Term
| ___ is the solvent in which the chemical reactions of living cells take place |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Water is a ___ that can ____ |
|
Definition
| small polar molecule; hydrogen bond |
|
|
Term
| the ability of water to hydrogen bond allows it to ___ and also provides ____. |
|
Definition
| maintain its liquid state in the cellular environment; strong cohesive forces between water molecules |
|
|
Term
| These cohesive forces squeeze _____ away from water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ dissolve in water easily because ___ |
|
Definition
| hydrophilic; their negatively charged ends attract the the H+ and their positively charged ends attract O- |
|
|
Term
| Thus water molecules ____ a hydrophilic molecule, thus seperating it from the group |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most macromolecules of living cells are broken apart via ____, and are formed via ____ |
|
Definition
| hydrolysis; dehydration synthesis |
|
|
Term
| a lipid is any molecule that has ___ |
|
Definition
| low solubility in water and high solubility in nonpolar environments. |
|
|
Term
| lipids make excellent _____ |
|
Definition
| barriers separating aqueous environments |
|
|
Term
| six major groups of lipids |
|
Definition
| fatty acids, triglycerides, phospholipids, glycolipids, steroids, and terpenes |
|
|
Term
| ___ are the building blocks for most complex lipids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| fatty acids are long chains of ___ that are truncated at one end by a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| saturated fatty acids possess only ___ |
|
Definition
| single carbon-carbon bonds |
|
|
Term
| unsaturated fatty acids contain one or more ___. |
|
Definition
| carbon-carbon double bonds |
|
|
Term
| ___ of fatty acids liberates large amounts of chemical energy for a cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most fats reach the cell in the form of ____ |
|
Definition
| fatty acids, not triacylglycerols |
|
|
Term
| triglycerides , or simply ___, are constructed from ____, which is attached to ____ |
|
Definition
| fats and oils; a three carbon backbone called glycerol; three fatty acids |
|
|
Term
| the function of triglycerides in a cell is to ____, and may also provide ___ |
|
Definition
| store energy; thermal insulation and padding to an organism |
|
|
Term
| ___, also called fat cells, are specialized cells whose cytoplasm contains almost nothing but triglycerides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| phospholipids are built from a ___ backbone, but a ____. This makes the phospholipid ____ |
|
Definition
| glycerol backbone; polar phosphate group replaces one of the fatty acids; polar at the phosphate end and nonpolar at the fatty acid end |
|
|
Term
| The condition of being polar at one end and non-polar at the other is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| phospholipids are the major component of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| glycolipids are similar to ____, except that glycolipids have ____. glycolipids are also ___. They are found in abundance in the ______ |
|
Definition
| phospholipids; one or more carbohydrates attached to a three carbon glycerol backbone instead of the phosphate group; amphipathic; membranes of myelinated cells composing the human nervous system |
|
|
Term
| steroids are ____ structures that include ___,___, and ____ |
|
Definition
| four ringed structures; hormones, vitamin D, cholesterol |
|
|
Term
| terpenes are a sixth class of lipids which include ____, a vitamin important for vision |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| since lipids are insoluble in aqueous solution, they are transported in the blood via ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a lipoprotein contains a lipid core surrounded by ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| phospholipids and apoproteins |
|
|
Term
functions: 1. phospholipids: 2. triacylglycerols 3. steroids: |
|
Definition
1. serve as a structural component of membranes 2. store metabolic energy, provide thermal insulation and padding 3. regulated metabolic activity |
|
|
Term
| proteins are built from a chain of ___ linked together by ___ |
|
Definition
| amino acids; peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
| nearly all proteins are built from ____ |
|
Definition
| the same 20 alpha amino acids |
|
|
Term
| in humans, 10 of the amino acids are ___; this means ____ |
|
Definition
| essential; the body can't manufacture these so they must be ingested |
|
|
Term
| the amino acids often differ from each other only in their ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the side chain is also attached to the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| proteins are sometimes referred to as ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the number and sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| once the primary structure is formed, the single chain can ____ or ____ |
|
Definition
| twist into an alpha helix, or lie along side itself and form a beta pleated sheet |
|
|
Term
| with beta pleated sheets, the connecting segments of the two strands of the sheet can lie ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
| in the same direction (parallel) or in opposite directions (antiparallel) |
|
|
Term
| the alpha helix and beta pleated sheets are the ___, and contribute to the ____ |
|
Definition
| secondary structure; conformation of the protein |
|
|
Term
| all proteins have a ___ structure and most have a ___ structure. Larger proteins can have a _____ |
|
Definition
| primary; secondary; tertiary; quaternary |
|
|
Term
| the tertiary structure refers to the ___ formed when the ____ |
|
Definition
| 3-d structure; peptide chain curls and folds |
|
|
Term
| five forces that create the tertiary structure: |
|
Definition
1. covalent disulfide bonds between two cysteine amino acids on different parts of the chain. 2. electrostatic interactions between acidic and basic side chains 3. hydrogen bonds 4. van der walls forces 5. hydrophobic side chains pushed towards center by water |
|
|
Term
| the quaternary structure is formed when ___ |
|
Definition
| two or more polypeptide chains bind together |
|
|
Term
| when the conformation is disrupted, the protein is said to be ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| carbohydrates are made from ___ and ___, and have the empirical formula ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The six carbon carbohydrate ___ is the most commonly occuring six carbon carbohydrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| constructs bigger molecules from smaller molecules, dehydration synthesis, endergonic (absorbing energy in the form of work), not spontanteous |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| breaks down bigger molecules into small units, hydrolysis,exothermic |
|
|
Term
| essentially all digested carbohydrates have been converted to ___ by the ___ |
|
Definition
| glucose, liver, enterocytes |
|
|
Term
| if a cell has sufficient ATP, glucose is ___,___, or ____ |
|
Definition
| polymerized to the polysaccharide, glycogen, or converted to fat |
|
|
Term
| large amounts of glycogen are found in _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nucleotides are composed of three components: |
|
Definition
1. a five carbon sugar 2. a nitrogenous base 3. a phosphate group |
|
|
Term
| what are the nitrogenous bases |
|
Definition
| adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine, and uracil |
|
|
Term
| nucleotides join polymers to create ___ |
|
Definition
| nucleic acids, DNA, and RNA |
|
|
Term
| in nucleic acids, nucleotides are joined together by ____ |
|
Definition
| phosphodiester bonds between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3rd carbon of the pentose of the other nucleotide forming long strands |
|
|
Term
| in typical DNA, two strands are joined by ___ to make a structure called a ____ |
|
Definition
| hydrogen bonds, double helix |
|
|
Term
| Adenine and thymine form _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| guanine and cytosine form ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In typical RNA, there is _____ |
|
Definition
| only one strand, no helix is formed, and uracil replaces thymine |
|
|
Term
| minerals are ____; they assist in the ____; they can _____; minerals also act as ____ assisting ____; example ____ |
|
Definition
| dissolved inorganic ions inside and outside the cell; transport of substances entering and exiting the cell; combine and solidify to give strength to a matrix; cofactors, assisting protein or enzyme function; iron in the heme group |
|
|
Term
| 4 other important nucleotides |
|
Definition
| ATP, cyclic AMP, NADH, FADH2 |
|
|
Term
| the source of readily available energy for the cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a important component in many second messenger systems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| coenzymes involved in the krebs cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Virtually all biological reactions are governed by ____. - few ___ act as ____ -enzymes are typically ___ proteins - the function of any enzyme is to ____ _ enyzmes are not ___, and to not alter the ___ of the reaction |
|
Definition
enzymes - nucleic acids; enzymes - globular - act as a catalyst, lowering the energy of activation for a biological reaction and increasing the rate of that reaction - consumed, equilibrium |
|
|
Term
the substrate is the ____ - the position on the enzyme to where the substrate binds, usually with ____, is called the ____ |
|
Definition
reactant or reactants upon which an enzyme works. -noncovalent bonds, active site |
|
|
Term
the enzyme bound to a substrate is called the ____ - the ___ binds to the ___ |
|
Definition
enzyme-substrate complex - substrate, enzymes active site |
|
|
Term
| normally, enzymes are designed to work on ___, this is called ____ |
|
Definition
| only a specific substrate or group of closely related substances, enzyme specificity |
|
|
Term
| enzymes exhibit saturation kinetics, explain |
|
Definition
| as the rate of the substrate increases, the reaction rate increases. However, once the max reaction rate is achieved (ie all enzymes are being used), the rate cant increases further. |
|
|
Term
| how do temp and pH affect enzymatic reactions. |
|
Definition
| rate increases as temp and pH increases, however once temp and pH go past a certain point the proteins and enzymes start to denature and reaction rate decreases |
|
|
Term
in order to reach their optimal activity, many enzymes require a non-protein component called a ____ - they can be ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
