
2. Whells Transition Light: OFF
3. AOA and Approach Lights: ON
4. Taxi/Probe Light: TAXI ON
5. Lowner Anti Collision Light: Off
Term
What is acceptable range of pressure for the emergency landing gear extension system at 70 degrees fahrenheit?
 Definition
Landing Gear Blow Down: 2450-3000 psi
Term
With the flaperon popup system armed, flaperons popup to the ________ degree position on touchdown.
 Definition
51
Term
With the Wheel Brake Handle rotated 90 degrees clockwise which system is most likely to pressurize the Brake Control Valves?
 Definition
Auxiliary hydraulics
Term
Use the landing gear override lever to:
 Definition
Term
Stabilizer control increases from 10 degrees leading edge down in the clean configuration to ________ degrees leading edge down with flaps down or ASSIST SPIN RECOV selected.
 Definition
24
Term
Is taxiing with antiskid ON permissible? Why or why not?
 Definition
no, ???
Term
What causes the WINSHIELD AIR light to illuminate?
 Definition
WINDSHIELD switch in the AIR position
Term
If the cabin pressure regulator fails, what differential pressure will be maintained by the cabin safety valve?
 Definition
5.5 psi
Term
Illumination of the ELECTRONIC AIRFLOW caution light always indicates that the EQUIP COOL MASTER switch is in the OFF position.
 Definition
False
Term
The EQUIP COOL AIR MASTER switch controls the aft bleed air shutoff valve.
 Definition
True
Term
The NWW BLEED AIR switch is in AUTO. You place the AIR COND MASTER switch OFF. The defog system is not available.
 Definition
True
Term
The air conditioning system has failed. How is the RAM AIR mode of cockpit environmental control initiated to cool the cockpit?
 Definition
RAM Air:
1. Closes the cabin bleed air shutoff valve
2. Enables the operation of the ram air valve (cold opens, hot closes)
3. Drives the dual temp control valve full hot
Term
When does the canopy seal boot inflate?
 Definition
When the left weight off wheels switch is activated
Term
Either engine can be started utilizing the crossbleed start system when the gangbar is OFF.
 Definition
False
Term
The AIR COND MASTER switch controls which valve?
 Definition
Forward bleed air shutoff
Term
Excessive heat in the birdcage will cause the ________ light to illuminate.
 Definition
AEB TEMP (Blk. 82) or Aft Temp (Blk. 89)
Term
The bleed air auxiliary systems may be secured by turning off:
 Definition
Both engines.
Term
What is the cockpit pressurization schedule?
 Definition
0-8000: ambient altitude
8000-23000: 8000"
>23000: 5 psi differential
Term
Winshield Wash system is available anytime an engine is operating..
 Definition
True
Term
The AIR COND caution light illuminates. You verify that the AIR COND MASTER switch is in the NORM position. What is the problem?
 Definition
Overpressurization upstream of the forward water separator
Term
What is the source of air for the aircrew environmental control system?
 Definition
12th stage bleed air
Term
To prevent hot air from being pumped into the wing tanks, which 3 conditions must be met before checking fuel pressurization on deck?
 Definition
?????????
Term
Can fuel be transferred on deck with both left and right bleed air switches off and either engine working? Why or why not?
 Definition
?????????
Term
Name the systems powered by the NWW bleed air valve. What is the valve's normal position in flight?
 Definition
CWX
1. CSD Ejector Valve
2. Windshield Air
3. X-Bleed Start
AUTO
Term
While conducting air conditioning checks in the line, you turn the air conditioning COCKPIT switch off. What three functions does this accomplish?
 Definition
1. Closs the cabin bleed air shutoof valve
2. Closes the ram air valve
3. Drives the dual temp control valve to full hot
Term
Describe two ways to secure DEFOG if the thumbwheel becomes inoperative?
 Definition
????????
Term
One main generator is capable of carrying the entire EA-6B electrical load.
 Definition
True
Term
If an essential dc bus feeder circuit breaker pops in flight, the equipment powered by the circuit breaker may be regained by deploying the RAT.
 Definition
False- deploying the rat only regains ac
Term
The battery provides emergency essential dc bus power in the event of a RAT failure.
 Definition
False
Term
What is the source of AC power for the essential DC Bus with a right transformer/rectifier failure?
 Definition
Left generator
Term
How are pins E and F on the external power receptable normally jumpered when external power is applied to the aircraft at an Air Force base?
 Definition
External power plug adapter
Term
The EA-6B starter provides torque to turn the engine during start and serves as a drive shaft to transfer engine power to drive the CSD after engine start.
 Definition
True
Term
The TEST position on the generator switch provides a means to check:
 Definition
Generator Output
Term
Which bus(es) is/are powered from external power.
 Definition
All busses
Term
The CSD OVERHEAT light illuminates when the CSD uncouples from the starter.
