Term
| What is the site of endotoxin? What kind of bacteria is this present in? |
|
Definition
| the outer membrane has endotoxin (LPS), the active componenent of which is lipid A, present in Gram negatives |
|
|
Term
| What is the periplasm and what does it contain? |
|
Definition
| site between outer membrane and cell wall in gram negatives, has hydrolytic enzymes - beta lactamases |
|
|
Term
| What part of the bacteria mediates adherence to surfaces? |
|
Definition
| the glycocalyx (staphylococcus epidermidis) |
|
|
Term
| What part of the cell wall is specific to gram positives? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are the gram positive cocci? |
|
Definition
| staphylococcus and streptococcus |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are the gram negative cocci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are gram positive rods? |
|
Definition
| clostridium, corynebacterium, bacillus, listeria and mycobacteria |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are the filamentous rods? |
|
Definition
| Actinomyces (graveyard - molar tooth colonies) and Nocardia (acid fast) |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are pleomorphic? (has various distinct forms) |
|
Definition
| Rickettsiae and Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are the spirochetes? |
|
Definition
| Borrelia, Treponema, Leptospira |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria can be visualized by darkfield microscopy and flourescent antibody staining? |
|
Definition
| Treponema pallidum (syphilis causing!) |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can be visualized with a giemsa stain? |
|
Definition
| borrelia, plasmodium, trypanosomes, and chlamydia |
|
|
Term
| What does a periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS) do? |
|
Definition
| stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides to dx Whipple's disease (Tropheryma whippelii) |
|
|
Term
| What does a Zeihl-Neelsen stain detect? |
|
Definition
| acid fast organisms (nocardia and mycobacterium) |
|
|
Term
| What two kinds of stains can be used for cryptococcus neoformans? |
|
Definition
| india ink and mucicarmine (would stain thick capsule red) |
|
|
Term
| What things can be visualized with a silver stain? |
|
Definition
| fungi (pneumocystis) and Legionella |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can be isolated on Chocolate agar with factors V and X? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria can be isolated on thayer-martin (VPN)
agar and what does this agar have in it? |
|
Definition
| N. gonorrheae; has vancomycin, polymyxin and nystatin |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is isolated on bordet-gengou agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is isolated on tellurite plates and loffler's media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agar can be used to culture M. tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can be isolated on Eaton's agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to lactose-fermenting enterics on MacConkey's agar? |
|
Definition
| they ferment, producing acid which turns the plate pink |
|
|
Term
Which bacteria is shown on EMB agar as blue-black colonies with metallic sheen?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria can be isolated on charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are fungi cultured on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria are the obligate aerobes? |
|
Definition
| Nagging (Nocardia), Pests (Pseudomonas), Must (Mycobacterium), Breath (Bacillus) |
|
|
Term
| What do bacteria with capsules have that others dont? |
|
Definition
| A positive quelling reaction (they're capsules swell when capsule anti-sera are added) |
|
|
Term
| What are the urease positive bugs? |
|
Definition
| Klebsiella, Proteus, Helicobacter, Ureaplasma |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria secrete IgA protease and why? |
|
Definition
| Neisseria, S Pneumoniae, and H influenzae do so they can colonize respiratory mucosa |
|
|
Term
| What does the m protein secreted by Group A Strep do? |
|
Definition
| helps prevent phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What are superantigens released by and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| released by staph aureus and strep pyogenes, bind MHC II and T-cell receptors directly to induce IFN-gamma and IL-2 |
|
|
Term
| What exotoxin causes toxic shock syndrome and what exotoxin causes toxic shock like syndrome? |
|
Definition
| TSST-1, scarlet-fever-erythrogenic toxin |
|
|
Term
| What does corynebacterium diptheriae cause a pseudomembrane in the throat and pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
| because it inactivates EF-2 |
|
|
Term
| How does vibrio cholerae cause the rice water stools? |
|
Definition
| it upregulates cAMP by adp-ribosylating g protein, causing mass Na and Cl movement into the gut, water follows |
|
|
Term
| What two toxins does E Coli have and what do they stimulate? |
|
Definition
| heat-labile toxin stimulats adenylate cyclase, and heat-stable toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase |
|
|
Term
| What does Bordetella pertussis do besides causing whooping cough? |
|
Definition
| inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has a toxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has a toxin that is itself an adenylate cyclase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Of the gram positive cocci, you have the catalase positive (1) and catalase negative (2), of the catalase postiive there are coagulase positive (3) and coagulase negatives (4), of the coagualase negatives there are novobiocin sensitive (5) and novobiocin resistant (6)
|
|
Definition
(1) staphylococcus
(2) streptococcus
(3) staphylococcus aureus
(4) staphylococcus epidermidis, staphylococcus saphrophyticus
(5) staphyloccus epidermitis
(6) staphylococcus saphrophyticus |
|
|
Term
| Of your catalase negative gram positive cocci, you have those that undergo alpha hemolysis (1), which can be either optochin sensitive (2) or optochin resistant (3); then you have your beta hemolysis (4) which can be either bacitracin sensitive (5) or bacitracine resistant (6)... |
|
Definition
(1) streptococcus pneumoniae and streptococcus mitans
(2) streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) streptococcus mitans
(4) streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus agalactiae
(5) streptococcus pyogenes
(6) streptococcus agalactiae (CAMP test) |
|
|
Term
| Which catalase negative gram positive cocci have no hemolysis? |
|
Definition
| enterococcus faecalis (at the tae kwon do studio getting kicked in the butt) |
|
|
Term
| What do alpha hemolytic bacteria look like on blood agar? |
|
Definition
| form green ring around colonies |
|
|
Term
| What do beta-hemolytic bacteria look like on blood agar? |
|
Definition
| form a clear ring around colony on blood agar... |
|
|
Term
| What does the catalase negative, alpha hemolytic gram positive cocci that is optochin sensitive cause? |
|
Definition
| MOPS - meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia and sinusitis (it's strep pneumo) |
|
|
Term
| What gram positive cocci is catalase negative, alpha hemolytic and optochin resistant? What does it cause? |
|
Definition
| Strep mutans, dental caries |
|
|
Term
| What does the CAMP factor produced by S agalactiae do? |
|
Definition
| enlarges the area of hemolysis made by S aureus |
|
|
Term
What is important about Enterococci?