co-factor - coenzymes or metal ions |
|
|
Term
many coenzymes are ___ - an enzyme with its cofactor is called a ___ |
|
Definition
vitamins or their derivatives - holoenzyme |
|
|
Term
| agents which bind covalently, sometimes noncovalently, to enzymes and disrupt their function are ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1.competitive inhibitors:___ 2. noncompetitive inhibitors:___ |
|
Definition
1.compete with the substrate by binding reversibly with noncovalent bonds to the active site. 2. bind noncovalently to an enzyme at a spot other than the active site and change the conformation of the active site. |
|
|
Term
| many enzymes are released into their environment in an inactive form called a ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| allosteric interactions: ___ |
|
Definition
| allosteric regulation is the modification of the enzyme configuration resulting from the binding of an activator or inhibitor as a specific binding site on the enzyme |
|
|
Term
normally an enzyme governs ____ - if one of the products downstream in a reaction series comes back and inhibits the enzymatic activity in an early reaction, this is known as ___ -___ happens when the product returns to active the enzyme |
|
Definition
just one reaction in a series of reactions - negative feedback or feedback inhibition -positive feedback |
|
|
Term
| feedback inhibitors do not ____, instead they ____, this is called ____ |
|
Definition
| resemble the substrates of the enzymes that they inhibit; they bind to the enzyme and cause a conformational change; allosteric regulation (not necessarily noncompetitive inhibitors) |
|
|
Term
___: all cellular chemical reactions ___: molecular synthesis ___: molecular degradation |
|
Definition
metabolism anabolism catabolism |
|
|
Term
| if ___ is used, respiration is ___, if it is not used the respiration is ___ |
|
Definition
| oxygen, aerobic, anaerobic |
|
|
Term
| ___: is respiration in which oxygen is not required |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| glycolysis is the ___ of ___ |
|
Definition
| first stage of anaerobic and aerobic respiration |
|
|
Term
| glycolysis is the series of reactions that ____ |
|
Definition
| breaks a 6 carbon glucose molecule into two 3 carbon molecules of pyruvate |
|
|
Term
| ____ are capable of breaking down glucose to pyruvate |
|
Definition
| all living cells and organisms |
|
|
Term
Does glycolysis require oxygen? Where does glycolysis occure? |
|
Definition
| glycolysis will operate in both the presence and absence of oxygen; the reactions of glycolysis occur in the cytosol of living cells |
|
|
Term
| substrate level phosphorylation is the ____ |
|
Definition
| formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate using the energy released from the decay of high energy phosphorylated compounds as opposed to using the energy from diffusion |
|
|
Term
| The products of carbohydrate digestion in the alimentary tract are approximately ____ |
|
Definition
| 80% glucsoe and 20% fructose which are both monosaccharides |
|
|
Term
fermentation is a form of ____ -it includes the process of ____ --yeast and some microorganisms make ___ -- human muscle cells and some microorganisms produce ___ |
|
Definition
anaerobic respiration - glycolysis, the reproduction of pyruvate to ethanol or lactic acid, and the oxidation of NADH back to NAD+ --ethanol --lactic acid |
|
|
Term
fermentation takes place when ___ In fermentation, the NAD+ is ___ |
|
Definition
| a cell or organism is either unable to assimilate the energy from NADH and pyruvate, or has no oxygen available to do so; is restored for use in its role in glycolysis as a coenzyme, and the lactic acid or ethanol is expelled from the cell along with carbon dioxide as a waste product |
|
|
Term
| glycolysis has a net production of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What will happen when a certain enzyme is inhibited by a poison? |
|
Definition
| The poison will create a build up of reactants and a dramatic reduction of products at the reaction that the enzyme governs. |
|
|
Term
| fermentation recycles ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
aerobic respiration requires ___ - the products of glycolysis move into the ____ - once inside, the pyruvate is converted to ___ in a reaction that produces ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
oxygen - matrix of mitochondrion - acetyl CoA, CO2, NADH |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a coenzyme which transfers two carbons to the ___ to begin the ___ |
|
Definition
| Acetyl CoA; 4 carbon oxaloacetic acid; Krebs cycle |
|
|
Term
Each turn of the Krebs cycle produces __ - The process of ATP formation in the Krebs cycle is by ___ |
|
Definition
1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2 - substrate level phosphorylation |
|
|
Term
| The electron transport chain is a ____ |
|
Definition
| series of proteins, including cytochromes with heme, located in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion |
|
|
Term
| The electron transport chain creates ATP through ___ |
|
Definition
| oxidative phosphorylation |
|
|
Term
| aerobic respiration produces about ____ ATP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a gene is a ___ that generally codes ___ |
|
Definition
| series of DNA nucleotides; for the production of a single polypeptide or mRNA, rRNA, or tRNA. |
|
|
Term
generally one gene = ____ - exception is ___ |
|
Definition
one polypeptide - postrancscipional processing RNA |
|
|
Term
| how do eukaryotes and prokaryotes differ in genes |
|
Definition
| eukaryotes have more than one copy of some genes, while prokaryotes have only one copy of each gene |
|
|
Term
genes are often referred to as ___ -while regions of non-coding DNA found only in eukaryotes are called ____ -eukaryotic genes that are being actively transcribed by a cell are associated with regions of DNA called __ -while genes not being actively transcribed are associated with tightly packed regions of DNA called ___ |
|
Definition
unique sequence DNA -repetitive sequence DNA -euchromatin -heterochromatin |
|
|
Term
even in eukaryotes, ___ dominated - ___ is found mainly in heterochromatin |
|
Definition
unique sequence DNA -repetitive sequence DNA |
|
|
Term
| the entire DNA sequence of an organism is called the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the central dogma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is a polymer of nucleotides -They differ from each other only in their ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the four nitrogenous bases are |
|
Definition
| adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine |
|
|
Term
| adenine and guanine are ____ |
|
Definition
| two ringed structures called purines |
|
|
Term
| cytosine and thymine are ___ |
|
Definition
| single ring structures called pyrimidines |
|
|
Term
each nucleotide is bound to the next by a ___ - this creates the |
|
Definition
phosphodiester bond between the third carbon of one deoxyribose and the fifth carbon of the other - 5 prime to 3 prime directionality |
|
|
Term
| the end 3 prime carbon is attached to ___; and the end 5 prime carbon is attached to a ___ |
|
Definition
| an oh group; phosphate group |
|
|
Term
purines: pyrimidines: hydrogen bonds: |
|
Definition
adenine, guanine cytosine, thymine, uracil A2T, C3G |
|
|
Term
| the two DNA strands lie ____ |
|
Definition
| side by side in opposite 3 to 5 directions, anti-parallel, connected by hydrogen bonds |
|
|
Term
| two strands that have the bases match up correctly are called ___, and curl into a ___ |
|
Definition
| complimentary strands; double helix |
|
|
Term
| DNA replication is said to be ___ because ___ |
|
Definition
| semi-conservative; because the new strand contains one parental strand and one daughter strand |
|
|
Term
The process of DNA replication is governed by a group of proteins called a ___. - where does replication begin? |
|
Definition
replisome -replication does not begin as the end of a chromosome, but toward the middle as a site called the origin of replication |
|
|
Term
| a single eukaryotic chromosome contains ___ on each chromosome, while replication in prokaryotes usually takes place ___ |
|
Definition
| multiple origins of replication; for a single origin on the circular chromosome |
|
|
Term
from the origin, ____ - the point where the replisome is attached to the chromosome is called the ___ - each chromosome of eukaryotic DNA is replicated in many discrete segments called _____ |
|
Definition
two replisomes proceed in opposite directions along the chromosome making replication a bidirectional process. -replication fork -replication units or replicons |
|
|
Term
| ___: unwinds the double helix separating the two strands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the enzyme that builds the new DNA strand, cannot initiate a strand from two nucleotides, but can only add nucleotides to an existing strand |
|
|
Term
primase:___ - what happens after primase? |
|
Definition
an RNA polymerase, creates an RNA primer approximately 10 ribonucleotides long to initiate the strand - DNA polymerase adds deoxynucleotides to the primer and moves along each DNA strand creating a new complimentary strand |
|
|
Term
| DNA polymerase reads the parental strand in the ___ direction, creating the new complimentary strand in the ___ direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| each nucleotide added to the new strand requires the removal of a ____ from a ___ |
|
Definition
| pyrophosphate group (two phosphates bonded together); deoxynucleotide triphosphate |
|
|
Term
| replication proceeds in ____, each section produces a ____ |
|
Definition
| both directions from the origin; leading and lagging strand |
|
|
Term
| the leading and lagging strands are produced in the ___ direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA polymerase reads the parental strand in the ___ direction and creates the daughter strand in the ___ direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The polymerization of the new strand that is continuously interrupted and restarted with a new primer, the strand is called the ____ and made from a series of disconnected strands called ____; the continuous new strand is called the ____ |
|
Definition
| lagging strand; okazaki fragments; leading strand |
|
|
Term
| ____ moves along the lagging strand and ties the okazaki fragments together to complete the polymer. since the formation of one strand is continuous and the other fragmented, the process of replication is said to be ___ |
|
Definition
| DNA ligase; semidiscontinuous |
|
|
Term
| How accurate is DNA replication in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
| very accurate; exonuclease in DNA polymerase proofreads the new strands |