 Definition
False
Term
An EA6B generator outputs ___kVA, ___ phase, ___Hz, ___Vac
 Definition
30kVA, 3 phase, 400 Hz, 115/200 Vac
Term
What is the airspeed limitation for deploying the RAT if a dual generator failure occurs during IMC conditions?
 Definition
No limitation
Term
The RAT generator's frequency is maintained by:
 Definition
A mechanical governor
Term
The RAT is rated at 2.5 kva, 115/200 volt, three phase, 400 Hz ac power.
 Definition
True
Term
RAT blade pitch varies with airspeeds above 110 KIAS to maintain a constant 8000 RPM.
 Definition
True
Term
What is indicated if a R GEN and R CSD OVERHEAT light are on simultaneously.
 Definition
CSD has uncoupled
Term
With a right generator failure, you must deploy the RAT to continue charging the ASR battery.
 Definition
False- the batter is charged from the 28Vdc essential bus
Term
Circuit breakers are safety devices to protect aircraft wiring and equipment from electrical overloads.
 Definition
True
Term
It is OK to apply external dc power to the EA-6B.
 Definition
False
Term
At what CSD temperature does the CSD uncouple?(Delete)
 Definition
354 degrees
Term
You may test the GEN and CSD OVERHEAT lights by:
 Definition
Pressing the LTS WARN switch.
Term
What are cockpit indications of a single generator failure?
 Definition
???????
Term
The indications of a Double Generator Failure are?
 Definition
Loss of ICS
No Caution lights Illuminated
Both B and C
Term
What is/are the indication(s) of a left transformer/rectifier failure with external power on the aircraft?
 Definition
?????????
Term
Which electrical busses will have power when operating on the RAT?
 Definition
Term
What is the minimum operating airspeed for the RAT?
 Definition
110
Term
You may retract the RAT with a combined hydraulic system failure.
 Definition
False
Term
In the event of a loss of all dc power on Block 89 aircraft, the aircraft back-up battery will provide power to what?
 Definition
Provides emergency power for selection of ASR and YRI if no other DC source is available.
Term
Which of the following items are available on RAT power only? RPM gauges; hydraulic gauges; TACAN; spin assist; emergency flaps/slats; speed brakes; EHSI, EADI; ASN-50
 Definition
RPM/TACAN/spin assit/EADI/EHSI/ASN-50/
Term
Configured PDDDP and operating on the RAT, what is the lowest gross weight you can possibly dump to? Use 33.0 K base, 2.2K per drop, 8K fuselage, 6.6K wing, 1K per pod.
 Definition
???????
Term
List the four systems lost when operating on the RAT which make it advisable to make an arrested landing.
 Definition
SNAPS
Speedbrakes
Nosewheel Steering
Anti-Skid
Pop-ups
Strut Locks
Term
What kind of electrical failure is indicated by losing radios and ICS while maintaining the ADI and instrument tapes?
 Definition
????????
Term
What attitude reference will be available on RAT power for EFIS equipped aircraft (non Blk. 89A)?
 Definition
EADI/EHSI
Front Cockpit ARI
Turn and Slip
Term
Where are the 2 indications of normal canopy system pressure?
 Definition
??????
Term
Both canopies may be jettisoned simultaneously from the:
 Definition
Front cockpit.
Term
Why is the ANTISKID caution light disabled when the emergency landing gear extension is activated?
 Definition
The forward gear doors are open
Term
A mechanical lock controlled by the ________ switch prevents the canopies from being inadvertently opened while airborne.
 Definition
Left weight on wheels
Term
The auxiliary canopy system provides a means to open the canopies if the normal system fails or normal system pressure is depleted.
 Definition
True
Term
The OVRD position on the normal CANOPY handle provides a way to by pass the airborne mechanical lock of the CANOPY handle.
 Definition
False
Term
After blowing the gear down with the landing gear handle in the UP position, primary and secondary indications of three down and locked are identical to normal landing gear system indications.
 Definition
False
Term
The emergency landing gear extension nitrogen bottles are located in the aft equipment bay.
 Definition
False
Term
The landing gear handle must be pulled out approximately ________ inches to initiate landing gear blowdown.
 Definition
3
Term
The minimum pressure to ensure normal canopy operation at 70 degrees fahrenheit is ________ psi.
 Definition
1000 psi
Term
Where is the emergency landing gear extension pressure gauge located?
 Definition
Nosewheel well
Term
The minimum pressure to ensure normal canopy operation at 70 degrees fahrenheit is ________ psi.
 Definition
1000 psi
Term
The pneumatic system charging module (for the equipment pressurization) is located in the aft equipment bay.
 Definition
False
Term
Where is the servicing point for the emergency landing gear extension system?