|
|
Definition
| They're penicillin G resistant and cause UTI and subacute endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| Which streptococcus can cause subacute endocarditits in colon cancer patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What needs to be done to kill spores? |
|
Definition
| steam at 121 degrees celcius for 5 minutes |
|
|
Term
| What is the method of action of tetanospasmin (the toxin produced by Clostridium tetani)? |
|
Definition
| blocks glycine and GABA release (inhibitory neurotransmitters) from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, which leads to spastic paralysis, trismus and risus sardonicus |
|
|
Term
| What is characteristic about Listeria? |
|
Definition
| tumbling motility! also form actin rockets to move from cell to cell |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for actinomyces and nocardia? |
|
Definition
| sulfa for no and penicillin for act (SNAP) |
|
|
Term
| What does actinomyces cause? Nocardia? |
|
Definition
| facial abscesses that drain through the sinus tract (acid slow, molar tooth colonies, yellow granules); pulmonary infection in IC patients (acid fast) |
|
|
Term
| Which gram negatives rods are lactose fermenting (and therefore pink on MacConkey Agar)? Why? |
|
Definition
| E Coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella; beta-galactosidase |
|
|
Term
| What are gram negatives resistant to and why? |
|
Definition
| Penicillin and Vancomycin; gram negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry |
|
|
Term
| What are the E Coli virulence factors and what do they cause? |
|
Definition
| fimbriae - cystitis and pyelonephritis, K capsule - pneumonia, neonatal meningitis, LPS endotoxin - septic shock |
|
|
Term
| What does EPEC E Coli usually cause? |
|
Definition
| adheres to apical surface, flattens villae, causes diarrhea usually in children |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about EHEC? |
|
Definition
| doesn't ferment sorbitol, but does cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure) |
|
|
Term
| When does Klebsiella cause lobar pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| in alcoholics and diabetics when it's aspirated, red currant jelly sputum is also associated, nosocomial UTIs |
|
|
Term
| What is Salmonella typhi and what does it cause? |
|
Definition
| Gram negative rod that is a non lactose fermenter but makes sulfur, causes typhoid fever - fever/diarrhea/headache/rose spots on abdomen |
|
|
Term
| What gram negative bacteria grows at 42 degrees celcius, is comma/s-shaped and oxidase positive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What gram negative oxidase positive bacteria causes rice-water diarrheae, grows in alkaline media, and is comma shaped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient has been having pain during meals so you decide to do a urease breath test to test for... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient has H pylori infection with ulcers what do you treat them with? |
|
Definition
| triple therapy - two antibiotics plus bismuth or omeprazole |
|
|
Term
| Which spirochete can be visualized by using aniline dyes (Giemsa or Wright's Stain)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A surfer comes in with a fever of 102, headache, jaundice and his stomach hurts. He says that he's seen stray dogs running up and down the beach at his secret spot. You culture a question mark shaped bacteria and realize he's infected with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient comes in with a target shaped rash on their leg. They tell you that they've been feeling tired in general and a "little bit feverish" the last couple of days. You decide to treat them with... |
|
Definition
| ceftriaxone and doxycycline because they have Lyme Disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient has a false positive test for syphilis, what combination of tests do you have? |
|
Definition
| positive RPR/VDR-L with negative FTA-ABS |
|
|
Term
| A baby is born with deafness and malformed teeth, what do you suspect they were infected with in the womb? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tick can you get Lyme disease from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can give you undulant fever? |
|
Definition
| Brucella! comes from unpastuerized dairy products |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is associated with gray, fishy smelling vaginal discharge, that will have clue cells visible under a microscope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a weil-felix reaction? |
|
Definition
| detects Rickettsia infection, antirickettsial antibodies cross react with proteus O antigens and agglutinate |
|
|
Term
| What will be seen in the lab diagnosis of Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
| cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa stain or flourescent anti-body stained smear |
|
|
Term
| A patient comes in and says they haven't been feeling so good the past week but it's not getting in the way of their job, but then when you do a chest x-ray you see diffuse interstitial inflitrate, so you do a test for cold agglutinins and the RBCs agglutinate like you expect, what do they have? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae (walking pneumonia) |
|
|
Term
| What organism can cause river blindness (transmitted by black flies and has "black" hyperpigmented skin nodules)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What worm can actually be seen crawling in the patient's conjunctiva? |
|
Definition
| Loa loa, treat with carbamazepine |
|
|
Term
| What are the enveloped DNA viruses? |
|
Definition
| herpesviruses, HBV, smallpox |
|
|
Term
| What are the DNA nucleocapsid viruses? |
|
Definition
| adenovirus, papillomavirus, and parvovirus |
|
|
Term
| What are your RNA enveloped viruses? |
|
Definition
| influenza, parainfluenza, RSV, measles, mumps, rubella, rabies, HTLV and HIV |
|
|
Term
| What are your RNA nucleocapsid viruses? |
|
Definition
| enteroviruses, rhinovirus and rheovirus |
|
|
Term
| What are the herpesviruses? |
|
Definition
| HSV 1 and 2, VZV, CMV, EBV, HHV 6- 8 |
|
|
Term
| What do HSV 1 and 2 cause? |
|
Definition
| 1 - oral lesions, keratoconjunctivitis; 2 - genital lesions and sometimes oral |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 6 is roseola subitum, 7 is clinically insignificant, and 8 is Kaposi's Sarcoma |
