Term
| What is the origin and innervation of Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)? |
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Definition
| It originates from bipolar cells in the olfactory epithelium and innervates the olfactory mucosa. |
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Term
| Cranial Nerve II (Optic) originates from the _____ cells of the retina and travels to the lateral geniculate body. |
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Definition
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Term
| Which cranial nerve originates in the midbrain and innervates the superior, medial, and inferior rectus muscles, as well as the inferior oblique and levator palpebrae superioris? |
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Definition
| Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor). |
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Term
| The parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) originate from the _____ nucleus and innervate the pupillary sphincter and ciliary muscle. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the sole muscle innervated by Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)? |
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Definition
| The superior oblique muscle. |
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Term
| Which division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) exits through the superior orbital fissure and provides sensation to the cornea and forehead? |
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Definition
| V1 (Ophthalmic division). |
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Term
| The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (V2) exits the skull through which foramen? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the motor functions of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3)? |
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Definition
| It innervates the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric, tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani. |
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Term
| Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens) innervates which extraocular muscle? |
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Definition
| The lateral rectus muscle. |
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Term
| Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression? |
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Definition
| Cranial Nerve VII (Facial). |
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Term
| Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by which cranial nerve? |
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Definition
| Cranial Nerve VII (Facial). |
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Term
| The parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual glands originates from the superior salivatory nucleus and is carried by which cranial nerve? |
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Definition
| Cranial Nerve VII (Facial). |
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Term
| The vestibular component of Cranial Nerve VIII provides sensation from which structures? |
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Definition
| The semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule. |
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Term
| Sensation from the cochlea is transmitted by which component of Cranial Nerve VIII? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which cranial nerve provides taste and general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue? |
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Definition
| Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal). |
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Term
| The stylopharyngeus muscle, involved in swallowing, is innervated by Cranial Nerve IX from which nucleus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland is a function of which cranial nerve? |
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Definition
| Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal). |
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Term
| Which cranial nerve innervates most muscles of the pharynx and larynx, originating from the nucleus ambiguus? |
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Definition
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Term
| The vagus nerve (CN X) provides visceral sensation from the base of the tongue, pharynx, larynx, and thoracic and abdominal organs to which nucleus? |
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Definition
| The nucleus of the solitary tract (NTS). |
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Term
| What two muscles are innervated by Cranial Nerve XI (Spinal Accessory)? |
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Definition
| The sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. |
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Term
| Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal) innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for which one? |
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Definition
| The palatoglossus muscle (innervated by CN X). |
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Term
| What does a positive Babinski sign indicate? |
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Definition
| A lesion of the pyramidal/corticospinal tract (upper motor neuron). |
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Term
| Describe the positive response seen when eliciting the Babinski sign. |
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Definition
| Extension of the great toe and fanning of the other toes. |
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Term
| Stimulating the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the foot to elicit an extensor plantar response is known as the _____ sign. |
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Definition
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Term
| How is the Oppenheim sign performed? |
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Definition
| Firm pressure is applied with the knuckles down the anterior aspect of the tibia. |
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Term
| Compressing the Achilles tendon to provoke extension of the great toe is known as which sign? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which Babinski surrogate involves deep compression of the gastrocnemius muscles? |
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Definition
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Term
| The Hoffmann sign, which indicates an upper motor neuron lesion at the cervical level, is considered positive when flicking the distal phalanx of the middle finger causes what response? |
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Definition
| Involuntary flexion of the thumb and index finger. |
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Term
| What are the three components evaluated in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)? |
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Definition
| Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. |
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Term
| According to the provided source (ENARM pearl), a Glasgow Coma Scale score of _____ or less indicates a coma and the need to secure the airway. |
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Definition
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Term
| What sensory modality is primarily evaluated by the Romberg test? |
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Definition
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Term
| A positive Romberg test, where the patient falls upon closing their eyes, suggests an issue with _____ pathways or the vestibular system, rather than a cerebellar problem. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is asterixis (flapping tremor) a clinical sign of? |
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Definition
| Metabolic encephalopathy (e.g., hepatic, uremic, hypercapnic). |
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Term
| A fixed and dilated pupil is an ENARM pearl that suggests what critical neurological event? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three components of the Cushing triad? |
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Definition
| Hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory alterations. |
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Term
| The Cushing triad is a late and grave sign of what condition? |
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Definition
| Severe intracranial hypertension (HIC). |
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Term
| Where is the aortic auscultatory area (foco aórtico) located? |
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Definition
| The second right intercostal space, at the parasternal line. |
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Term
| Where is the pulmonic auscultatory area (foco pulmonar) located? |
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Definition
| The second left intercostal space, at the parasternal line. |
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Term
