Term
| What are the short acting benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
Alprazam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam |
|
|
Term
| What are the longer acting benzodiazepines |
|
Definition
Medium (estazolam, lorazepam, temazepam)
Long (chlordiazepoxide, dizepam, flurazepam) |
|
|
Term
Categorize as SSRI, TCA< MAOI, NDRI, or SNRI
Nortriptyline, Selegiline, Bupropion Mritazapine, Fluvoxamine, Doxepin, Phenelzine, Fluoxtein, Comipramine, Imipramine, Amitriptyline, Nefazodone, Milnacipran, Despramine, Sertraline, Venlafaxine, Paroxetine, Tranycypromine, Duloxetine, Citalopram, Desvenlafaxine, Trazodone |
|
Definition
SSRI: Fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, citalopram, fluvoxamine
TCA: Nortriptyline, doxepin, clomipramine, imipramine, amitriptyline, desipramine
MAOI: Selegiline, phenelzine, tranylcypromine
NDRI: Bupropion
SNRI: Venlafaxine, duloxetine, desvenlafaxine, milnacipram, nefazodone
Tetracyclin: Mirtazapine, trazadone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Old test used to diagnose Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Acifidy blood to activate C' |
|
|
Term
| Which porphyria gives you hypertrichosis? |
|
Definition
Porphyria cutanea tarda
(Other clinical signs include blistering cutaneous photosensitivity, tea-colored urine) |
|
|
Term
| Clinical symptoms of acute intermittent porphyria? |
|
Definition
Painful abdomen
Port wine colored urine
Polyneuropathy
Psychological disturbances
Precipitated by drugs |
|
|
Term
| What is the ristocetin assay? |
|
Definition
| Used to test for aggregation of platelets in presence of vWF. Negative in von Willebrand's disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the mnemonic for TTP symptoms? |
|
Definition
Nasty Fever Torched His Kidneys
Neutropenia, Fever, Thrombocytopenia, Hemolysis, Kidney Failure |
|
|
Term
| Which CD markers are positive in Reed Sternberg Cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is associated with intense itching after showering? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hepatoencephalopathy after giving aspirin to a child.
Mitochondria abnormalities, fatty liver, hypoglycermia, vomiting, hepatomegaly, coma.
Associated with viral infection (especially VZV and influenza B) treated with asprin.
Decreased beta oxidation by reversible inhibition of mitochondria enzyme.
Avoid aspirin in all children except those with Kawasaki disease. |
|
|
Term
| What does Cilostazol/Dipyridamol do? |
|
Definition
Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor: increased cAMP in platelets, thus inhibiting platelet aggregation, vasodilators.
Used in intermittent claudication, coronary vasodilation, prevention of stroke or TIAs, angina prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
| Which antimetabolite inhibits DNA polymerase? |
|
Definition
| Cytyrabine (pyrimidine analog) |
|
|
Term
| Which antimetabolite is an adenosine analog? What is it used to treat? |
|
Definition
Cladribine
resistant to degradation by adenosine deaminase |
|
|
Term
| What are the structures in the retroperitoneum? |
|
Definition
A DUCK PEAR
Aorta and IVC, Duodenum (2nd and 3rd parts), Ureters, Colon (ascending and descending), Kidneys, Pancreas (except tail), Esophagus ( lower 2/3), Adrenal glands, Rectum (lower 2/3) |
|
|
Term
| What does the D-xylose test distinguish between? |
|
Definition
| GI mucosal damage from other causes of malabsorption |
|
|
Term
| What transporters are used to transport glucose, galactose, and fructose into the cell? |
|
Definition
SGLT-1 transports glucose and galactose (Na+ dependent)
GLUT-5 transports fructose
All are transported into the blood via GLUT-2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the rate limiting step of bile production? |
|
Definition
| Cholesterol 7alpha hydroxylase |
|
|
Term
| What are three salivary gland tumors? |
|
Definition
Pleomorphic adenoma (composed of cartilage and epithelium, benign)
Warthrin's tumor (paipllary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, benign, has germinal centers)
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (most common malignant tumor, mucinous and squamous components, painful mass because of involvement of facial nerve in parotid gland) |
|
|
Term
| What is the Leser-Trelat sign? |
|
Definition
| Seborrheic keratoses all over skin. Associated with gastric adenocarcinomas or malignancies of breast, lung, and urinary tract. |
|
|
Term
| What blood typie is associated with intestinal type gastric cancer? |
|
Definition
type A blood.