|
|
Term
| what is in the hepadnavirus family? |
|
Definition
| HBV - causes acute and chronic, has a vaccine with surface antigen, has rev transcriptase but not a retrovirus |
|
|
Term
| What does adenovirus cause? |
|
Definition
| fibrile pharyngitis, conjunctivits (pink eye) and pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What all can parvovirus cause? |
|
Definition
| aplastic crisis in adults with sickle cell, other was RBC aplasia and RA like symptoms; in children - slapped face rash, erythema infectosum (5ths disease) |
|
|
Term
| What does polyoma virus cause? |
|
Definition
| progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV adults |
|
|
Term
| what things can be caused by poxviruses? |
|
Definition
| smallpox, vaccinia-cowpox, and molluscum contagiosum |
|
|
Term
| EBV can cause mono, burkitt's lymphoma and... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which virus involves infected cells with Owl's Eye inclusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HHV6 can cause roseola, which involves |
|
Definition
| high fevers for several days that can cause seizures, followed by a diffuse macular rash |
|
|
Term
| Cowdry A inclusion bodies are seen in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two viruses are reoviruses and what do they cause? |
|
Definition
| reovirus - colorado tick fever; rotavirus - most common cause of fatal diarrhea in children |
|
|
Term
| What are the picorna viruses? |
|
Definition
| poliovirus, echovirus - aseptic meningitis, rhinovirus - common cold, coxsackie virus - aseptic meningitis and herpangina, HAV - acute viral hep |
|
|
Term
| What virus is a hepevirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus is a calicavirus and what does it cause? |
|
Definition
| Norwalk virus - viral gastroenteritis |
|
|
Term
| What virus are your flaviviruses? |
|
Definition
| St. Louis Encephalitis virus, West Nile Virus, Dengue Virus, Yellow Feverr, HCV |
|
|
Term
| What viruses are your togaviruses? |
|
Definition
| Eastern and Western Equine viruses and Rubella (German measles) |
|
|
Term
| What is special about retroviruses and what are the retroviruses? |
|
Definition
| they have reverse transciptase; HIV - AIDS, HTLV - T-cell leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What kind of virus is corona virus and what does it cause? |
|
Definition
| ss RNA virus that causes the common cold and SARS (asians don't drink corona) |
|
|
Term
| What kind of virus is influenza virus? |
|
Definition
| an orthomyxovirus - ssRNA |
|
|
Term
| What are your paramyxoviruses? |
|
Definition
| parainfluenza virus, RSV, Rubeola and Mumps |
|
|
Term
| What are the filoviruses? the arenaviruses? (hard) |
|
Definition
| filoviruses - Ebola and Marburg, arenaviruses - LCMV and Lassa |
|
|
Term
| What are the bunyaviruses? |
|
Definition
| california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fevers, crimean-congo hemorrhagic fevers, hantavirus |
|
|
Term
| What virus is a deltavirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the negative stranded viruses? |
|
Definition
arenaviruses, bunyaviruses, paramyxoviruses, orthomyxoviruses, filoviruses, rhabdoviruses
always bring polymerase or fail replication |
|
|
Term
| What do influenza viruses have that is in turn used against them in their respective antiviral? |
|
Definition
| Neuraminidase allows viral progeny exit from the cell, oseltamivir inhibits it; also have hemagluttinin which helps with viral entry |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between genetic shift and drift? |
|
Definition
| shift is SUDDEN reassortment of genes, drift is gradual changes from random mutation |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Rubella? |
|
Definition
| fever, postauricular tenderness, fine truncal rash, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias |
|
|
Term
| what do all paramyxoviruses have? what is used against it? |
|
Definition
| F protein that causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse, palivizumab is used against it |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of infection with rubeola virus? |
|
Definition
| Measles - Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis, Koplik spots |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of mumps virus? |
|
Definition
parotitis, orchitis and aseptic meningitis
|
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can cause wound infections from contact with seafood and contaminated water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can one get Clostridium perfringens infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the bacteria that can cause bloody diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| campylobacter jejuni, EHEC, EIEC, salmonella, shigella, Yersinai enterocolitica, C difficile, entamoeba histolytica |
|
|
Term
| What are the bacterial causes of watery diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| ETEC (ST and LT toxins), vibrio cholarae, c perfringens (gas gangrene), Protozoa (giardia, cryptosporidium), viruses (rotavirus, adenovirus, norwalk virus) |
|
|
Term
| What are the common causes of pneumonia in neonates? |
|
Definition
| Group B streptococci and E coli |
|
|
Term
| What are the common causes of pneumonia in children 4 w to 18 y? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma pneumonia, Chlamydia pneumophilia, Streptococcus pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| What are the common causes of pneumonia in adults 20 to 40 yo? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of pneumonia in adults 40-65? |
|
Definition
| S pneumoniae, H influenzae, Anaerobes, Viruses, Mycoplasma |
|
|
Term
| Causes of pneumoniae in elderly? |
|
Definition
| S pneumoniae, influenzae virus, anaerobes, etc |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes pneumonia in people with CF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Newborns get meningitis from... Kids (6 mo to 6 yr) get meningitis from... |
|
Definition
| Group B strep, E Coli, Listeria; strep pneumo, n meningitis, and h influ |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of meningitis in people 6 y to 60 y? |
|
Definition
| N meningitis, enteroviruses, s pneumaniae, HSV |
|
|
Term
What are the most common causes of meningitis in elderly?