|
|
Term
| The ends of eukaryotic chromosomal DNA possess ____, which are repeated six nucleotide units that protect the chromosomes from being eroded through repeated rounds of replication. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. helicase unzips the double helix 2. RNA polymerase builds a primer 3. DNA polymerase assembles the leading and lagging strands 4. the primers are removed 5. okazaki fragments are joined |
|
|
Term
| DNA replication is ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| list the differences between DNA and RNA |
|
Definition
1. DNA is made from deoxyribose and RNA is made from ribose 2. DNA is double stranded and RNA is single stranded 3. DNA has thymine, RNA has uracil 4. DNA is produced by replication and RNA is produced by transcription 5. in animals, DNA is only in the nucleus and mitochondrial matrix; RNA is also in the cytosol 6. there is one major type of DNA; there are three major types of RNA |
|
|
Term
| unlike DNA, RNA can move ___ |
|
Definition
| through the nuclear pores and is not confined to the nucleus |
|
|
Term
| what are the three types of RNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ delivers the DNA code for amino acids to the ___ where proteins are manufactured |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ combines with proteins to form ___, and ___ is synthesized in the ___ |
|
Definition
| rRNA; ribosomes; rRNA; nucleolus |
|
|
Term
| ___ collects amino acids in the cytosol, and transfers them to the ribosomes for incorporation into a protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are the cellular complexes that direct the synthesis of proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| all RNA is manufactured from a ___ in a process called ___ |
|
Definition
| DNA template; transcription |
|
|
Term
| since DNA ____, eukaryotic transcription must take place only in these two places |
|
Definition
| cannot leave the nucleus or the mitochondrial matrix |
|
|
Term
| the beginning of transcription is called ___; this happens when ___ |
|
Definition
| initiation; a group of proteins called initiation factors find a promotor on the DNA strand, and assembles a transcription initiation complex which includes RNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
| prokaryotes have ___, whereas eukaryotes have ___ |
|
Definition
| one type of RNA polymerase; 3 types, one for each type of RNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sequence of DNA nucleotides that designates a beginning point for transcription |
|
|
Term
| transcription requires a ___, whereas replication requires a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a promoter ____; a primer ____ |
|
Definition
| is a spot on the DNA that tells RNA polymerase where to begin; is a short piece of RNA that jump starts replication |
|
|
Term
| after binding to the promoter, _____ |
|
Definition
| RNA polymerase unzips the DNA double helix and switches to elongation mode |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| RNA polymerase transcribes only one strand of the DNA nucleotide sequence into a complimentary RNA nucleotide sequence |
|
|
Term
| how does RNA polymerase move? |
|
Definition
| reads the DNA in the 3 to 5 direction and builds the RNA strand in the 5 to 3 direction |
|
|
Term
| how does transcription proceed? |
|
Definition
| about ten times more slowly than DNA replication and RNA polymerase does not contain a proofreading mechanism so the rate or error is higher than replication |
|
|
Term
| the end of transcription is called ____, and requires a special ____ |
|
Definition
| termination; termination sequence and special proteins to dissociate RNA polymerase from DNA. |
|
|
Term
| most genetic regulation occurs at ___ where ___ |
|
Definition
| transcription; regulatory proteins bind DNA and activate or inhibit its transcription |
|
|
Term
| post transcriptional processing of RNA occurs in ____ |
|
Definition
| both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells |
|
|
Term
| in prokaryotes, ___ goes through post transcriptional processing. While in eukaryotes _____ |
|
Definition
| rRNA and tRNA. each type of RNA undergoes posttranscriptional processing which allows for additional gene regulation |
|
|
Term
| The initial mRNA nucleotide sequence arrived at through transcription is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary transcript is modified in three ways |
|
Definition
| 1) addition of nucleotides 2) deletion of nucleotides 3) modification of nitrogenous bases |
|
|
Term
| before leaving the nucleus, the primary transcript is cleaved into ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The introns are ___ and the exons are ___ |
|
Definition
| then excised by the splicesomes; spliced together to form the single mRNA code that ultimately codes for the polypeptide |
|
|
Term
| remember that introns ___ and exons ___ |
|
Definition
| remain in the nucleus; exit the nucleus to be translated |
|
|
Term
| most of a typical gene consists of ____ |
|
Definition
| introns removed by snRNP's in the nucleus |
|
|
Term
| to denature DNA means to ____ |
|
Definition
| seperate the two strands of the double helix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| double stranded and will look for a complimentary partner |
|
|
Term
| what following double stranded combinations can be formed through nucleic acid hybridization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| digest/cut nucleic acid only at certain nucleotide sequences along the chain |
|
|
Term
| typically a restriction site will be a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| recombinant DNA can be made long enough for bacteria to replicate and then placed within the bacteria using a ___, typically a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is just DNA reverse transcribed from mRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is a fast way to clone DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a ___ identifies specific sequences of DNA by nucleic acid hybridization, and a ___ uses the same techniques to identify specific sequences of RNA |
|
Definition
| southern blot; northern blot |
|
|
Term
| the 5 step recipe for southern blot is ___ |
|
Definition
1. chop up some DNA 2. use an electric field to spread out particles according to size 3. blot it onto a membrane 4. add a radioactive probe made from DNA or RNA 5. visualize with radiographic film |
|
|
Term
| the western blot is the one that detects a ___ with ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mRNA nucleotides are strung together to form a ___ which translates the DNA nucleotide sequence into an amino acid sequence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the fact that more than one series of three nucleotides may code for any amino acid, the code is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| any single series of three nucleotides will code for one and only one amino acids, the code is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the start codon and the stop codons |
|
Definition
start:AUG stop: UGA, UAA,UAG |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the process of protein synthesis directed by mRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ makes up the ribosome ___ contains the anti codons ___ is the template which carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytosol in the form of codons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the ribosome is composed of a ___ and a ___ |
|
Definition
| small subunit and a large subunit |
|
|
Term
| the complex structure of ribosomes requires a special organelle called the ___ in which to manufacture them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ do not possess a ___ but synthesis is similar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the processes of translation |
|
Definition
1. initiation: start codon reached, small subunit joins large subunit 2. elongation: polypeptide formation begins 3. termination: stop codon reached |
|
|
Term
| in an elongation step called ___, codons are shifted |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in ___, sugars, lipids, or phosphate groups may be added to amino acids |
|
Definition
| post-translational modifications |
|
|
Term
| mutations are ___; mutations in ___ are not passed to offspring; mutations in ___ are. |
|
Definition
| rare; somatic cells; germ cells |
|
|
Term
| any alteration in the genome that is not genetic recombination is called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a ___ is the alteration in the sequence of DNA nucleotides in a single gene. A ___ occurs when the structure of the chromosome is changes |
|
Definition
| gene mutation; chromosomal mutation |
|
|
Term
| in animals, DNA is found only in the ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the sections of DNA that are not in uses are wrapped tightly around globular proteins called ___, eight histone wrapped in DNA form a ___. The entire DNA/protein complex is called ___ |
|
Definition
| histone; nucleosome; chromatin |
|
|
Term
| how many chromosomes do humans have? in humans each chromosome possesses a partner that codes for the same trait, two such chromosomes are called ___. Any cell that contains homologous pairs is said to be ___, and any cell that does not contain homologues is ___ |
|
Definition
| 46 chromosomes; homologues; diploid; haploid |
|
|
Term
| what are the stages in the life cycle of a cell? |
|
Definition
1. first growth phase (G1) 2. synthesis (S) 3. second growth phase (G2) 4. mitosis or meiosis (M) and Cytokinesis (C) |
|
|
Term
| ___ is nuclear division without genetic change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the stages of mitosis |
|
Definition
| prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. condensation of chromatin into chromosomes. 2.centrioles move to opposite ends of cells 3. spindle apparatus begins to form |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chromosomes align along the center of the cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. sister chromatids split at their attaching centromeres. 2. chromatids move towards opposite ends of cells 3. cytokinesis, the separation of the cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. nuclear membrane reforms 2. followed by reformation of the nucleus 3. chromosomes decondens and cytokinesis continues |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| genetically identical daughter cells |
|
|
Term
| meiosis is a double nuclear division which produces ____. In humans, only ___ and the ___ undergo meiosis. all other cells are ___ and undergo ___ only |
|
Definition