 Definition
Nosewheel well
Term
How many cycles does the auxiliary canopy system provide?
 Definition
1
Term
In what position must the landing gear handle be in order to operate the landing gear emergency blow down?
 Definition
Either up or down
Term
The normal canopy system will provide ________ cycles for each canopy when fully serviced.
 Definition
25
Term
When the normal canopy system closes and locks the canopy, it also pressurizes the canopy seal.
 Definition
False
Term
In order to open the aft canopy from the front cockpit using the auxiliary canopy release system, the aft canopy handle must normally be in the open position.
 Definition
False
Term
The airspeed limitation for emergency landing gear extension is ________ knots.
 Definition
150
Term
What are the indications that the canopies are down and locked?
 Definition
Hearing the locking pins click
The canopy light is out
Both a and c
Term
When would the auxiliary canopy release system be used?
 Definition
When the normal system nitrogen is depleted
Term
The auxiliary canopy system cannot be operated if normal pressure is available.
 Definition
False
Term
What is the maximum taxi/headwind component combination with either canopy open?
 Definition
60
Term
What is the correct preloaded pressure in the emergency landing gear extension bottles?
 Definition
2450-3000psi +/-65psi for every 10F from 70F
Term
What is the purpose of the altitude sensing barostat inside the timed release mechanism?
 Definition
Prevents premature deployment of a parachute at high altitude
Term
Explain how to open the canopies if the normal handle does not work.
 Definition
Term
From left to right, name the three pneumatic gages on the aft portion of the left NWW bulkhead and list their acceptable limits for flight.
 Definition
ABC BA
A: Aux Canopy and Jettison Gage 2450-3000psi
Blow Down Landing Gear: 2450-3000psi
Canopy Normal Gage: 1000-3000psi
Brake Accumulator Gage: 800-3000psi
APS-130 Sys Pressurization: 600-2800psi
Term
Is it possible to raise the normal canopy handle in flight? Why or why not?
 Definition
no???????
Term
When operating the AFCS in AUTO, rudder movement is limited to ________ degrees either side of center with flaps up and ________ degrees with flaps down.
 Definition
4, 10
Term
For a temperature of 53 degrees F you should set the APC temperature switch to:
 Definition
STD
Term
In the AUTO mode and ACLS mode switch NORM, the AFCS will maintain any angle of bank between ________ and ________ degrees.
 Definition
5, 60
Term
The pilot may disengage the APC by moving the throttle friction lock lever out of the OFF position.
 Definition
True
Term
In the event of a complete loss of Flight hydraulic pressure:
 Definition
the AFCS will not disengage automatically.
Term
After a field takeoff, you should turn the AFCS on when:
 Definition
Above 1000 feet AGL
Term
What is the power range of the APC?
 Definition
63 to 99%
Term
The first procedure to disconnect power to the AFCS system due to uncommanded control inputs is to:
 Definition
Actuate the AFCS Emergency Disconnect switch.
Term
The APC temperature switch should be set before engaging the APC.
 Definition
True
Term
The AFCS AUTO mode is overridden with stick forces greater than 1.1 plus or minus 0.2 pounds. The pilot will have to reselect AUTO to reengage the AFCS.
 Definition
False
Term
The APC should be in the STBY position for _______ seconds before selecting ENGAGE.
 Definition
60
Term
Hydraulic power for the AFCS is supplied by the:
 Definition
Flight Hydraulic system.
Term
Altitude Hold and Mach Hold cannot be selected at the same time.
 Definition
True
Term
In order to use the AFCS AUTO mode while the ASN-50 compass controller is in the COMPASS position, you should:
 Definition
Select HDG off.
Term
AFCS pitch limits in the AUTO mode are ________ degrees nose up and ________ degrees nose down.
 Definition
25, 60
Term
List three ways to disengage the APC.
 Definition
1. 8-12lbs of force on throttle
2. throttle friction out of off
3. APC switch to standby
4. Left WoW
5. 35-55 lbs force on throttle to disengage linkage
Term
What will happen if the APC is engaged with the aircraft straight and level at 355 KIAS?
 Definition
Why should you select the AFCS STAB AUG mode when the VERT REF switch is moved?
Term
List four ways of disconnecting the AFCS while in the AUTO mode.
 Definition
1. 8-12lbs. force on throttle
2. throttlw friction out of off
3. APC switch to STBY
4. Left WoW
5. 35-55 lbs. force on throttle to disengage linkage
Term
With the ACLS DATA LINK/MON switch in MON position, what information is displayed on the EADI?
 Definition
SPN-41
Term
When does the 10 second light come on and what does it mean?(Delete)
 Definition
At 12.5 seconds, indicates deck motion compensation is in effect.
Term
What are the indications of a good check when testing the ARA-63?
 Definition
The azimuth needle cycles left to center to right and back again.