|
|
Definition
| S pneumoniae, gram-negative rods, Listeria |
|
|
Term
| What are the different causes of osteomyelitits? |
|
Definition
| usually S aureus, sexually active N gonorrheae, diabetics and drug addicts pseudomanas, sickle cell - salmonella, prosthetics - s aureus and epidermitis, vertebral - m tub, dogs/cats - pasteurella multicoda |
|
|
Term
| What are the different nosocomial pathogens associated with different parts of being in the hospital? |
|
Definition
| neonatal unit - CMV/RSV, urinary cath - e coli/proteus, respirators - pseudomonas, dialysis - HBV, hyperalimentation - candida albicans, and finally air conditioning - legionella pneumophilia |
|
|
Term
| An HIV positive patient presents with watery diarrhea for the last month and acid fast cysts in the stool... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who is positive for HIV presents with symptoms of meningitis and india ink staining shows a narrow-based budding yeast with a large capsule... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient presents with interstitial pneumonia and is HIV positive. On lung biopsy you see Owl's eye cells... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A child presents with cough and conjunctivitis, along with red spots with a blue/white center on their buccal mucosa. Later on they break out in a rash on their face that moves down to their trunk... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is dipicolinic acid associated with? |
|
Definition
| the bacterial spore (provides resistance to dehydration, etc) |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is visualized by a silver stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does reactivated TB have a tendency to end up in the apices of the lung? |
|
Definition
| because M Tuberculosis is an obligate aerobe |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are obligate anaerobes and why? |
|
Definition
| Clostridium, Bacteroides and Actinomyces because they lack catalase and superoxide dismutase (oxygen causes probs for them) |
|
|
Term
| Why do anaerobes smell bad? Where are they normal? |
|
Definition
| short chain fatty acids; GI tract |
|
|
Term
| what is the mnemonic for encapsulated bacteria? |
|
Definition
some killers have nice shiny bodies
strep pneumo
kleb pneumo
h influ
n mening
salmonella
group b strep |
|
|
Term
| What substance is secreted by S pneumoniae, H influenzae and Neisseria to colonize the respiratory mucosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance does group A streptococcus secrete that inhibits phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of vibrio cholarae that results in rice water stools? |
|
Definition
| ADP ribosylation of G protein activates AC which increases Cl pumping into gut, Na can't get back in either --> water follows |
|
|
Term
| What does bordetella pertussis do? |
|
Definition
| inhibits Galpha which increases cAMP - cough, inhibits chemokine receptor - lymphocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What does Shigella do to inactivate ribosomes? |
|
Definition
| secretes shiga toxin which cleaves host cell rRNA |
|
|
Term
| This bacteria forms actin rockets that move from cell to cell and has a characteristic TUMBLING MOTILITY on culture... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of TB involves hilar lymphadenopathy and ghon focus usually in lower lobes?
What fungi can cause hilar lymphadenopathy? |
|
Definition
primary tb (usually in unimmunized - children)
histoplasmosis |
|
|
Term
How does reactivated (secondary)tuberculosis present?
What's it called when reactivated tb has spinal cord involvement? |
|
Definition
fibrocaseous lesion in the upper lobes of the lung
Pott's Disease |
|
|
Term
When is a patient with tb ppd+?
ppd-? |
|
Definition
ppd+ - current infection, past exposure, BCG vaccine
ppd- - no disease, immunocompromised |
|
|
Term
| What are the general clinical symptoms of TB? |
|
Definition
| fever, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis |
|
|
Term
| Of your gram negatives rods, you first divide by lactose fermenting versus non fermenting, what would u divide each of those groups by individually? |
|
Definition
lactose fermenting - do they ferment fast or slow?
lactose non fermenting - are they oxidase pos or neg? |
|
|
Term
| Of the lactose fermenters, which ones ferment fast and which ones ferment slow? |
|
Definition
| fast - E Coli, Klebsiella and enterobacter, slow - serratia, citrobacter, etc |
|
|
Term
| Of the lactose non-fermenters, which ones are oxidase negative and which ones are oxidase positive? |
|
Definition
| oxidase negatives - salmonella, shigella, proteus; oxidase positives - pseudomonas (is moaning outside of the liqour store because the grapes/wine is so good) |
|
|
Term
What is seen in Legionairre's disease?
What would you culture the respective bacteria on? What would you treat it with? |
|
Definition
severe pneumonia and fever
silver stein or charcoal yeast extract agar with cysteine - treat with erythryomycin |
|
|
Term
| What is hemolytic uremic syndrome? What form of E Coli can cause this? |
|
Definition
| triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute renal failure; O157-H7 is the most common serotype of EHEC E Coli to cause this (not the only thing, but the bacteria that does it) |
|
|
Term
| This bacteria can be transmitted from pet feces and therefore causes outbreaks in day care centers... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This bacteria causes gastritis and up to 90% of duodenal ulcers...
What does the triple therapy for this include? |
|
Definition
Helicobacter pylori
two antibiotics and either bismuth or omeprazole |
|
|
Term
| Which spirochete is the only one that can be visualized using aniline dyes? |
|
Definition
| Borrelia (Wright's or Giemsa stain) |
|
|
Term
| Where is alot of bacteria found in syphilis? |
|
Definition
| in the chancres of primary and condyloma lata of secondary |
|
|
Term
| A baby is born with saber shins, saddle nose, deaf, and messed up teeth - what's up with them? |
|
Definition
| congenital syphilis infection |
|
|
Term
| A patient comes in with painless chancre's on their genitalia, and you find a nonspecific antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin, what do they have? |
|
Definition
| primary syphilis - beef cardiolipin reacting with antibody = VDRL test |
|
|
Term
| This bacteria can cause cellulitis and osteomyelitis and is transferred from cat and dog bites... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient presents with a gray discharge from her vagina that she says smells like fish. She is not having any pain. What does she have an infection of and what do you treat her with?