| four haploid gametes (also called germ cells). spermatogonium, oogonium. somatic cells; mitosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| meiosis is two rounds of division called meiosis I and meiosis II |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| homologous chromosomes line up along side each other, matching genes exactly. At this time crossing over may occur |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the homologues remain attached, and move to the metaphase plate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| seperates the homologues from their partners |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| in humans the nuclear membrane reforms and cytokinesis occurs, the new cells are haploid |
|
|
Term
| meiosis I is ___ division |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are infectious agents, much smaller than bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in its most basic form, a virus consists of a ___, called a ___, and one to several hundred genes ____ |
|
Definition
| protein coat; capsid; in the form of DNA or RNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most animal viruses, some plant viruses, and very few bacterial viruses surround themselves with a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the envelope typically contains some ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a mature virus outside the host cell is called a ___. all organisms experience ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| viruses are not ____. why? |
|
Definition
| currently classified as living organisms. they require the host cell's machinery to reproduce, viruses do not metabolize organic nutrients, instead they use ATP from the host cell |
|
|
Term
| the receptor on the host that a virus usually attaches to is usually a ____ |
|
Definition
| specific glycoprotein on the host cell membrane, the virus cannot attack the cell if the specific receptor is not available.a |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a virus that infects bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most viruses that infect eukaryotes are engulfed by a ____ process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| explain what happens in a lytic infection? |
|
Definition
| the virus commandeers the cell's reproductive machinery and begins reproducting new viruses. There is a brief period before the first fully formed virion appears called the eclipse period. The cell may fill with new viruses until it lyses or bursts, or it may release the viruses one at a time. |
|
|
Term
| In a lytic infection, the period from infection to lysis is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A virus following a lytic cycle is called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what happens in a lysogenic infection? |
|
Definition
| The viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome, or if the virus is an RNA virus and possesses the enzyme reverse transcriptase, DNA is actually reverse transcribed from RNA and then incorporated into the host cell genome. When the host cell replicates its DNA, the viral DNA is replicated as well. |
|
|
Term
| A virus in a lysogenic cycle is called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A host cell infected with a temperate virus may show ___. While the viral DNA remains incorporated into the host DNA, the virus is said to be ____ |
|
Definition
| no symptoms of infection; dormant or latent, and is called a provirus (prophage in bacterium) |
|
|
Term
| The dormant virus may become active when ___ |
|
Definition
| the host cell is under some type of stress |
|
|
Term
| a virus with ___ is responsible for the common cold, which means ____ |
|
Definition
| unenveloped plus-strand RNA; not all animal viruses are enveloped |
|
|
Term
| a ___ can be either an injection of antibodies or an injection of a non-pathogenic virus with the same capsid or envelope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prokaryotes do not have a ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
| membrane bound nucleus; complex membrane bound organelles |
|
|
Term
| Prokaryotes are split into what two domains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ have as much in common with eukaryotes as they do with bacteria and are usually found in extreme environments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most know prokaryotes are members of the domain ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| unlike bacteria, the cell walls of archea are not made from ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are organisms that are capable of using CO2 as their sole source of carbon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is an organism that cannot synthesize its own food and is dependent on complex organic substances for nutrition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| all organisms acquire energy from one of what two sources: |
|
Definition
1. light 2. oxidation of organic or inorganic matter |
|
|
Term
| organisms that use light as their energy source are called ____; those that use oxidation of organic or inorganic matter are called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| electrons or hydrogens can be acquired from inorganic matter by ___; or organic matter by ___ |
|
Definition
| lithotrophs; organotrophs |
|
|
Term
| The structure that replaces the nucleus in prokaryotes is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the major shapes of bacteria? |
|
Definition
cocci=round bacilli=rod shaped spirilla=helically shaped rigid |
|
|
Term
| the cytosol of nearly all prokaryotes is surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The phospholipid bilayer is often composed of ____ |
|
Definition
| a phosphate group, two fatty acid chains, and a glycerol backbone |
|
|
Term
| The phosphate group is ___, while the fatty acid chains are ___, making the molecule ___ |
|
Definition
| polar; nonpolar; amphipathic |
|
|
Term
| when placed in an aqueous solution, amphipathic molecules ____ |
|
Definition
| spontaneously aggregate, turning their polar ends toward the solution and their nonpolar ends toward each other. |
|
|
Term
| ___ are also embedded within the plasma membrane and act as ___ |
|
Definition
| proteins; transporters, receptors, attachment sites, and enzymes |
|
|
Term
| amphipathic proteins that transverse the membrane from the inside of the cell to the outside are called ___. ___ are situated entirely on the surface of the membrane |
|
Definition
| intrinsic or integral proteins; peripheral or extrinsic proteins |
|
|
Term
| integral or extrinsic proteins may contain carbohydrate chains making them ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the model of the plasma membrane is known as the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| all molecules move rapidly in random directions frequently colliding with one another, this random movement is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two aspects of a compound that affect its semipermeability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When proteins assist molecules in moving through the membrane because they are to large or to polar, these proteins are called ___ |
|
Definition
| transport or carrier proteins |
|
|
Term
| the type of movement that involves transport proteins is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| facilitated diffusion is said to make the plasma membrane ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| movement of a substance against its electrochemical gradient requires ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bacterial plasma membrane and everything inside it is called the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| surrounding the protoplast is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the component of the envelope, adjacent to the plasma membrane is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most bacteria are ___ to their environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____= more particles in bacteria cytosol than fluid surrounding them ___= cytosol equals amount of particles ___= cytosol contains less particles |
|
Definition
| hypertonic, isotonic, hypotonic |
|
|
Term
| the bacterial cell wall is made of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a gram positive bacteria ____ |
|
Definition
| stains purple, thick peptidoglycan cell wall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| stains pink, have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall |
|
|
Term
| bacterial ___ are long, hollow, rigid, helical cylinders made from a globular protein called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| eukaryotic flagella are composed of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| bacteria do not undergo ___, and cannot ____ |
|
Definition
| mitosis or meiosis; reproduce sexually |
|
|
Term
| 3 alternative forms of bacterial genetic recombination |
|
Definition
| conjugation, transformation, transduction |
|
|
Term
| bacteria are also capable of undergoing a type of cell division called ___, which is a type of asexual reproduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| two genetically identical daughter cells with one circular chromosome in each daugher cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| one of the bacterium have a plasmid with the gene that codes for the sex pilus. The bacteria with the F plasmid (fertility factor) is the F+, and the one without is the F-. |
|
|
Term
| Transformation is the process by which ___ |
|
Definition
| bacteria may incorporate DNA from their external environment into their genome |
|
|
Term
| transduction is the process by which ___ |
|
Definition
| DNA is transferred by one bacterium to another by a virus |
|
|
Term
| fungi are ___, and spend most of their time in a ___, and can reproduce ___ |
|
Definition
| eukaryotic heterotrophs; haploid state; either sexually or asexually |
|
|
Term
| The major feature distinguishing eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| only ___ have nuclei. ___ cannot leave the cell, therefore ___ must take place in the nucleus. ___ leaves the nucleus through nuclear pores |
|
Definition
| eukaryotes; DNA; transcription; RNA |
|
|
Term
| the aqueous soup inside the nucleous is called the ___. The nucleus is wrapped in a ___ |
|
Definition
| nucleoplasm; double phospholipid bilayer called the nuclear envelope/membrane |
|
|
Term
| The nuclear envelope is perforated with large holes called ___. Within the nucleus is an area called the ___ where rRNA is transcribed and the subunits of the ribosomes are assembled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| besides transport across the membrane, cells can aquire substances from the extracellular environment through ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| phagocytosis and pinocytosis |
