Term
| What blast count is necessary for (almost) all cases of AML? |
|
Definition
| >20% (the ones that don't require >20% blasts are the genetic variants like inv(16)) |
|
|
Term
| What are the common clinical characteristics of AML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As expression of CD34 increases in AML, what is it associated with? |
|
Definition
| More CD34 expression usually means poorer prognosis |
|
|
Term
| Prognostic vs Predictive biomarker |
|
Definition
| Prognostic = biomarker that info on the patients outcome; Predictive = marker that can identify a target for an intervention |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for AML M4 (monocytic) includes what drug combo? |
|
Definition
| Anthracycline + Cytarabine |
|
|
Term
| When is Complete Remission achieved with AML? |
|
Definition
| <5% bone marrow blasts and bone marrow aplasia |
|
|
Term
| Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) blasts appearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major threat of APL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should treatment for APL include? |
|
Definition
| FFP, Fibrinogen, and Platelets before giving ATRA |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic rearrangement for APL t(15;17) |
|
Definition
| PML/RARA fusion resulting in promyelocyte undifferentiation unless given RARA |
|
|
Term
| When you suspect APL, when should you administer ATRA? |
|
Definition
| Right away, even before genetic testing is complete |
|
|
Term
| What drug can be given in conjunction with ATRA or if ATRA fails to treat APL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What genetic abnormality is a poor prognostic predictor for AML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What myeloid leukemia is most frequently associated with gingival hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
| M4/M5 Acute Myelomonocytic and Monoblastic Leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What translocation is commonly seen in AML (M4/M5)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute Monoblastic Leukemia (M5) often shows extramedullary involvement where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Pelger Huet cells and what genetic abnormality are they associated with? |
|
Definition
| Bi-lobed Neutrophils; del(7) aka Monosomy 7 |
|
|
Term
| What is Secondary AML is due to what most often and what does it result in? |
|
Definition
| Chemotherapy/Radiation resulting in Dysplasia of precursors in one or more cell lines |
|
|
Term
| Secondary AML usually involves what chromosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How well does Seoncary AML respond to chemotherapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Myelodysplastic Syndromes characterized as? |
|
Definition
| Clonal disorders characterized by hypercelular marrows and Ineffective Hematopoiesis |
|
|
Term
| Bone marrow failure from Myelodysplastic Syndrome can cause what? |
|
Definition
| Infection/Bleeding and possible transformation to acute leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics and prognosis of Refractory Anemia MDS? |
|
Definition
| Reticulocytopenia with Erythroid Hyperplasia; Good prognosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics and prognosis of Refractory Anemia with Ring Sideroblasts MDS? |
|
Definition
| Same ase Refractory Anemia but with >15% ring Sideroblasts; Good prognosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics and prognosis of Refractory Cytopenias with Multileneage dysplasia MDS (dysplasia in more than 1 cell line) |
|
Definition
| <5% blasts in BM; Intermediate prognosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics and prognosis of Refractory anemia with Excess Blasts? |
|
Definition
| >5%,<20% Myeloblasts in BM; Poor prognosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics and prognosis of Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia MDS? |
|
Definition
| Dysplastic myeloproliferation with Peripheral blood Monocytosis; Poor prognosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)? |
|
Definition
| X-linked PIG-A mutation leading to defective CD59 and CD55 on RBCs, causing excess hemolysis of RBCs |
|
|
Term
| What treatment can be given for Myelodysplastic Syndromes? |
|
Definition
| Hematopoietic Colony Stimulating Factors (Erythropoietin, G-CSF, GM-CSF) |
|
|
Term
| What drug can be given to patients with a 5q deletion in MDS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two drugs interfere with the hypermethylation of DNA in MDS? |
|
Definition
| 5-Azacytidine and Decitabine |
|
|
Term
| What mutation is responsible for >95% of Polycythemia Vera cases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Polycythemia Vera? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for PV if individuals are under 40 or pregnant is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for PV if individuals are over 40 is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What all can cause Secondary Polycythemia? |
|
Definition
| Chronic Hypoxemia (leads to increased Erythropoietin), or Erythropoietin-Secreting Tumor |
|
|
Term
| What is Budd-Chiari syndrome and what is it associated with? |
|
Definition
| Portal Vein Thrombosis associated with Essential Thrombocythemia |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Thrombocythemia includes what? |
|
Definition
| Anything to reduce platelet counts; Hydroxyurea, Anagrelide, Interferon |
|
|
Term
| What is Erythromelalgia and what is associated with the condition, what is the treatment? |
|
Definition
| Burning, aching thrombing pain especially in lower extremities that is due to ET; give low dose aspirin for treatment |
|
|
Term
| What type of blood smear does Myelofibrosis show (particular name)? |
|
Definition
| Myelophthisic (NRBCs and Granulocyte precursors, Teardrops) |
|
|
Term
| ________ is a common end-result in the marrow of Myeloproliferative diseases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would a Splenectomy be performed in Myelofibrosis cases? |
|
Definition
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