|
|
Definition
| Gardnerella vaginalis - metronidazole |
|
|
Term
| A farmer presents with Q fever. You know this because he has no rash and you find a Weil-Felix reaction to be negative. What did he get this from? |
|
Definition
| delivering baby cows - cow placenta and tick feces have coxiella burnetii in them |
|
|
Term
| Despite it's name, this disease that causes rash on the palms/soles, headache and fever is found on the east coast. |
|
Definition
| Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia Rickettsii) |
|
|
Term
A patient presents with a headache and non-productive cough but when you look at their chest x-ray they have diffuse interstitial infiltrates, you decide to treat them with ______ because they have ___________
|
|
Definition
| tetracycline/erythromycin; Walking pneumonia (mycoplasma pneumoniae) |
|
|
Term
| What is mycoplasma pneumonia grown on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For mycoses, a local infection should be treated with ___________ while a systemic infection should be treated with ___________ |
|
Definition
| fluconazole; amphoterecin b |
|
|
Term
| This mycoses is seen around the Mississippi and Ohio river valleys, causes pneumonia, is associated with bird and bat (spelunking) droppings... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This broad based budding yeast is seen in states east of the Mississippi and can cause inflammatory lung disease and can disseminate from skin to bone... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This mycoses is found in the SW united states (where gay guys go to get cock), and can cause pneumonia and meningitis, and it presents as a spherule in tissues... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This mycoses causing fungi has a captain's wheel/cogwheel appearance... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This fungi has a spaghetti and meatball appearance on KOH prep... |
|
Definition
| malassezia furfer; which causes tinea versicolor |
|
|
Term
| How does Malassezia furfer result in tinea versicolor (hypo or hyperpigmented patches)? |
|
Definition
| degredation of lipids produces acids that damage melanocytes |
|
|
Term
| What organisms cuase tinea and what does it look like? |
|
Definition
| Microsporum, trichophyton and epidermophyton; pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring |
|
|
Term
| This fungi presents as a yeast with pseudohyphae at 20 celcius, but shows germ tubes at 37 degrees... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be used to treat Candida albicans infections? |
|
Definition
| Nystatin for topical, Amphotericin B systemically |
|
|
Term
| This fungi presents as a MOLD with septate hyphae that branch at ACUTE ANGLES... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which molds have irregular nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide angles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do you start prophylaxis for pneumocystic jiroveci? |
|
Definition
| when cd4 drops less than 200 in hiv patients |
|
|
Term
| Thsi is a dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation and causes rose grower's disease, and should be treated with itraconazole or potassium iodide... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person who had just been camping thsi week presents with a profuse, fatty diarrhea. You culture their stool and find a little guy that looks like a face looking at you, what do they have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you treat giardia with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient presents with bloody diarrhea and RUQ pain. On culture of the stool you find amoeba that contain red blood cells, what do they have and what do you treat with? |
|
Definition
| Entamoeba histolytica, treat with metronidazole or iodoquinol |
|
|
Term
| A patient that likes their steak rare showed up at your office a while with chorioretinitis and a headache. You decide to get them a CT and it comes up with ring enhancing lesions in their brain... what do they have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you treat Toxoplasma gondii with? |
|
Definition
| sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine |
|
|
Term
| A patient comes in with all kinds of CNS symptoms and they aren't doing so well. You ask their family what they've been up to recently and they say the patient spends alot of time fishing and swimming at a nearby lakefront cabin. You do a spinal tap and find amoebas. what do they have? |
|
Definition
| Naegliera fowleri, treat with amphotericin (but rarely survive) |
|
|
Term
This bug that causes african sleeping sickness is transferred by the Tsetse fly...
|
|
Definition
| Trypanosoma brucei (Dx with blood smear, treat with suramin or melasoprol) |
|
|
Term
| this bug causes Chagas' disease (dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus) and is found predominately in S America... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you treat Chagas' disease with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient presents with spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia and they've been around Sandflies, what do they probably have? |
|
Definition
| Leishmania donovani infection - tx wtih sodium stibogluconate |
|
|
Term
| What type of plasmodium causes a more severe disease that may involve parasitized RBCs occluding blood vessels in the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parasite causes RBCs to appear with a maltese cross? |
|
Definition
| Babesia (found mostly in NE US, can co-infect with borellia) |
|
|
Term
| This guy is transferred in food contaminated with eggs, and can be tested for using the scotch tape test... |
|
Definition
| Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) |
|
|
Term
| This guy can be detected by eggs in the feces and causes an intestinal infection... |
|
Definition
| Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm) |
|
|
Term
| This parasite is transferred in undercooked meat (usually pork) and causes inflammation of the muscle (cysts foudn there)... |
|
Definition
| Trichinella spiralis - treat with bendazoles |
|
|
Term
| A patient shows up with vomiting, diarrhea, and anemia, and you know that they hang out at the beach alot... |
|
Definition
| Strongyloides, Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus |
|
|
Term
| What parasite found in drinking water can cause skin inflammation and ulceration? What do you treat with? |
|
Definition
| Dracunculus medinensis, niridazole |
|
|
Term
| What bug can be transmitted by blackflies, and causes black skin and blindness (black sight)? |
|
Definition
| Onchocerca volvulus; ivermectin treats |
|
|
Term
| What bug can actually be seen crawling in the conjunctiva? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bug causes elephantiasis? |
|
Definition
| Wuchereria bancrofti - causes blockage of lymphatic vessels |
|
|
Term
| What bug is found in food contaminated with eggs, causes granulomas and visceral larval migrans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bugs should be treated with diethylcarbamazine? |
|
Definition
| loa loa, wuchereria bancrofti, and toxocara canis |
|
|
Term
| What bug can give the brain a swiss cheese appearance? |
|
Definition
| Tania soleum - transmitted in pork |
|
|
Term
| What bug can be found in raw freshwater fish and causes vitamin B12 deficiency and resultant anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient has this bug, the surgeon should inject them with ethanol first to prevent anaphylaxis if they're going to remove a cyst... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| chronic infection with this can lead squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder... |
|
Definition
| schistosoma haematobium - snails are the host |
|
|
Term
| What bug might you get from undercooked fish, resulting in inflammation of the biliary tract --> pigmented gallstones? |
|
Definition