|
|
Term
| in phagocytosis the cell ___, while in pinocytosis the cell ___ |
|
Definition
| takes up solid substances; take up liquid |
|
|
Term
| ___ is simply a reverse of endocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the eukaryotic cell contains a thick maze of membranous walls called the ___ separating the ___ from the ___ |
|
Definition
| ER; cytosol from the ER lumen/cisternal space |
|
|
Term
| ER near the nucleus that has many ribosomes attached to it is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| proteins synthesized on the rough ER are pushed into the ___ and sent to the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the cell can be divided into the ____ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in order to reach the cytosol, a substance must cross the membrane by ___, but it can reach the ER lumen via ___ without ever transporting across the membrane |
|
Definition
| passive or facilitated diffusion or active transport; endocytosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| modifies and packages proteins for use in other part of the cell and outside the cell |
|
|
Term
| lysosome contain ____. lysosomes come from the ___ |
|
Definition
| hydrolytic enzymes that digest substances taken in by endocytosis. come from the golgi |
|
|
Term
| endoplasmic reticulum which lacks ribosomes is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The smooth ER is the site of ____ |
|
Definition
| lipid synthesis including steroids. The smooth ER also helps to detoxify some things. |
|
|
Term
| The structure and motility of a cell is determined by a network of filaments known as the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| two major types of filaments in the cytoskeleton are ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| microfilaments and microtrubules |
|
|
Term
| microtubules are ___ than microfilaments. They are ____ made from a protein called ___ |
|
Definition
| larger; rigid hollow tubes; tubulin |
|
|
Term
| The ___ is made from microtubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ and ___ are specialized structures also made from microtubules. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major portion of each flagellum and cilium is called the ___, and contains nine pair of microtubules forming a circle around two lone microtubules in an arrangement known as ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major microtubule organizing center in animal cells is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| eukaryotic flagella are made from a ___ microtubule configuration. a prokaryotic flagellum is a ___. Eukaryotic flagella undergo a ___ action, while prokaryotic flagella ___ |
|
Definition
| 9+2; thin strand of a single protein called a flagellin; whip like action; rotate |
|
|
Term
| microfilaments are ___ than microtubules. The protein ___ forms a major component of microfilaments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ form a watertight seal from cell to cell that can block water, ions, and other molecules from moving around and past cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ join two cells at a single point |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are small tunnels connecting cells, that allow small molecules and ions to move between cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| remember the three types of cellular junctions. ___ act as a fluid barrier around cells. ___ are like spot welds holding cells together. ___ are tunnels between cells allowing for the exchange of small molecules |
|
Definition
| tight junctions; desmosomes; gap junctions |
|
|
Term
| ___ are the powerhouses of the eukaryotic cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the ___, mitochondria may have evolved from a symbiotic relationship between ancient prokaryotes and eukaryotes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| mitochondria are surrounded by ___ |
|
Definition
| two phospholipid bilayers |
|
|
Term
| The ___ of the mitochondria invaginates to form ___. it also holds the ___ |
|
Definition
| inner membrane; cristae; electron transport chain |
|
|
Term
| between the inner and outer membrane of the mitochondria, there is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the four basic tissue types in animals |
|
Definition
| nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective |
|
|
Term
| Three classes of molecules that make up animal cell matrices |
|
Definition
1. glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans 2. structural proteins 3. adhesive proteins |
|
|
Term
| intercellular communication is accomplished chemically via what three types of molecules |
|
Definition
1. neurotransmitters 2. local mediators 3. hormones |
|
|
Term
| ___ travel over very short intercellular gaps; ___ function in the immediate area around the cell from which they were released; ___ travel throughout the organism via the blood stream. |
|
Definition
| neurotransmitters; local mediators; hormones |
|
|
Term
| neurotransmitters are released by ___. neuronal communication tends to be __,___, and ___ |
|
Definition
| neurons; rapid, direct, specific |
|
|
Term
| hormonal communication tends to be ___, ___, ___ |
|
Definition
| slower, spread throughout the body, and affect many cells and tissues in many different ways. |
|
|
Term
| local mediators are released by a variety of cells into the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The functional unit of the nervous system is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___ of the neuron receive a signal to be transmitted |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| typically the ___ of the cell body is highly conductive and any electrical stimulus creates a disturbance in the electric field that is transferred immediately to the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___ generates an action potential in all directions, including down the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in a neuron the signal travels from the ___ to the ___, where an ap is generated, and moves down the ___ to the ___ |
|
Definition
| dendrites; axon hillock; axon; synapse |
|
|
Term
| neurons do not depend on ___ to obtain glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___ is a disturbance in the electric field across the membrane of a neuron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the resting potential is established by equilibrium between ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| passive diffusion of ions across the membrane and the Na/K pump |
|
|
Term
| the Na+/K+ pump, pumps ____ |
|
Definition
| 3 Na out for every 2 K in |
|
|
Term
| what happens during depolarization |
|
Definition
| stimulus depolarizes the membrane by acting on chemically gated sodium channels, resulting in Na moving into the cell making the cell more + |
|
|
Term
| what happens during repolarization? |
|
Definition
| voltage gated sodium channels close; voltage gated potassium channels open and leads to repolarization |
|
|
Term
| what happens during hyperpolarization? |
|
Definition
| potassium channels are slow to close, so for a brief time the inside membrane is even more negative than resting potential |
|
|
Term
| ___ returns the membrane to its resting potential |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| at rest the inside of the cell is ___ than the outside |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an action potential is ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the stimulus to the membrane must be greater than the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| once an action potential has begun, there is a short period of time called the ___ in which no stimulus will create another action potential. The ___ gives the time during which only an abnormally large stimulus will create an action potential |
|
Definition
| absolute refractory period; relative refractory period |
|
|
Term
| neural impulses are transmitted from one cell to another chemically or electronically via a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are uncommon, they are composed of ____ |
|
Definition
| electrical synapses; gap junctions betweeen cells |
|
|
Term
| ___,___, ____ contain electrical synapses |
|
Definition
| cardiac muscle, visceral smooth muscle, and a very few neurons in the central nervous system |
|
|
Term
| since they don't involve diffusion of chemicals, electrical synapses are ___ than chemical synapses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 possible neuronal structures |
|
Definition
| unipolar, bipolar, multi polar |
|
|
Term
unipolar: bipolar: multipolar: |
|
Definition
unipolar: sensory only bipolar: retina, inner ear, olfactory area of the brain multipolar: most neurons of the brain |
|
|
Term
| chemical synapses are ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the sudden influx of calcium ions causes some of the neurotransmitter vesicles to be released through an exocytotic process into the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| receptors may be ion channels themselves, which are opened when their respective neurotransmitter attaches, or they may act via a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| besides neurons, nervous tissue contains may support cells called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| only vertebrates have ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in the peripheral nervous system, myelin is produced by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| myelin increases the rate at which ____ |
|
Definition
| an axon can transmit signals |
|
|
Term
| to the naked eye, myelinated cells appear ___, while neuronal cells appear ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the gaps between myelin are called ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the movement of the ap from one node of ranvier to the next is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ receives signals from a receptor cell, and transmits this info to the brain |
|
Definition
| sensory (afferent neurons) |
|
|
Term
| ___ transfers signals from neuron to neuron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ carries signals to muscles or glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| neuron processes are typically bundled together to form ____ |
|
Definition
| nerves (called tracts in the CNS) |
|
|
Term
| The central nervous system consists of ___ |
|
Definition
| the brain and spinal cord, lots of interneurons |
|
|
Term
| The Peripheral nervous system heads the ___ and ___ functions of the nervous system. can be divided into the ___ or ___. |
|