| The tricuspid auscultatory area is found at the fifth left intercostal space near the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| Where is the mitral auscultatory area (foco mitral) located? |
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Definition
| The fifth left intercostal space, at the midclavicular line. |
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Term
| What event in the cardiac cycle produces the first heart sound (S1)? |
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Definition
| The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. |
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Term
| What event in the cardiac cycle produces the second heart sound (S2)? |
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Definition
| The closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves. |
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Term
| A fixed splitting of the S2 heart sound is a classic auscultatory finding for what condition? |
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Definition
| Atrial septal defect (ASD). |
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Term
| What does the presence of a third heart sound (S3) in an adult typically suggest? |
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Definition
| Heart failure and volume overload. |
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Term
| A fourth heart sound (S4) is caused by atrial contraction against a _____ ventricle. |
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Definition
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Term
| Why can an S4 heart sound not be heard in a patient with atrial fibrillation? |
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Definition
| Because S4 requires an effective atrial contraction, which is absent in atrial fibrillation. |
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Term
| A Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) below _____ mmHg is associated with organ hypoperfusion. |
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Definition
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Term
| What does a narrow pulse pressure (<25-30 mmHg) suggest clinically? |
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Definition
| Low cardiac output and poor perfusion (e.g., in cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock). |
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Term
| A wide pulse pressure is characteristic of which two conditions? |
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Definition
| Aortic insufficiency or arterial stiffness. |
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Term
| What does jugular venous distention clinically indicate? |
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Definition
| Increased central venous pressure, suggesting right heart dysfunction or volume overload. |
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Term
| Periumbilical ecchymosis, known as _____ sign, suggests intra-abdominal hemorrhage, typically in severe acute pancreatitis. |
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Definition
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Term
| Ecchymosis in the flanks, known as the Grey Turner sign, is associated with what type of bleeding? |
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Definition
| Retroperitoneal bleeding. |
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Term
| What is the name for pain localized to the point two-thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine, suggestive of appendicitis? |
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Definition
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Term
| Pain in the right lower quadrant upon sudden release of pressure is known as what sign? |
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Definition
| Blumberg's sign (rebound tenderness). |
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Term
| Eliciting pain in the right iliac fossa by palpating the left iliac fossa is known as the _____ sign. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is Murphy's sign and what does it suggest? |
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Definition
| It is the interruption of deep inspiration due to pain on palpation of the right upper quadrant, suggesting acute cholecystitis. |
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Term
| Pain on palpation at the left costovertebral angle, known as the Mayo-Robson sign, is a classic finding for what condition? |
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Definition
| Acute pancreatitis, especially involving the tail of the pancreas. |
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Term
| The _____ sign suggests chronic pancreatitis and is elicited by deep palpation below the left costal margin with the patient in the right lateral decubitus position. |
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Definition
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Term
| How is Chvostek's sign elicited and what does it indicate? |
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Definition
| It's elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the earlobe, causing facial muscle twitching; it indicates hypocalcemia and neuromuscular hyperexcitability. |
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Term
| Inflation of a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for 2-3 minutes causing a carpopedal spasm is known as _____ sign. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the three components of Whipple's triad, used to diagnose clinically significant hypoglycemia? |
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Definition
| Symptoms of hypoglycemia, low plasma glucose, and reversal of symptoms after glucose administration. |
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Term
| Whipple's triad is a key diagnostic clue for what type of tumor? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where is the superior ureteral point located? |
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Definition
| At the intersection of the umbilical line and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle. |
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Term
| Pain upon percussion of the costovertebral angle is called Giordano's sign. What condition is it classic for? |
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Definition
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Term
| A purplish discoloration of the cervix and vagina due to vascular congestion in early pregnancy (6-8 weeks) is known as _____ sign. |
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Definition
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Term
| The Homan's sign, described as calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot, is classically associated with what condition, despite its low sensitivity and specificity? |
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Definition
| Deep vein thrombosis (DVP). |
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Term
| Pain in the calf upon compression of the muscle against the bone is known as the _____ sign, which suggests DVT. |
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Definition
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Term
| The persistence of a depression in the skin after digital pressure, known as the _____ sign, indicates pitting edema. |
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Definition
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Term
| According to the clinical algorithm, if a patient with a MAP <65 mmHg does not respond to IV fluids, what is the next step in management? |
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Definition
| Initiate vasopressors, such as norepinephrine. |
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Term
| In the algorithm for abnormal pulse pressure, a wide pulse pressure (>60 mmHg) should prompt auscultation for a _____ murmur to investigate for aortic insufficiency. |
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Definition
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Term
| The first heart sound (S1) is diminished in _____ and augmented in _____. |
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Definition
| mitral regurgitation; mitral stenosis |
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Term
| What does a paradoxical splitting of S2 suggest? |
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Definition
| A left bundle branch block (LBBB), because the aortic valve closes after the pulmonic valve. |
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Term
| An S3 heart sound is considered normal in what two populations? |
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Definition
| Children and women in the third trimester of pregnancy. |
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Term
| Jugular vein assessment is considered one of the best clinical estimators for what hemodynamic parameter? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the normal range for pulse pressure? |
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Definition
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Term
| A combination of low Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP), elevated serum lactate, and oliguria is indicative of what clinical state? |
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Definition
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