| Clonorchis sinensis (C - cystic tract) |
|
|
Term
| what bug can you get from undercooked crab meat that will lead to inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung - causing hemoptysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What RNA viruses are dsRNA? |
|
Definition
| reoviridae and rotaviridae |
|
|
Term
| What diseases can be caused by EBV? |
|
Definition
| infectious mono, burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| viruses that are infected with this virus have characteristic Owl's eye inclusions... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This virus causes high fevers for several days that can result in seizures, followed by a diffuse maculopapular rash... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which herpes virus causes kaposi's sarcoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what virus is intranuclear cowdry A inclusion bodies associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| While reovirus causes ____________, rotavirus is the _____________ |
|
Definition
| colorado tick fever; #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children |
|
|
Term
| Poliovirus, echovirus, rhinovirus, coxsackie virus and HAV are all picornaviruses with these respective diseases associated... |
|
Definition
| polio, aseptic meningitis, common cold, aseptic menigitis AND herpangina, acute viral hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| Norwalk virus belongs to this family and can cause... |
|
Definition
| Calicaviruses, viral gastroenteritis |
|
|
Term
| What viruses are the flaviviruses? |
|
Definition
| yellow fever, dengue, st louis encephalitis, west nile, HCV |
|
|
Term
| What viruses are the togaviruses? |
|
Definition
| rubella, eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis |
|
|
Term
| what kind of virus is the influenza virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What viruses are paramyxoviruses and what do they cause? |
|
Definition
| parainfluenza (croup), RSV (bronchiolitis in babies), Rubeola (measles) and mumps |
|
|
Term
| What viruses are the filoviruses? |
|
Definition
| Ebola and Marburg hemorrhagic fever - often fatal |
|
|
Term
| What is the HLA subtype associated with MS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the most common causes of pneumonia in neonates? |
|
Definition
| Group B streptococci and E Coli |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common causes of pneumonia in children (6 mo to 18 y)? |
|
Definition
| RSV, mycoplasma pneumonia, chlamydia pneumonia, and strep pneumo |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of pneumoniae in adults? |
|
Definition
| mycoplasma, chlamydia pneumonia and strep pneumo |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common causes of pneumonia in adults 40-65? |
|
Definition
| s pneumoniae, h influenzae, anaerobes, viruses, mycoplasmA |
|
|
Term
| what are the most common causes of pneumonia in the elderly? |
|
Definition
| s pneumoniae, influenza virus, anaerobes, h influenzae, and gram neg rods |
|
|
Term
| What are the MCC of meningitis in neonates? |
|
Definition
| group B strep, e coli, listeria |
|
|
Term
| What are the mcc of meningitis in children (6 mo to 6y)? |
|
Definition
| s pneumoniae, h influenzae, neisseria meningitis, enteroviruses |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of meningitis in adults 6 y to 60 y? |
|
Definition
| n meningitis!, enterviruses, s pneumoniae, and HSV too |
|
|
Term
| What are the mcc of meningitis in 60 y +? |
|
Definition
| s pneumoniae, gram negative rods, and listeria |
|
|
Term
| What are the CSF findings in viral meningitis? |
|
Definition
| normal to increased pressure, increased lymphocytes, normal to increased protein and normal glucose |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cuase of osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic triad associated with toxoplasmosis infection in utero? |
|
Definition
| chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic presentation of rubella infection in utero? |
|
Definition
| PDA, cataracts, deafness, blueberry muffin rash |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic presentation of CMV infection in utero? |
|
Definition
| hearing loss, seizures, and petechial rash |
|
|
Term
| What neonatal infection results in recurrent infections and herpetic lesions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the neonatal manifestations of in utero HSV infection? |
|
Definition
| temporal encephalitis, herpetic lesions |
|
|
Term
| What in utero infection can result in saber shins, notched teeth, saddle nose, and possibly hydrops fetalis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What childhood rash begins at the head and moves downward and involves post-auricular lymphadenopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What child hood rash begins at the head and moves down and is preceded by cough, coryza and conjunctivitis, and involves koplik spots? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus has no rash but involves parotitis, meningitis and orchitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What childhood rash shows up as a macular rash all over the body several days after a high fever (possibly with seziures)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parvovirus b19 presents with these characteristic symptoms... |
|
Definition
| slapped face rash later appears all over body in lace-like pattern |
|
|
Term
| this rash is "sandpaper like" |
|
Definition
| scarlet fever (strep pyogenes) |
|
|
Term
| This infection presents with herpangina (rash on palms and soles with vesicles in mouth)... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This STD presents very close in syptomology to another STD, but has a creamy purulent discharge associated with it... |
|
Definition
| N gonorrheae - alot of the times treat for both N gon and Chlamy |
|
|
Term
| This STD presents with a painful genital ulcer and inguinal adenopathy... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This STD can present wtih ulcers, lymphadenopathy and rectal strictures... |
|
Definition
| lymphogranuloma venereum (chlamydia trachomatis) |
|
|
Term
| This STD shows up with vaginitis, strawberry colored mucosa, corkscrew motility on wet prep, and a green discharge... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what STD presents with clue cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Chlamydial infection leads to infection of liver capsule with violin string adhesions of parietal peritoneum to liver. |
|
|
Term
| This causes fluffy white cottage cheese lesions in the mouth and has pseudohyphae... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This causes superficial vascular proliferation and biopsy will reveal neutrophilic inflammation... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Superficial vascular proliferation with lymphocytic infiltration... |
|
Definition
| HHV-8 or Kaposi's Sarcoma |
|
|
Term
| What causes diarrhea in aids patients with acid-fast cysts found in the stool? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| India ink reveals yeast with narrow-based budding and large capsule... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An aids patient presents with cotton-wool spots on funduscopic exam... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the penicillinase resistant penicillins one can use against Staph A infection? |
|
Definition
| nafcillin, methicillin and dicloxacillin |
|
|
Term
| What can ampicillin and amoxicillin be combined with to enhance their spectrum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the beta lactamase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| clavulinic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam |
|
|
Term
| What three penicillins can be used for pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
| ticarcillin, carbenicillin, and piperacillin |
|
|
Term