Term
During a Mode 1 approach, testing the ACLS after coupling will cause:(Delete)
 Definition
The ground station/carrier to break lock.
Term
On a normal ACLS Mode 1 approach, the ACLS pitch and bank commands will freeze how many seconds before touchdown?(Delete)
 Definition
1.5
Term
On a normal ACLS Mode 1 approach, the ACLS pitch and bank commands will freeze how many seconds before touchdown?(Delete)
 Definition
1.5
Term
During an approach, what does an illuminated TILT light indicate?
 Definition
If steering commands received by the data link are not updated for any 2 second period, the light comes on.
The proper aircraft address has not been inserted into the SPN-42.
Both B and C
Term
What is recommended APC warm-up time?(Delete)
 Definition
60 seconds
Term
What are the indications of a good check when testing the ASW-25?
 Definition
With UTMs present, the crossbars alternately cycle down and left/WAVEOFF lights on, and up and right/no WAVEOFF lights
Term
What does an illuminated ACLS RDY light indicate?
 Definition
The aircraft has arrived at the radar acquisition window
The radar is locked on to the aircraft
The SPN-42 is transmitting glide slope and azimuth error
All of the above
Term
If the ASW-25 test switch is in NORM and the Data Link Power switch is placed ON prior to aircraft address insertion into the SPN-42 , which light on the Discrete Message indicator will illuminate?
 Definition
TILT
Term
If ACLS control is extremely jumpy during command control, what has probably occurred?
 Definition
The controller has locked onto a beacon sidelobe
Term
You note AOA excursions exceed 1.5 units different at the Ball call than it was at the Command Control Call. What should you do? (Delete)
 Definition
Downgrade to Mode 1A
Term
What is the difference between a Mode 1 and a Mode 1A approach?
 Definition
Mode 1 is controlled to touchdown whereas a Mode 1A breaks lock at 1/2 mile
Term
What does an illuminated APC STBY light indicate?
 Definition
None of the above
Term
The controller says, 'Command control.' and you respond, 'Roger, command control.' What do you do next?
 Definition
Note the STAB TRIM and monitor the approach
Term
Describe the ACLS TEST. Can it be done on the deck? Why or why not?
 Definition
Term
You note AOA excursions exceed 1.5 units different at the Ball call than it was at the Command Control Call. What should you do? (Delete)
 Definition
Downgrade to Mode 1A
Term
What do the WAVE OFF and CMD CONT ACLS ladder lights mean?
 Definition
Term
What do the TILT and ACLS RDY ladder lights mean?
 Definition
Term
What does the 10 SEC ACLS ladder light indicate?
 Definition
Term
Which control causes the PHD sweep trace images to remain visible for longer periods?
 Definition
DCP PERSIST
Term
Prior to performing the BITs, the Radar Control panel Contrast and Brightness controls should be rotated:
 Definition
Fully CCW.
Term
When the antenna scan angle is decreased, the antenna scan speed increases.
 Definition
False
Term
The SCAN STAB switch is set to REL BRG and the azimuth cursor is set to 320 degrees. How many degrees will the antenna scan left and right of the azimuth cursor if the SCAN ANGLE control is rotated fully clockwise?
 Definition
15 left, 45 right
Term
What must be done if the NO light comes on momentarily when setting the BIT switch to SSE?
 Definition
Continue with the BIT tests; it is normal
Term
In which position must the BIT switch be set to allow normal operation of the radar?
 Definition
OFF
Term
How many minutes must the Radar Control panel be in BIT/STBY before the T/M, RF PWR, and RCVR BITs can be performed?(Delete - Duplication)
 Definition
4.5
Term
Which radar control allows the operator to vary the range cursor?
 Definition
Slew thumbwheel
Term
To pass the RCP BIT, the RCVR GAIN control must be set fully clockwise or the PHD and DVRI RNG MKR controls must be set midway.
 Definition
False
Term
An illuminated GO light indicates the RCP BIT has passed.
 Definition
False
Term
The pilot is holding his slew stick left and his thumbwheel forward; at the same time, ECMO 1 is holding his slew stick right and his thumbwheel aft. Which way will the cursor move?
 Definition
Azimuth cursor right; range cursor decreasing range
Term
Prior to performing the BITS, the pilot's Display Control panel STBY/BRT control should be rotated:
 Definition
Fully CCW
Term
The radar receives its cooling from:
 Definition
Aft bleed air system.
Term
Which of the following is/are applicable to APS-130 operation?
 Definition
Never run BITs while taxiing.
Never run T/M, RF, and RCVR BITs in the line area.
Ensure power switch is OFF prior to engine shutdown.
Place power switch to STBY before landing.
All of the above.
Term
Stabilization limits of the APS-130 search radar are ________ pitch and ________ roll.