Commonly on lesser curvature, looks like ulcer with raised margins, associated with H. pylori infection, dietary nitrosamines, achlorhydria, chronic gastritis.
Diffuse type stomach cancer is not associated with H. pylori. Appears with signet ring cells, stomach wall grossly thickened and leathery (linitis plastica) |
|
|
Term
| What is a Sister Mary Joseph's nodule |
|
Definition
Subcuatneous periumbilical metastatis associated with intestinal type stomach cancer.
Krukenberg's tumor is associated with diffuse type. |
|
|
Term
| What is Menetrier's disease? |
|
Definition
| Gastric hypertrophy with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increase in mucous cells. Precancerous. Rugae of stomach are so hypertrophied that they look brain gyri. |
|
|
Term
| Where are most diverticula found? |
|
Definition
Sigmoid colon.
NB: False diverticulum include mucosa and submucosa. Zenker's diverticulum (in the esophagus) only involves mucosal. |
|
|
Term
| What tumor is associated with arsenic and polyvinyl chloride? |
|
Definition
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Hepatic adenomas related to OCPS or steroid use.
Cavernous hemangiomas are common, benign liver tumor, typically occur at age 30-50. Biopsy contraindicated because risk of hemorrhage. |
|
|
Term
| How does lactulose help treat hepatic encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
| Gut flora degrades lactulose into lactic acid and acetic acid that promote nitrogen excretion as NH4+ |
|
|
Term
| What tissues have GLUT1, 2, and 4? |
|
Definition
GLUT 1: insulin independent; RBCs and brain tissue
GLUT 2: bidirectional; beta cells of pancreas, liver, kidney, small intestine
GLUT 4: insulin dependent, adipose tissue, skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| What adrenergic agonist increases insulin? Which one decreases insulin? |
|
Definition
Beta2 agonists increase insulin release.
Alpha2 agonists decrease insulin release |
|
|
Term
| What oncogene is associated with neuroblastoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Riedel's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
| Thyroid replaced by fibrous tissue. Fixed, hard and painless goiter. Considered a manifestation of IgG-rlated systemic disease. |
|
|
Term
| What is the histologic appearance of subacute thyroiditis versus Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
Subacute thyroiditis: Mixed cellular infiltrate with occasional multinucleated giant cells.
Hashimoto's thyroiditis: Hurthle cells (pink) with lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers. Hashimoto's is associated with B cell lymphoma. |
|
|
Term
| What side effects of opioids do patients gain no tolerance to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of opioid drugs? |
|
Definition
| Act as agonists at opioid receptors to modulate synaptic transmission-- open K+ channels, close Ca2+ channels, leads to decrease in synaptic transmission. Inhibits release of ACh, NE, 5-HT, glutamate, substance P |
|
|
Term
| What are two partial mu agonists? |
|
Definition
Butorphanol and Pentacozine.
May lead to withdrawal symptoms in patients dependent or toleratn to morphine/other opioids |
|
|
Term
| Which antiepileptic is contraindicated in porphyria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of sleep is decreased in benzodiazepine use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does poor blood solubility mean in terms of blood/gas partition coefficient? |
|
Definition
| Poor blood solubility means low blood/gas partition coefficients |
|
|
Term
| What does the MAC represent and how is it related to potency? |
|
Definition
MAC is the minimal alveolar concentration at which 50% of the population is anesthetized. Varies with age.
Drugs with increased solubility in lipids have a higher potency. This is equal to 1/MAC. |
|
|
Term
| What receptor does ketamine block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What portion of the ion channel do local anesthetics bind to? |
|
Definition
Local anesthetics block Na+ channels by binding to specific receptors on inner portion of channel. Preferentially bind to activated Na+ channels so most effective in rapidly iring neurons.