| What's special about 4th gen cephalosporins as compared to others? |
|
Definition
| increased activity against pseudomonas and gram pos |
|
|
Term
| What's special about 3rd gen cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
| used for serious gram neg infections |
|
|
Term
| What is only used for gram negative rods but can be used for patients who are penicillin allergic and those with renal insufficiency who can't tolerate aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotics cause inhibition of formation of the initiation complex and cause misreading of mRNA? |
|
Definition
| aminoglycosides - used for severe gram negative rod infections |
|
|
Term
| What class of antibiotics is used for atypical pneumoniaes? |
|
Definition
| macrolide abs - erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic can be used for meningitis (esp in lower income countries due to low cost/although tox is bad)... |
|
Definition
| chloramphenicol (inh 50s peptidyltransferase activity) |
|
|
Term
| This ab blocks peptide bond formation at the 50s ribosomal subunit... |
|
Definition
| clindamycin - used for anaerobic infections |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic causes free radical toxic metabolites to form that damage bacterial DNA? |
|
Definition
| metronidazole - has a disulfiram like reaction with alcohol, use for giardia, entamoeba, trichomonas, gardnerella, anaerobes... |
|
|
Term
| What is the multi drug treatment for mycobacterium avium complex? |
|
Definition
| azithromycin, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of isoniazid? |
|
Definition
| decreases synthesis of mycolic acids, only agent used as solo prophylaxis against TB |
|
|
Term
| what two drugs are combined for toxoplasmosis tx? |
|
Definition
| sulfadiazene and pyrimethamine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| causes formation of intracellular oxygen radicals - toxic to organism |
|
|
Term
| What drug inhibits glycolysis at the PFK rxn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does mebendazole do in helminths? |
|
Definition
| inhibits glucose uptake and microtubule formation |
|
|
Term
| What does pyrantel do to helminths? |
|
Definition
| stimulates nicotinic receptors at neuromuscular junctions |
|
|
Term
| Since pyrantel doesn't have an effect on tapeworms and flukes, what drug should u use instead and what is it's MOA? |
|
Definition
| praziquental - increases membrane permeability to calcium, causing contraction and paralysis of tapeworms/flukes |
|
|
Term
| What is the location of b cell proliferation in lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| follicles - secondary are active |
|
|
Term
| What part of the lymph node communicates with efferent lymphatics? |
|
Definition
| medullary sinuses - have reticular cells and macrophages |
|
|
Term
| What part of the lymph node houses T cells? |
|
Definition
| the paracortex! enlarged in extreme cellular immune response |
|
|
Term
| What lymph nodes do the testes drain to? |
|
Definition
| the superficial and deep para-aortic plexuses |
|
|
Term
| What HLA subtype is associated with Grave's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What HLA subtype is associated wtih MS and SLE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What HLA subtype is associated with DM type I? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What HLA subtype is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement proteins take part in viral neutralization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement protein is responsibile for opsonization of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement proteins are responsible for anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What complement protein is responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement proteins are responsible for cytolysis by the membrane attack complex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency of what leads to complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency of what complement factors leads to Neisseria bacteremia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What deficiency leads to severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines induce fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine induces chemotactic factor for neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells, activates NK cells, and is secreted by B cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in type I hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| antigen binds IgE on pre-sensitized mast cells and basophils |
|
|
Term
| What happens in type ii hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| IgM and IgG bind to fixed antigen on enemy cell, leading to lysis |
|
|
Term
| What happens in type III hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| antigen-antibody complexes activate complement, which attracts neutrophils - which release lysosomal enzymes |
|
|
Term
| What happens in serum sickness? |
|
Definition
| immune complex disease in which antibodies to forein proteins are produced, immune complexes form and deposit in memrbanes where they fix complement |
|
|
Term
| What happens in type IV hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
| t lymphocytes that are sensitized encounter antigen adn then release lymphokines |
|
|
Term
Match the antibodies to their disease...
1. anti dsDNA, anti smith, ANA 2. antihistone 3. anti-IgG 4. anticentromere
A. scleroderma (CREST) B. drug-induced lupus C. SLE D. Rheumatoid arthritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match the auto-antibody to it's given disease...
1. Anti-Scl-70 2. Antimitochondrial 3. Antigliadin/anti endomysial 4. anti BM
A. Celiac Disease B. Goodpasture's C. scleroderma (diffuse) D. biliary cirrhosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match the autoantibodies to their given disease...
1. anti-desmoglein 2. antimicrosomal/antithyroglobulin 3. Anti-Jo-1 4. Anti SSA SSB
A. Sjogren's B. Polymyositis
C. Pemphigus Vulgaris D. Hashimoto's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the defect seen in hyper-IgM syndrome? |
|
Definition
| defective CD40L on helper T cells, causes increased IGM, and decreased IgA, IgG, and IgD |
|
|
Term
| What is the defect in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
| x-linked recessive defect in BTK - tyrosine kinase blocks B cell differentiation/maturation --> decreased b cells and IG of all classes |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common Ig deficiency? |
|
Definition
| IgA - failure to mature into plasma cells |
|
|
Term
| Whatdefect is seen in CVID? |
|
Definition
| defect in b cell maturation causes decreased plasma cells and immunoglobulin |
|
|
Term
| What happens in DiGeorge Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| thymic aplasia (and parathyroids) leads to decreased T cells, PTH and Ca (tetany) |
|
|
Term
| What happens in IL-12 receptor deficiency? |
|
Definition
| decreased Th1 response leads to disseminated mycobacterial infections, decreased IFNgamma |
|
|
Term
| What is seen in hyper-IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome)? |
|
Definition
| Th cells fail to produce interferon gamma so neutrophils can't respond to chemotactic stimuli, FATED - coarse face, Abscesses, retained primary TEETH, increased IgE, Derm probs |
|
|
Term
| What things can result in SCID? |
|
Definition
| IL2 receptor defective, adenosine deaminase def, failure to synthesize MHCII antigens |
|
|
Term
| What happens in ataxia-telangiectasia? |
|
Definition
| defect in DNA repair enzymes leads to triad of cerebellar defects, spider angiomas, and IgA def |
|
|
Term
| What happens in Wiskott-Aldrich? |
|
Definition
| x-linked recessive defect, triad of thrombocytopenic purpura, infections and eczema (increased IgE and IgA, decreased IgM) |
|
|
Term
What syndrome results from auto rec defect in microtubular function with decreased phagocytosis?