 Definition
Term
How long must the APS-130 radar be in BIT/STBY before the T/M, RF, PWR, and RCVR BIT functions are enabled?
 Definition
Term
What does the APS-130 STC DP function do?
 Definition
Term
If the CAINS fails, the navigation system automatically enters the ________ navigation mode:
 Definition
Term
What is the purpose of the 1553 data bus?
 Definition
Links the various subsystems together
Term
Links the various subsystems together
 Definition
True airspeed
Term
The EA-6B navigation system is susceptible to factors such as rotation rate, Coriolis effect, and Schuller cycle.
 Definition
False
Term
Which is a CAINS output?
 Definition
True heading
Term
Which of the following is/are alignment types used in the EA-6B?
 Definition
IFA
SINS
Both B and C
Term
What control panel powers the CAINS?
 Definition
Navigation control panel
Term
How many navigation turn points can be programmed into the CDI?
 Definition
31
Term
What is the purpose of the RCDR MARK pushbutton?
 Definition
Marks navigation parameters on the recorder
Term
What is the primary interface for inputting data into the navigation system?
 Definition
Control Display indicator
Term
What are the three navigation problem outputs computed by the CDI?
 Definition
Ground speed, ground track, drift angle
Term
Which of the following is the primary controller interface with the EA-6B navigation system?
 Definition
Control Display Indicator
Term
The AYK-14 Tactical Computer controls communication between the various navigation subsystems.
 Definition
True
Term
TH, PP, N/S E/W velocity vectors, vertical velocity, and primary pitch and roll.(Delete- What is the Q?)
 Definition
TH, PP, N/S E/W velocity vectors, vertical velocity, and primary pitch and roll
Term
What caution must you observe when switching VERT REF from PRI--SEC? Why?
 Definition
Term
What two types of navigation updates are available in the stand-alone mode?
 Definition
Term
Which of the following calculations are NOT performed by the CDI?
 Definition
True heading
Term
Which navigation mode requires verification of winds and magnetic variation?
 Definition
Air Mass (ASN-130 failed)
Dead Reckoning (ASN-130, ASN-50 failed)
Dead Reckoning (ADC failed)
b, c, d.
Term
Which subsystem failure will automatically put the navigation system into the Air Mass mode?
 Definition
CAINS
Term
With inaccurate magnetic variation, the NAV solution will be accurate in the INS mode?
 Definition
True
Term
The Tactical Computer calculates winds in the Stand-alone mode.
 Definition
False
Term
During normal operation, the Tactical Computer uses information from which subsystems to compute winds?
 Definition
TAS from the ADC, TH and N/S E/W velocity vectors from the ASN-130
Term
Which of the follwing is NOT calculated by the Tactical Computer?
 Definition
Ground track
Term
Which of the follwing is NOT calculated by the Tactical Computer?
 Definition
Ground track
Term
Which navigation mode requires manual entry of winds, magnetic variation, and magnetic heading?
 Definition
Dead Reckoning (ASN-130, ASN-50 failed)
Term
The Tactical computer is not required for accurate navigation when the CAINS is operating normally.
 Definition
True
Term
Which navigation mode requires manual entry of winds and TAS?
 Definition
Dead Reckoning (ADC failed, ASN-130 TH OK)
Term
With the ASN-130 fully functional, what is the source of heading reference used for the NAV solution if you select the Air Mass mode?
 Definition
TH from the CAINS
Term
Why would the navigation system go into the Stand-alone mode?
 Definition
TC failure
Term
In the Air Mass mode, winds and mag var must always be entered for accurate navigation.
 Definition
False
Term
Radar updates cannot be performed while in OPT on the CDI.
 Definition
True
Term
With REL BRG selected, anytime the relative bearing of the azimuth cursor exceeds 55 degrees or 305 degrees (plus or minus 55 degrees), scan stabilization automatically switches to ADL.
 Definition
True
Term
What component provides heading information to the EADI in PRIMARY in both the 82/89 and 89A aircraft?
 Definition
Term
Radar updates can be made in all navigation modes except Dead Reckoning.
 Definition
False
Term
If the EHSI compass card was spinning, what system would you suspect?
 Definition
ASN-50
Term
You are at 25,000 feet indicating 275 knots. Your approximate Tas should be ________ knots.
 Definition
400
Term
Inability to do radar updates or cursor and steering information not available on the CDI would indicate a ________ failure.
 Definition
TC
Term
In the INS mode, precessed EADI, EHSI, and BDHI are indications of a ________ failure.
 Definition
ASN-50
Term
No steering or cursor control is an indication of ________ failure.
 Definition
A/D converter
Term
In the INS mode, you have an CAINS present position and true heading failure. Which of the following is true?
 Definition
System will revert to Air Mass mode
Term
Present position updates can be made in any navigation mode.