Tertiary amine local anesthetics (Lidocaine, mepivacain, bupivacaine) penetrate membrane in uncharged form, then bind to ion channels as charged form.
Cocaine, procain, tetracaine are esters. |
|
|
Term
| What order do you lose sensation with local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
| Pain, Temperature, Touch, Pressure |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used to treat Huntington's disease? |
|
Definition
Tetrabenazine and reserpine-- inhibit VMAT; limit dopamine vesicle packaging and release
Haloperidol-- dopamine receptor antagonist |
|
|
Term
| What signaling pathway is associated with holoprosencephaly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At what pO2 does cerebral perfusion significantly increase?
At what PCO2 is cerebral blood flow no longer proportional to pCO2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm? |
|
Definition
| Associated with chronic hypertension, affects small vessels (eg in basal ganglia, thalamus) |
|
|
Term
| What drug can you use to prevent vasospasm in subarachnoid hemorrhages? |
|
Definition
| Nimodipine (dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker) |
|
|
Term
| What is the timeline of neuronal damage? |
|
Definition
12-48 h: red neurons
24-72 h: necrosis and neutrophils
3-5 days: macrophages
1-2 weeks: reactive gliosis and vascular proliferation
>2 weeks: glial scar |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus? |
|
Definition
Wet, wobbly, and wacky.
Urinary incontinence, ataxia, and cognitive dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| What enzyme defect can cause ALS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is usually the cause of death in patient with Friedreich's Ataxia? |
|
Definition
Hypertrophic cardiomyophathy
AR trinucleotide repeat (GAA) in gene that encodes frataxin. Leads to impairment in mitochondrial functioning, staggering gait, frequent falling, nystagmus, dysarthria, pes cavus, hammer toes. Loss of spinocerebellar tracts. Presents in childhood as kyphosis. |
|
|
Term
| What does the dorsal motor nucleus do? |
|
Definition
| Sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to heart, lungs, and upper GI. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the opthalmic arter go through? Where does the opthalmic vein go through? |
|
Definition
Opthalmic artery: Optic canal
Opthalmic vein: Superior orbital fissure |
|
|
Term
| Where does the middle meningeal artery run through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Meniere's disease? |
|
Definition
| Peripheral vertigo with vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. |
|
|
Term
| What TCA can be used for OCD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of TCAs? |
|
Definition
Cardiotoxicity, Convulsions, Coma
Also respiratory depression, hyperpyrexia |
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Anxiety |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
ADHD |
|
Definition
| Methylphenidate, amphetamines |
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Bipolar disorder |
|
Definition
| Mood stabilizers (lithium, carbamazepine, valproic acid), atypical antipsychotics |
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Bulimia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Depression |
|
Definition
| SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, mirtazapine (especially with insomnia) |
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
OCD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Panic disorder |
|
Definition
| SSRIs, venlafaxine, benzodiazepines |
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
PTSD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Schizophrenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Social phobias |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for selected psychiatric conditions:
Tourette's syndrome |
|
Definition
| Antipsychotics (haloperidol, risperidone) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for narcolepsy? |
|
Definition
| Stimulants (amphetamines, modafenil) |
|
|
Term
| How do beta blockers help in thyrotoxicosis? |
|
Definition
| There is a decrease in the effect of sympathetic adrenergic impulses reaching the target organs and a decrease in the rate of peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. |
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin cannot cross the placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hartnup disease can result in niacin deficient due to an excess loss of dietary tryptophan, resulting from defective intestinal and renal tubular absorption of that amino acid. |
|
|
Term
| What neurotransmitter does the opioid receptor stimulate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of fetal hydronephrosis? |
|
Definition
| Inadequate recanalization of the ureteropelvic junction |
|
|
Term
| What does Fenoldopam do and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
Dopamine D1 receptor agonist-- coronary, peripheral, renal and splanchnic vasodilation. Decreased BP and increase natriuresis.