|
|
Definition
| Chediak-Higashi Syndrome, recurrent pyogenic infections with staph and strep |
|
|
Term
What immune deficiency involves a negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test? |
|
Definition
| Chronic granulomatous disease (NADPH oxidase def) |
|
|
Term
| what immunosuppressant drug binds mTOR? |
|
Definition
| sirolimus - blocks t cell proliferation in response to IL-2 |
|
|
Term
| This drug is a monoclonal ab with a high affinity for the IL-2 receptor on activated T cells... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This drug is an anti-metabolite precursor of 6-MP used for kidney transplants and autoimmune disorders like glomerulonephritis and hemolytic anemia... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are filgastrim and sargamostim used for?r |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine can be used to treat MS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two things can be used to treat thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
| oprelvekin and thrombopoietin |
|
|
Term
| What is the target of abciximab? |
|
Definition
| GPIIa/IIIb - prevents cardiac ischemia in those with unstable angina or percutaneous coronary intervention |
|
|
Term
| What can trastuzumab be used for? |
|
Definition
| HER-2 expressing breast cancer |
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Term
| What can rituximab be used for? |
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Definition
| target is CD20 --> can be used for B cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma |
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Term
| How does apoptosis happen in the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways? |
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Definition
intrinsic - anti and pro apoptotic factor levels change leading to increased mito permeability and release of cyt c
extrinsic - ligand receptor interaction - FAs ligand binds Fas, immune cell release of perforin and granzyme b (t killers) |
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Term
| What should you be thinking if you see a patient with bloody diarrhea then weakness/numbness of the feet and lower legs within the week... |
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Definition
| infection precipitating Guillain-Barre SYndrome, leading to high protein and normal white blood cell count in CSF |
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Term
| A patient is taking nitroglycerin for chest pain. What drug has a mechanism of action similar to nitroglycerine's activity on blood vessels? |
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Definition
| bethenechol - muscarinic agonist causes release of NO |
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Term
| Where is the posterior chapman point for the appendix? |
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Definition
| the transverse process of T11 |
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Term
| What is a large renal mass in a 3 yo patient most likely caused by? |
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Definition
| WIlms tumor - organomegaly and macroglossia are commonly associated, 90% of pts respond well w tx |
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Term
| How does CO poisoning change the oxygen stats of the blood? |
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Definition
| SaO2 goes down because there are less oxygen binding sites, PaO2 stays the same because diffusion is ok |
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Term
| What does a patient have if she has neurofibromatosis type I? |
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Definition
| scoliosis with cafe-au-lait spots, lisch nodules in the iris, neurofibromas are growth of all the elements of peripheral nerves including schwann cells and fibroblasts |
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Term
| If a patient has blood oozing from mucous membranes and low fibrinogen, what do they probably have? |
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Definition
| DIC - low platelets, increased BT, PT, and PTT |
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Term
| What are manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
fibrosis and ankylosis, ulnar deviation, Baker's cyst, Boutonneire deformity, swan-neck deformity
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Term
| A patient comes in with darkened stools, and a history of ulcers, what kind of anemia are you worried about? |
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Definition
| Fe deficiency (microcytic) anemia - chronic GI bleed |
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Term
| When a child shows up with unilateral facial swelling and ALOT of erythema, what are you thinking? |
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Definition
| cellulitis, zygomatic region drains to cavernous sinus and therefore increases risk of thrombosis |
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Term
| A patinet comes in with cafe-au-lait spots, axillary freckling, neurofibromas of peripheral nerves, and pigmented nodules in teh iris (Licsh nodules)... what do they have and what caused it? |
|
Definition
Neurofibromatosis type I - NF1 tumor suppressor gene found on Chrom 17 is f'd up
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Term
| Describe the presentation of an MS patient? |
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Definition
| female in 20-30s with intermittent weakness, urinary incontinence, and blurry vision, bright white areas usually surrounding lateral ventricles on MRI |
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Term
If a patient has chronic sinusitis with mucosal ulcers, necrotizing granulomas in the URT and kidney disease, what do they probably have?
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Definition
| Wegener granulomatosis, supported by cANCA present in the serum |
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Term
| If a patient comes in with abdominal pain and weight loss, and you see pANCA in their serum, what do they have? |
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Definition
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Term
| An alcoholic with spider telangectasia has this problem because of... |
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Definition
| increased estrogen due to inability of liver to metabolize it |
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Term
| How do the glomeruli present in a pt with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
| hypercellular glomeruli with neutrophils having a lumpy bumpy appearance |
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|
Term
| Describe Hodgkin's Lymphoma... |
|
Definition
| owl's eye (reed steinberg) cells, good prognosis, primarily effects young adults |
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Term
| What complication of sickle cell involves formatino of pulmonary infarctino with vaso-occulsion of the posterior intercostal arteries? |
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Definition
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Term
| If a patient with B+ blood is loosing blood quickly, what blood product can you use to replace their blood loss? |
|
Definition
| packed red blood cells b+, or o- (universal donor) |
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Term
| IF a patient presents with dysmenorrhea, painful bowel movements during menses, enlargement of ovaries, and intestinal obstruction what are they at an increased risk for? |
|
Definition
| infertility because they have endometriosis |
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Term
| A young woman showing up with fever, neurologic symptoms, kidney failure, anemia and thrombocytopenia probably has... |
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Definition
| TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura) |
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|
Term
| What oncogene is associated with CML and what does it change? |
|
Definition
| abl - tyrosine kinase activity |
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|
Term
| What gene is associated with Burkitt's Lymphoma and what does it change? |
|
Definition
| c-myc; transcription factor |
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|
Term
| What kinds of cancer is bcl-2 associated with? (anti-apoptotic) |
|
Definition
| follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas |
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|
Term
| What oncogene is associated with breast, ovarian and gastric carcinomas? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What oncogene is associated with colon carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| ras - affects GTPase activity |
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Term
| L-myc and N-myc are transcription factors that are associated with these cancers respectively... |
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Definition
| lung tumor, neuroblastoma |
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Term
| What oncogene is associated with MEN-II and III syndrome? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What tumor is associated with c-kit (cytokine receptor)? |
|
Definition
| gastrointestinal stromal tumor |
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