Definition
| sensory and motor functions; somatic and autonomic |
|
|
Term
the somatic system can be divided into: The autonomic can be divided into: |
|
Definition
| sensory and motor; sympathetic and parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
| acetylcholine is used by: |
|
Definition
| all preganglionic neurons in the ANS and postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic. |
|
|
Term
| epi and norepi are used by: |
|
Definition
| the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| the receptors for epi and norepi are called ____. the receptors for ach are called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the lower brain consists of the: |
|
Definition
| medulla, pons, mesencephalon, hypothalamus, thalamus, cerebellum, and basal ganglia |
|
|
Term
| the higher brain consists of the: |
|
Definition
| cerebrum or cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
| 5 types of sensory receptors |
|
Definition
mechanoreceptors for touch thermoreceptors for temp change nociceptors for pain electromagnetic receptors for light chemoreceptors for taste, smell, and blood chemistry |
|
|
Term
| The lens of the eye is a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what three small bones are in the middle ear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in the ear, the ___ detects sound, while the ___ detects orientation and movement of the head |
|
Definition
| cochlea; semicircular canals |
|
|
Term
| what are the four primary taste sensations |
|
Definition
| bitter, sour, salty, sweet |
|
|
Term
| The difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that ____ |
|
Definition
| endocrine glands release hormones directly into body fluids. Exocrine glands release enzymes to the external environment through ducts |
|
|
Term
| exocrine glands include ____ |
|
Definition
| sweat, sebaceous, mucous, and digestive |
|
|
Term
| The ___ acts as both an endocrine and exocrine gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The effects of the endocrine system tend to be ____ |
|
Definition
| slower, less direct, and longer lasting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| binding to proteins called receptors |
|
|
Term
| hormones exist in three basic types |
|
Definition
| peptide hormones, steroid hormones, and tyrosine derivatives |
|
|
Term
| since peptides are proteins, ____ |
|
Definition
| they can't diffuse through the membrane, so they bind to receptors on the membrane and act through a second messenger |
|
|
Term
| The peptide hormones you must know for the MCAT are: |
|
Definition
The anterior pituitary hormones: FH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, and prolactin The posterior pituitary hormones: ADH and oxytocin The parathyroid hormone: PTH The pancreatic hormones: glucagon and insulin |
|
|
Term
| since steroid hormones are lipids, they ___ |
|
Definition
| diffuse through the membrane and act in the nucleus |
|
|
Term
| the important steroid hormones for the MCAT are: |
|
Definition
adrenal cortex: cortisol and aldosterone gonadal hormones: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| thyroid hormones diffuse into nucleus, and catecholamines act on receptors on the membrane |
|
|
Term
| The important tyrosine derivatives are: |
|
Definition
thyroid hormones: T3, T4, catecholamines formed in adrenal cortex: epi and norepi |
|
|
Term
| a high ADH increases ___ and decreases ___ |
|
Definition
| water reabsorption and blood pressure; water excretion |
|
|
Term
| The anterior pituitary is located in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anterior pituitary secretes what 6 peptide hormones: |
|
Definition
1.hGH 2. adrenocorticotropin 3. thyroid stimulating hormone 4. follicle stimulating hormone 5. leutinizing hormone 6. prolactin |
|
|
Term
| ___ stimulates growth in almost all cells of the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids via the second messenger system using cAMP. stress can cause release |
|
Definition
| adrenocorticotropic hormone |
|
|
Term
| ___ stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4 via camp |
|
Definition
| thyroid stimulating hormone |
|
|
Term
| ___ promotes lactation by the breasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___, aka ___, extends from the hypothalamus |
|
Definition
| posterior pituitary; neurohypophysis |
|
|
Term
| the posterior pituitary secretes what two hormones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ increases uterine contractions during pregnancy and causes milk to be ejected from the breasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ increases water reabsorption and decreases water excretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The adrenal cortex secretes what two hormones: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The adrenal medulla secretes what two: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ increases Na+ reabsorption and H and K secretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucogenesis in the liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the creation of glucose and glycogen, mainly in the liver |
|
|
Term
| The general effect of T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (throxine) is to ___ |
|
Definition
| increase the basal metabolic rate |
|
|
Term
| ___ is releases by the thyroid gland and decreases blood calcium by decreasing osteoclast activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the thyroid secretes ___ The parathyroid secretes ___ The pancreas secretes ___ |
|
Definition
T3, T4, calcitonin PTH insulin and glucagon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| secreted by beta cells, associated with high energy abundance, lowers blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| peptide, release by alpha cells, stimulates glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis in liver, net effect is to raise blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the breakdown of glycogen |
|
|
Term
| ___ is a peptide that increases blood calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| production of sperm occurs in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sertoli cells, stimulated by ___, surround and nurture the sermatocyte and spermatids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| leydig cells release ___ when stimulated by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| testosterone is the primary ____ |
|
Definition
| androgen (male sex hormone) |
|
|
Term
| spermatozoon mature in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| oogenesis begins in the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 phases of the menstrual cycle |
|
Definition
1. the follicular phase 2. the luteal phase 3. flow |
|
|
Term
| the ___ begins with the development of the follicle and ends at ovulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the ___ begins with ovulation and ends with the degeneration of the ___ into the ___ |
|
Definition
| luteal phase; corpus luteum; corpus albicans |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the shedding of the uterine lining lasting approximately 5 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| once in the fallopian tube, the egg is swept toward the uterus by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the oocyte goes through the second meiotic division to become an ___ and releases a second polar body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ begins while the zygote is still in the fallopian tube. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The zygote goes through many cycles of mitosis; when the zygote is comprised of eight or more cells, it is called a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cells of the morula continue to divide for four days forming a hollow ball filled with fluid called a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blastocyst lodges in the uterus in a process called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blastocyst is made up of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| upon implantation, the egg begins secreting a peptide hormone called ___ that prevents degeneration of the corpus luteum, and maintains its secretion of estrogen and progesterone |
|
Definition
| human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
|
|
Term
| ___ in the blood and urine of the mother is the first sign of pregnancy |
|
Definition
| Human chorionic gonadotropin |
|
|
Term
| a ___ is formed from the tissue of the egg and the mother, and takes over the job of hormone secretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| as the embryo develops past the eight cell stage, the cells become different from each other due to cell to cell interactions. The process where a cell becomes committed to a specialized developmental path is called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The specialization that occurs at the end of development forming a specialized tissue cell is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The formation of the gastrula occurs in the second week after fertilization in a process called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| during gastrulation, the three primary germ layers are formed: |
|
Definition
1. ectoderm 2. mesoderm 3. endoderm |
|
|
Term
| the ___ develop into the outer coverings of the body, such as skin, nails, and tooth enamel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the ___ develop develop into the lining of the digestive tract, and into much of the liver and pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___ is the stuff that lies between the inner and outer coverings of the body; such as muscle, bone, etc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in the third week, the gastrula develops into a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in neurulation, the ___ induces the overlaying ectoderm to thicken and form the neural plate |
|
Definition
| notochord (made from mesoderm) |
|
|
Term
| the notochord eventually degenerates, while a ___ forms from the neural plate to become the spinal cord, brain, and most of the nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ occurs when one cell type affects the direction of differentiation of another cell type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| part of normal cell development is programmed cell death or ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| apoptosis is essential for development of the ___ and many other things |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is the break down of ingested foods before they are absorbed into the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major reaction involved in the digestion of all macromolecules is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| give the seven structures in the basic anatomy of the digestive tract. |