Used in malignant hypertension treatment (along with nitroprusside, nicardipine, clevidipine, labetalol) |
|
|
Term
| What are hypertension drugs that are safe in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
Hypertensive Moms Love Nifedifine
Hydralazine, Methyl-dopa, Labetolol, Nifedipine |
|
|
Term
| What is Minoxidil and what are its SE? |
|
Definition
Hypertension drug that opens K+ channels
Toxicities: hypertrichosis, hypotension, fluid retention, reflex tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What beta blockers are contraindciated in angina? |
|
Definition
Pindolol and acebutolol
Partial beta agonists |
|
|
Term
| Which beta blocker can cause dyslipidemia? |
|
Definition
Metoprolol
Treat with glucagon |
|
|
Term
| Which beta blocker can exacerbate vasospasm in Prinzmetal's angina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does amiodarone have class I, II, III, and IV effects of antiarrhythmics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of adenosine? |
|
Definition
Takes K+ out of the cell
Drug of choice for diagnosing/abolishing supraventricular tachycardia. Effects blocked by theophylline and caffeine |
|
|
Term
| What gene is implicated in primary pulmonary hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic triad for pulmonary emboli? |
|
Definition
| hypoxemia, neurologic abnormalities, and petechial rash |
|
|
Term
| What is the initial damage in ARDS caused by? |
|
Definition
| Neutrophilic substances that are toxic to alveolar wall, activates coagulation cascade and oxygen free radicals. |
|
|
Term
| Which lung cancer is chromogranin positive? |
|
Definition
| Bronchial carcinoid tumor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
decreased protein content. due to CHF, nephrotic syndrome, or hepatic cirrhosis.
exudate has high protein content, cloudy, due to malignancy, pneumonia, collagen vascular disease, trauma |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of beclomethasone and fluticasone? |
|
Definition
| Inactivates NF-kB, the transcription factor that induces that production of TNF-a |
|
|
Term
| What therapy is especially good for aspiring induced asthma? |
|
Definition
| Montelukast, zafirlukast (leukotriene receptor blockers) |
|
|
Term
| What's the mechanism of Bosentan? |
|
Definition
| Used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension Competitively antagonizes endothelin-1 receptors, decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of Dextromethorphan? |
|
Definition
| Antitussive, antagonizes NMDA glutamate receptors. Synthetic codeine analog. |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Gastrin |
|
Definition
G cells (antrum of stomach)
Increases gastric H+ secretion, increases growth of gastric mucosa, increases gastric motility |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Cholecystokinin |
|
Definition
I cells of duodenum and jejunum
Increases pancreatic secretion, gallbladder contraction, spinchter of Oddi relaxation.
Decreases gastric emptying |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Secretin |
|
Definition
S cells (duodenum)
increases pancreatic HCO3 secretion and bile secretion
decreases gastric acid secretion |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Somatostatin |
|
Definition
D cells of pancreatic islets and GI mucosa
Decreases: gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion, pancreatic and small intestine fluid secretion, gallbladder contraction, insulin and glucagon releases |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: GIP |
|
Definition
K cells (duodenum and jejunum)
Exocrine: decreases gastric H+ secretion
Endocrine: increases insulin release |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: VIP |
|
Definition
Parasympathetic ganglis in sphincters, gallbladder, small intestine
Increases: intestinal water and electrolyte secretion, relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle and sphincters |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Motilin |
|
Definition
Small intestine
Produces MMCs |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Intrinsic Factor |
|
Definition
Parietal cells (stomach)
Vitamin B12 binding protein |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Gastric acid |
|
Definition
Parietal cells of stomach
decreases stomach pH |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: Pepsin |
|
Definition
Chief cells of the stomach
Protein digestion |
|
|
Term
| Location and function: HCO3 |
|
Definition
Mucosal cells of stomach, duodenum, salivary glands, pancreas and Brunner's glands of duodenum
Neutralizes acid |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic abnormality that primarily affects hemochromotasis? |
|
Definition
| HFE is on the short arm of chromosome 6 and encodes for a molecule that affects iron absorption from the GI tract. |
|
|
Term
| How is copper excreted from the body? |
|
Definition
| Absorbed copper is used to form ceruloplasmin. Senescent ceruloplasmin and unabsorbed copper are secreted into bile and excreted into stool. |
|
|
Term