 Definition
True
Term
With a frozen EHSI, the TACAN information with respect to the compass card is correct, the bearing relative to the aircraft is incorrect.
 Definition
True
Term
In the INS mode, you have a SCADC failure. Which of the following is true?
 Definition
Navigation solution and steering will not be affected
Term
Correct response to an ASN-50 failure is to:
 Definition
Select COMP on compass controller
Term
If the CAINS fails, the system will revert to Dead Reckoning mode.
 Definition
False
Term
With a TC failure the CDI reverts to the ______ mode.
 Definition
Term
You experience a partial ASN-130 failure (TH valid) and a total ASN-50 failure. What action is necessary?
 Definition
Check/update winds and MV
Term
You are in stand-alone mode. Which component has failed?
 Definition
You are in stand-alone mode. Which component has failed?
Term
Your NAV system has just failed to the AM mode. Which component has failed?
 Definition
ASN-130
Term
If you experience a total ASN-130 failure followed by an ASN-50 failure, what effect will this have on your NAV solution?
 Definition
Present Position will drift off; input MH
Term
If you experience a SCADC failure while operating in the INS mode, what effect will this have on your NAV solution?
 Definition
TAS, winds incorrect; solution and steering still valid. System remains in INS mode
Term
What is the approach speed for a no flap/no slat landing with a 41,000 lbs gross aircraft? Single engine, flaps 20 degrees?
 Definition
Term
What is the approach speed for a no flap/no slat landing at a gross weight of 43,000 lbs? Single engine, flaps 20 degrees? If executing these landings on RAT power, what exterior lights are available?
 Definition
Term
At low altitude, doubling your airspeed, doubles your time to impact.
 Definition
False
Term
With a simultaneous combined hydraulic failure, single engine flameout, and total electrical failure, can you activate ASR?
 Definition
no
Term
In flight, what is the cause of the following caution lights? R FILTER; LOW FUEL Light; ELECTRONIC AIRFLOW
 Definition
Term
In flight, what is the cause of the following caution lights? Be specific. Simultaneous L and R FUEL PSI illumination; WINSHIELD AIR; CANOPY; RUD THRO
 Definition
Term
In flight, what is the cause of the following caution lights? L OIL LOW; CSD OVERHEAT; OXYGEN
 Definition
Term
What is the acceptable range of EGT during max acceleration, and for how long?
 Definition
Term
Maximum airspeed for emergency extension of the landing gear is ______ KIAS.
 Definition
150
Term
When attempting to reset a pod, the pilot applies negative 'g' for 15 seconds. Is this allowable? Why or Why not?
 Definition
Term
What are the rolling negative and positive g limits for airspeed < 0.86 IMN? For airspeed > 0.86 IMN?
 Definition
Term
What is normal landing maximum gross weight (other than minimum rate of descent)?
 Definition
45,500 lbs
Term
A 32,500 lbs Prowler is configured with 21,000 lbs of fuel and two TJS pods. Is a field takeoff allowable? Why or Why not?
 Definition
Term
List the seven prohibited maneuvers.
 Definition
Term
Full stick deflection rolls, regardless of configuration, are limited to _______ degrees.
 Definition
Term
What is the maximum airspeed for external stores jettison?
 Definition
300
Term
The P-408A must be changed if an engine overspeed of _______ % RPM is experienced.
 Definition
Term
With ASR selected on, rudder deflection is plus or minus ________ degrees.
 Definition
37
Term
Flaps down rudder deflection (airborne) is plus or minus ________ degrees.
 Definition
23
Term
Actuating the ASR switch will cause the nose to pitch down.
 Definition
False
Term
You should recover from a clean approach to stall when which of the following conditions occurs?
 Definition
Which ever of the above occurs first
Term
To avoid OVERSTRESS, ASSIST SPIN RECOV should be turned OFF below _____ KIAS.
 Definition
300
Term
Altitude loss from initiation of spin recovery to level off is ________ feet.
 Definition
9000 to 12,000
Term
With an aircraft in the clean configuration (flaps/slats up), onset of buffet in pullouts is approximately ________ units AOA.
 Definition
11
Term
Which of the following conditions increase the load or 'g' capability of an aircraft?
 Definition
High airspeed (IAS)
Term
The stall warning horn functions in the following configuration(s) if selected.
 Definition
Flaps down, gear down
Speed brakes out, gear down
Both b and c
Term
In the dirty configuration (flaps/slats down), a normal stall is characterized by:
 Definition
Loss of lateral control with mild roll off and directional nose slice to a nose low attitude.
Term
Which of the following conditions decrease the load or 'g' capability of an aircraft?
 Definition
Low airspeed
Term
Describe an aircraft stall in the clean configuration.
 Definition
Term
ECMO 2 and 3 have primary responsibility for communications while enroute to tactical missions.