|
Definition
1. mouth 2. esophagus 3. stomach 4. small intestine (duodenum, ileum, jejunum) 5. large intestine (ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon) 6. rectum 7. anus |
|
|
Term
| digestion begins in the ___ with ___ |
|
Definition
| mouth; alpha amylase contained in the saliva |
|
|
Term
| alpha amylase begins by breaking down ___, with the aid of ___ |
|
Definition
| the long straight chains of starch into polysaccharides; chewing (increases the surface area of food, which enables more enzymes to act on the food at any one time) |
|
|
Term
| chewed food forms a clump in the mouth called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bolus is pushed into the ___ by swallowing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bolus is moved through the esophagus by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ acts to lubricate the food, helping it to move down the esophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| no digestion occurs in the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is the wave like motion of smooth muscle that moves food through the digestive tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bolus moves into the stomach through the ____ |
|
Definition
| lower esophageal sphincter (or cardiac sphincter) |
|
|
Term
| The stomach mixes and stores food, reducing it to a semifluid mass called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The stomach contains ___ that have ___ |
|
Definition
| exocrine glands; gastric pits |
|
|
Term
| another important function of the stomach is to begin ____ with the enzyme ____ |
|
Definition
| protein digestion; pepsin |
|
|
Term
| The low pH of the stomach helps digest proteins by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A full stomach has a pH of ___. This helps to kill ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the four major cell types in the stomach |
|
Definition
1. mucous cells 2. chief (peptic) cells 3. parietal (oxyntic) cells 4. G cells |
|
|
Term
| mucous cells secrete ___; line the ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
| mucous; stomach wall and the necks of the exocrine glands |
|
|
Term
| mucous is composed of ____ and ___; it ___ the stomach wall and protects the ____. some mucous cells also secrete a small amount of ___ |
|
Definition
| glycoproteins and electrolytes; lubricates; epithelial lining; pepsinogen |
|
|
Term
| chief cells are found ____; they secrete ___ |
|
Definition
| deep in exocrine glands; pepsinogen (the zymogen precursor to pepsin) |
|
|
Term
| pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by ___. Once activated, ____ |
|
Definition
| the low pH in the stomach; pepsin begins protein digestion |
|
|
Term
| parietal cells are found in the ____; they secrete ___ |
|
Definition
| exocrine glands of the stomach; HCl |
|
|
Term
| parietal cells also secrete ___, which helps the ileum absorb B 12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| G cells secrete ___ into the interstitium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the gastrin, a large peptide hormone, is absorbed into the blood and stimulates ___ |
|
Definition
| parietal cells to secrete HCL |
|
|
Term
| The major hormones that affect the secretion of stomach juices are ___, ___, and ___ |
|
Definition
| ach, gastrin, and histamin |
|
|
Term
| ___ increases the secretion of all cell types; while ___ and ___ mainly inhibit HCl secretion |
|
Definition
| ACH; gastrin and histamine |
|
|
Term
| ___ digestion begins in the stomach; and no ___ occurs in the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| about 90% of digestion and absorption occurs in the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the small intestine is divided into three parts; from smallest to largest they are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most of the digestion occurs in the ___, and most of the absorption occurs in the ___ |
|
Definition
| duodenum; jejunum and ileum |
|
|
Term
| The wall of the small intestine is similar to the wall of the stomach except that the outermost layer contains finger-like projections called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| within each villus are a capillary network and a lymph vessel, called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| nutrients absorbed through the wall of the small intestine pass into the ____ |
|
Definition
| capillary network and the lacteal |
|
|
Term
| on the apical surface of the cells of each villus are much smaller finger-like projections called ___ that ____ |
|
Definition
| microvilli; increase the surface area of the intestinal wall |
|
|
Term
| some of the epithelial cells of the small intestine are ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The semi-fluid chyme is squeezed out of the stomach through the ___ and into the ___ |
|
Definition
| pyloric sphincter; duodenum |
|
|
Term
| the fluid inside the duodenum has a pH of ___ due mainly to ___ secreted by the ___ |
|
Definition
| 6; bicarbonate ion; pancreas |
|
|
Term
| The small intestine is where the action is in ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major enzymes released by the pancreas are: |
|
Definition
| trypsin, chymotrypsin; pancreatic amylase; lipase; ribonuclease; and deoxyribonuclease |
|
|
Term
| ___ is activated by the enzyme enterokinase. activated ___ then activates the other enzymes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ and ___ degrade proteins into small polypeptides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ hydrolyzes polysaccharrides to dissaccharides and trisaccharides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ degrades fat, specifically triglycerides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is produced in the liver and stored by the gall bladder. It ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gall bladder released bile through the cystic duct, which empties into the common bile duct shared with the liver; this empties into the pancreatic duct before connecting to the duodenum |
|
|
Term
| bile emulsifies fats, which means ___ |
|
Definition
| it breaks it up into small particles without changing it chemically. This increases the surface area of the fat, allowing lipase to degrade it |
|
|
Term
| bile is necessary to ____, but it does not ___ |
|
Definition
| increase the surface area of the fats; digest the fat |
|
|
Term
| chyme is moved through the intestines by ___. a second type of intestinal motion, ___, mixes the chyme with the digestive juices |
|
Definition
| peristalsis; segmentation |
|
|
Term
| the large intestine, or colon, has four parts: |
|
Definition
| ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon |
|
|
Term
| The major functions of the large intestine are ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| water absorption and electrolyte absorption |
|
|
Term
| whenever you see large intestine on the MCAT, you should think ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| be aware that there is a mutualistic symbiosis between ___ and ___ in the large intestine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ cannot be digested by humans and is considered roughage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| all carbohydrates are absorbed into the bloodstream and carried by the ___ to the liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The formation of glycogen is called ____. When the blood glucose level decreases, ___ takes place in the liver, and glucose is returned to normal |
|
Definition
| glycogenesis; glycogenolysis |
|
|
Term
| carbs are turned into ___ and then into ___ for energy storage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when the glycogen stores are full, ____ |
|
Definition
| glucose is converted to fate |
|
|
Term
| all dietary protein is ___ before being absorbed into the blood |
|
Definition
| completely broken down to its amino acids |
|
|
Term
| nearly all ammonia is coverted to ___ by the liver, and then excreted in the urine by the kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most of dietary fat consists of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| fat becomes globules called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the chylomicron concentration peaks ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the major absorption of fat occurs in the ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ hydrolyzes the triglycerides in chylomicrons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inside the fat and liver cells, triglycerides are reconstituted at the ____ |
|
Definition
| smooth endoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
| the first stop for most of the digested fat is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| most fatty acids are tranported in the form of free fatty acid, which combines immediately in the blood with ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| between meals, 95% of lipids in the plasma are in the form of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| four types of lipoproteins |
|
Definition
very low density LP intermediate density LP low density LP high density lipoprotein |
|
|
Term
| the liver is positioned to recieve blood from the capillary beds of the intestines, stomach, spleen, and pancreas via the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a second blood supply, used to oxygenate the liver is received through the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| all blood received by the liver moves through large flattened spaces called the ___ and collects in the ___, which leads to the ___ |
|
Definition
| hepatic sinusoids; hepatic vein; vena cava |
|
|
Term
| ___ and ___ are two important clotting factors |
|
Definition
| prothrombin and fibrinogen |
|
|
Term
| ___ is the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are a group of proteins that include antibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| antibodies are made by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the function of the kidney is to excrete ___, maintain ___, and help control ___ |
|
Definition
| waste products; homeostasis of the body fluid volume and solute composition, plasma pH |
|
|
Term
| kidneys are made up of a ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| outer cortex; inner medulla |
|
|
Term