| Why do Klinefelter patients get gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After a blood transfusion, why may a patient present with hypocalcemia? |
|
Definition
| Patients who receive more than one body blood volume of whole blood (5-6 liters) may develop elevated plasma levels of citrate, which would chelate calcium and magnesium and cause paresthesias. |
|
|
Term
| How long does cardiomyocyte contractility last after onset of total ischemia? |
|
Definition
| 60 secs. After 30 minutes of total ischemia, ischemic injury is irreversible. |
|
|
Term
| What causes decrease in renin with beta blockers? |
|
Definition
| Beta-1 receptor blockade on JGA cells. |
|
|
Term
| What are the non-selective alpha and beta blockers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the partial beta agonists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-A3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-B27? |
|
Definition
PAIR
Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, Inflammatory Bowel Disease, Reiter's Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-DR2/DQ8? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-DR2 |
|
Definition
| Multiple Sclerosis, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture's |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-DR3 |
|
Definition
| DM type 1, Grave's Disease |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-DR4 |
|
Definition
| Rheumatoid Arthritis,DM type 1 |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with HLA-DR5 |
|
Definition
| Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto's thyroiditis |
|
|
Term
| Which immunosuppressant has a SE of being neurotoxic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunsuppressant inhibits mTOR by binding to FK binding protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunosuppressant is a guanine nucleotide inhibitor? |
|
Definition
Mycophenolate.
Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehdrationase |
|
|
Term
| What is aldesleukin and what is its clinical use? |
|
Definition
Interleukin 2 recombinant
RCC, metastatic melanoma |
|
|
Term
| What is Oprelvekin and what is its clinical use? |
|
Definition
Recombinant IL-11
Thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| What are four causes of renal papillary necrosis? |
|
Definition
1. Sickle Cell Disease
2. Acute Pyelonephritis
3. Diabetes Mellitis
4. Drugs (Phenacetin) |
|
|
Term
| What are the toxicities of furosemide? |
|
Definition
OH DANG
Ototoxicity, hypokalemia, dehydration, allergy, nephritis (interstitial), gout |
|
|
Term
| What are the toxicities of HCTZ? |
|
Definition
GLUC
Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hyper uricemia, hypercalcemia, sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
| What kind of autoantibodies are Anti-Ro and Anti-La? |
|
Definition
| Anti-ribonucleotide antibodies found in Sjogrens Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What kind of tumors have "palisading nuclei"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of inflammatory cell is also found in bullous pemphigoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases are erythema nodosum associated with? |
|
Definition
| Sarcoidosis, coccidioidomycosis, histoplasmosis, TB, streptococcal infections, leprosy, Crohn's disease |
|
|
Term
| What type of T cells is polymyositis associated with? |
|
Definition
| CD8 T cells, endomysial inflammation, most often involves shoulders. |
|
|
Term
| What type of T cells is dermatomyositis associated with? |
|
Definition
| CD4 cells, increased risk of occult malignancy. Perimysial inflammation and atrophy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A BRAF kinase inhibitor, may be useful in melanoma treatment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Triad of fibroma, hydrothorax, and ascites. |
|
|
Term
| What affects girls <4 years old and presents as spindle shaped tumor cells that are desmin positive in the vagina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ovarian germ cell tumor has early hemotagenous spread to lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What penile pathology presents with inflammation of the glans penis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What penile pathology presents with bent penis due to acquired fibrous tissue formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What penile pathology presents with grey crusty solitary plaque on genitals with a risk of squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
Bowen disease
Bowenoid papulosis-- multiple pauplar lesions which do not become invasive. |
|
|
Term
| What penile pathology leads to red velvety plaque usually involving the glans penis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two aromatase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| alpha 1 anagonist used to treat BPH by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction. |
|
|
Term
| What are two indications for danazol? |
|
Definition
| Partial androgen agonist used for endometriosis and hereditary angioedema. |
|
|