 Definition
False
Term
In-flight navigation responsiblities are assigned to:
 Definition
ECMO 1
Term
When preflighting the two yellow trip rods behind the seat, what do you NOT want to find?
 Definition
Red on the rod plunger
Term
How many safety pins are in the ECMO 2 ejection seat?
 Definition
7
Term
What color is the ECMO 2 ejection gun bracket?
 Definition
Orange
Term
What color is the pilot ejection gun bracket?
 Definition
Brown
Term
What color is the ECMO 3 ejection gun bracket?
 Definition
White
Term
In what position must the command eject handle be in order for ECMO 1 to initiate command ejection?
 Definition
ECMO
Term
Pulling the emergency restraint release will:
 Definition
Safe the seat
Release parachute and seat pan from the seat
Answers a and c
Term
What does the term 'zero, zero' mean when discussing Martin Baker ejection seats?
 Definition
Zero altitude, zero velocity
Term
If ECMO 1 initiates command ejection, the ECMO 1 seat will eject first.
 Definition
False
Term
For how many minutes must you allow the seat adjust motors to cool after using them for 60 seconds?
 Definition
10
Term
If the emergency restraint release handle is used, what must you remember to do?
 Definition
Manually deploy the parachute
Term
What color is the ECMO 1 ejection gun bracket?
 Definition
Purple
Term
Pulling the upper or face curtain handle out 7 inches, or the lower handle out 2 inches, will initaite ejection.
 Definition
True
Term
Approximately how long will the emergency oxygen supply last after ejection?
 Definition
15 minutes
Term
On preflight, how much pressure should be in the emergency oxygen bottles and where would you find the gauge on a SKU-2/A seat pack?
 Definition
Term
At what altitude does the ejection seat barostat allow the time release mechanism to start?
 Definition
Term
Why does the pilot's ejection seat have one additional safety pin compared to Ecmo 2 and 3's seats?
 Definition
Term
List the ejection sequence and time delay for each seat.
 Definition
Term
How are the aft cockpit center console lights controlled?
 Definition
ECMO 3's console thumbwheel
Term
What happens to the anticollision lights when you lower the landing gear?
 Definition
The lower light secures with gear down and locked
Term
What is significant about the panel thumbwheel on the ECMOs' interior light panel?
 Definition
Panel must be on before console thumbwheel will work
Panel must be past the two position in order for secondary panel and console floodlights to work
Answers a and b
Term
The pilot's instrument panel floodlights will operate only in the BRIGHT position.
 Definition
True
Term
The approach lights will flash if the landing gear are down and locked and the pilot lowers the hook with the HOOK BYPASS switch in ARREST.
 Definition
False
Term
What is unique about the TAXI/PROBE light and/or switch?
 Definition
The switch is a bar or 'T' handle shape
The gear position determines which light comes on
Answers a and c
Term
The approach lights on the nose gear door are used by the pilot to illuminate the runway surface during landings.
 Definition
False
Term
Which lights make up the primary interior system.
 Definition
Instrument
Console
Approach Indexer
Answers a, c, and d
Term
The Exterior Lights Master switch controls all exterior lights except the Taxi/Probe light and Approach light.
 Definition
True
Term
Under what condition does the External Lights Master switch control the TAXI/PROBE and APPROACH lights?
 Definition
Under no conditions
Term
Brightness of caution and advisory lights is controlled by:
 Definition
Pilot's instrument thumbwheel.
Term
What is the purpose of the KEY position on the PYLON switch?
 Definition
To use the lights as visual signals
Term
List the two ways the formation lights may be reset if an overheat condition occurs.
 Definition
Term
List the lights available on RAT power.
 Definition
Term
You have extended the flaps to 30 degrees. At what position will the slats be?
 Definition
27
Term
With hydraulic systems normal, flap control handle set to 20 degrees and flaps and slats positioned at 20 degrees and out, selection of the Emergency Flap switch will override the hydraulic system.
 Definition
True
Term
The flap hydraulic motor is not braked unless the flaps are in a detent selected position.
 Definition
True
Term
Where is the Rudder Trim switch located?
 Definition
Pilot's left console
Term
Moving the stick grip 'coolie cap' switch left or right adjusts stabilizer trim.
 Definition
False
Term
How many degrees is full rudder deflection with ASR switch on?
 Definition
35
Term
If the trim button becomes dislodged, contact with the exposed probe with electrical power on can result in incapacitation or unconsciousness.
 Definition
True
Term
How many degrees of asymmetrical difference between speedbrakes will cause the speedbrakes to close?
 Definition
8
Term
0.3 inches of rudder pedal deflection is required to achieve full rudder deflection in the clean cruise configuaration.(Delete - Duplication)
 Definition
True
Term
The five position 'coolie cap' switch on the control stick grip provides control for:
 Definition
Stabilizer/flaperon trim
Term
When the stabilizer is in the flaps up configuaration, what appears in the STAB window of the integrated position indicator?