| urine is created by the kidney and emptied into the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The renal pelvis is emptied by the ___, which carries urine to the ___, which is drained by the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The functional unit of the kidney is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| blood flows into the first capillary bed of the nephron called the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| together, Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus make up the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ forces some plasma through fenestrations of the glomerular endothelium and into ____ |
|
Definition
| hydrostatic pressure; Bowman's capsule |
|
|
Term
| the fenestrations screen out blood cells and large proteins from entering ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fluid that find its way into Bowman's capsule is called ____ |
|
Definition
| filtrate/ultrafiltrate/primary urine |
|
|
Term
| filtrate moves from Bowman's capsule to the ___, where most ___ takes place |
|
Definition
| proximal tubule; reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| drugs, toxins, and other solutes are ___ into the filtrate by the cells of the proximal tubule. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ are secreted through an antiport system with ____, which is driven by the ____ |
|
Definition
| hydrogen ions; sodium; sodium concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
| from the proximal tubule, the filtrate flows into the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the loop of henle dips into the ___, and its function is to increase the ____ |
|
Definition
| medulla; solute concentration, and thus osmotic pressure, of the medulla |
|
|
Term
| The descending loop of henle is _____, therefore ___ |
|
Definition
| permeable to water and impermeable to NaCl, osmolarity goes up |
|
|
Term
| the ascending loop of henle ____ |
|
Definition
| is impermeable to water, passively and actively permeable to NaCl |
|
|
Term
| a second capillary bed, called the ___, surrounds the loop of henle and helps to maintain the concentration of the medulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The distal tubule reabsorbs ___ and ___, while secreting ___, ___, and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ acts on the distal tubule to increase sodium and potassium membrane transport proteins. The net effect is to lower ___ |
|
Definition
| aldosterone; lower filtrate osmolarity |
|
|
Term
| ___ increases the permeability of the cells to water, concentrating the filtrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the distal tubule empties into the ____, which carries ____ |
|
Definition
| collecting duct; filtrate into the highly osmotic medulla |
|
|
Term
| The collecting duct is impermeable to ___ but sensitive to ___, in its presence ___ |
|
Definition
| water; ADH; the collecting duct becomes permeable to water |
|
|
Term
| The ___ monitors filtrate pressure in the distal tubule |
|
Definition
| juxtaglomerular apparatus |
|
|
Term
| specialized cells in the ja, called ___, secrete ____ which ultimately ____ |
|
Definition
| granular cells; renin; stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| trace the pathway of blood through the heart beginning with the left ventricle |
|
Definition
| left ventricle > aorta > arteries > arterioles > capillaries > venules > veins > superior and inferior vena cava > right atrium |
|
|
Term
| The previous circulation is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is pulmonary circulation |
|
Definition
| right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary artery > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium |
|
|
Term
| the heart contracts automatically, paced by a group of specialized cardiac muscle cells called the ___ located in the ___ |
|
Definition
| sinoatrial node; right atrium |
|
|
Term
| the SA node is autorhythmic, spreading its contractions to the surrounding cardiac muscles via ___ made from ___ |
|
Definition
| electrical synapses; gap junctions |
|
|
Term
| The pace of the SA node is ___ than normal heartbeats, but the ____ innervates the SA node, slowing the contractions. |
|
Definition
| faster; parasympathetic vagus nerve |
|
|
Term
| The ap then spreads to the ____ |
|
Definition
| atrioventricular node which is slower to contract, causing a delay which allows the atria to finish their contractions |
|
|
Term
| The ap in the heart travels as follows |
|
Definition
| sa node > AV node > bundle of his > purkinje fibers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| allow for a more unified, stronger, contraction |
|
|
Term
| the vagus nerve is ___; innervating the ___ and ___; it ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| parasympathetic; heart and digestive system; slows the rate of heart contractions and increases digestive activity |
|
|
Term
| ___ are elastic, and stretch as they fill with blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are microscopic blood vessel and nutrient and gas exchange take place across their walls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| four methods for materials to cross the capillary walls |
|
Definition
1. pinocytosis 2. diffusion through cell membrane 3. movement through pores/fenestrations 4. movement thorough the space between cells |
|
|
Term
| venules and veins are similar in structure to ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ carries blood away from the heart; ___ carries blood toward the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ contain the most deoxygenated blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| blood pressure increases near the ____ and decreases to its lowest in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| inspiration occurs when the ___ of the midbrain signals the ___ to contract |
|
Definition
| medulla oblongata; diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| the nasal cavity ____ incoming air |
|
Definition
| filters, moistens, and warms |
|
|
Term
| the ___ functions as a passageway for food and air |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ___ is the voice box and sits behind the ___, which prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the ___ lies in front of the esophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| before entering the lungs, the trachea split into the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| each bronchus branches many more times to become tiny ___, which terminate in grape like clusters called ____ composed of alveoli |
|
Definition
| bronchioles; alveolar sacs |
|
|
Term
| oxygen is pick up by ___, which also release carbon dioxide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 98% of the oxygen in the blood binds rapidly and reversible with the protein ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| explain the oxygen dissociation curve |
|
Definition
| right shift: increase in CO2 pressure, [H+], or temp, decrease in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| blood in a centrifuge divides into what 3 parts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| important proteins contained in the plasma are ___, ___, and ___ |
|
Definition
| albumin, immunoglobulins, and clotting factors |
|
|
Term
| ___ transport fatty acids and steroids, as well as acting to regulate the osmotic pressure of the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| plasma in which the clotting protein fibrinogen has been removed is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ are like bags of hemoglobin and have no organelles, not even a nucleus, which means they do not reproduce |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ do not contain organelles or hemoglobin, they function to protect the body from foreign invaders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| agranular leukocytes include |
|
Definition
| monocytes, lymphocytes and megakaryocytes |
|
|
Term
| granular leukocytes include |
|
Definition
| neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils |
|
|
Term
| all blood cells differentiate from the same type of precursor, a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are small portions of membrane bound cytoplasm torn form megakaryocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| explain the humoral immune response |
|
Definition
-antibodies dissolved in extracellular fluid -B lymphocytes (B cells) -lymphoid follicles - appendix, tonsils, and spleen |
|
|
Term
| ___ are stimulated by the presence of an antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| B cells, as a result of being stimulated by an antigen, differentiate into ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
| plasma cells; memory cells |
|
|
Term
| ___ cells then produce antibodies that are specific to the antigen that triggered the whole process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ cells are cells that retain the memory of the antigen and the type of antibody that needed to be produced |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| explain the cell mediated response |
|
Definition
- T cells - no antibodies secreted - antigen receptors on cells - destroys bacteria and viruses within host cells - cytokines |
|
|
Term
| T cells differentiate into ___ and ____ cells |
|
Definition
| T helper cells; T cytotoxic cells |
|
|
Term
| cells involved in triggering the immune destruction of tagged cells; they are necessary for B cell activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| natural killer cells; they kill cells infected by virus/cause apoprosis |
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Term
| what are the three types of muscle tissue |
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Definition
| skeletal, cardiac, smooth |
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| a ___ connects muscle to bone; a ___ connects bone to bone |
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| The muscle ___ is on the larger bone and its ___ is on the smaller bone |
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| ___ differentiate into osteoblasts |
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| ___ exchange nutrients and waste materials with the blood |
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| ___ secrete collagen and organic compounds upon which bone is built, and differentiate into osteocytes |
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| bone also stores ___ and ___ and is the site of ___ |
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Definition
| calcium; phosphate; blood cell formation |
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Term
| ___ is flexible, resilient connective tissue |
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Definition
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Term
| ___ cartilage is the most common and reduces friction and absorbs shock in joints |
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