 Definition
CLEAN
Term
Where is the STAB TRIM indicator located?
 Definition
Below the PHD
Term
When ASR switch is turned off, the aircraft nose will:
 Definition
Pitch down.
Term
In normal flight, the left and right wing flaperon panels rise up simultaneously to spoil lift and create aircraft roll.
 Definition
False
Term
Flaps are down and weight is off the wheels. Rudder travel limit is ________ degrees either side of neutral.
 Definition
23
Term
Flaps may not extend fully to 30 degrees above ________ knots.
 Definition
180
Term
What aircraft maneuver is induced by placing the ASR switch on?(Delete - Duplication)
 Definition
Nose up pitch
Term
Where is the flaperon trim indicator located?
 Definition
On the control stick
Term
With a combined hydraulic failure, ASR throws can be obtained by using the 24 Vdc backup battery.
 Definition
False- You need hydraulic fluid to operate the ASR
Term
In the AUTO mode, selecting the AFCS Emergency Disconnect switch will revert the system to STAB AUG.
 Definition
False
Term
The Speedbrake Control switch is placed in the forward position. What will be displayed on the speedbrake indicator when the brakes reach the selected position?
 Definition
IN
Term
What is the possible result of arming the ASR system at low airspeed?
 Definition
Aircraft stall due to nose pitchup
Term
Where is the ASR switch located?
 Definition
Throttle quadrant
Term
Full lateral control stick movement results in outboard and inboard flaperon panel deflection of 51 degrees.
 Definition
True
Term
What does illumination of the RUD THRO caution light mean?(Delete - Duplication)
 Definition
Extended throws in the clean configuration
Term
What five conditions must be met for flaperon popup to work?(Delete - Duplication)
 Definition
1. Popups armed
2. Throttle at Idle
3. Left W on W
4. Stick within 1" neutral laterally
5. Wings spread and locked
Term
What is the purpose of the TONE button on the UHF radio?
 Definition
Causes a steady tone to be transmitted
Term
How do you fine tune the HF radio antenna coupling system?
 Definition
Key the MIC
Term
What does a steady RF IND light indicate?
 Definition
Antenna coupling system is tuned
Term
How many channels of separation does the TACAN air-to-air function require?
 Definition
63
Term
What is the function of the ICS OFF switch on the Radio/Audio Control panel?
 Definition
ICS receive only is shut off for that crew station
Term
You can transmit on two different radios at the same time.
 Definition
False
Term
After pressing the TACAN BIT pushbutton, illumination of the GO and NO-GO lights indicates:
 Definition
The lamps test good
Term
Normally the use of higher frequencies on the HF radio will be more reliable at night.
 Definition
False
Term
What advantage does the VHF radio have over the UHF radios?
 Definition
VHF has a longer range and works better in IFR conditions
Term
When do you tune the antenna coupling system of the HF?
 Definition
Switching frequencies
Term
During ARC-105 HF operation, adequate cooling air must be supplied to the aft equipment bay.
 Definition
True
Term
Selecting the BOTH position on the ARC-159 function switch allows you to transmit and receive on the main transceiver and guard transceiver.
 Definition
False
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the four steps necessary to operate the ADF?
 Definition
HSI STRN - NAV
Term
What is the purpose of the SQ TEST pushbutton on the ARC-175 VHF?
 Definition
Allows reception of weak signals
Term
After GPS initialization, why does a 'check wind' alert appear on the CDNU as soon as the NAV FAIL alert disappears?
 Definition
Term
What is the difference between a red 'X' over an item and a series of dashes in the color of the selected item on the EFIS Display Unit?
 Definition
Term
In EFIS equipped aircraft, when should power be applied to the EFIS system, and why?
 Definition
Term
In EFIS equipped aircraft, with ILS or LOC selected as the primary navigation source, one dot on the deviation scale = _____ deg and 2 dots = _____. With VOR/TACAN selected one dot = _____, and two dots = _____. With ADF selected one dot = _____, two dots = _____.
 Definition
Term
VOR approaches are not authorized in the EA-6B.
 Definition
True
Term
What should be done to extend operating time when a yellow 'DU' fault is detected while operating the EFIS system?
 Definition
It means the display unit beginning to overheat (should have DU for 30 min).
1. Monitor Diplay units
2. Reduce brightness and number of display modes\.
Term
What does a yellow "ATT" alert mean?
 Definition
Attitude miscompare, PRI/SEC attitde differs by 5 degree in pitch or roll
Term
In the AUTO mode, selecting the AFCS Emergency Disconnect switch will revert the system to STAB AUG.(Delete - Duplication)
 Definition
False
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