Term
| List the 2 main categories of musculoskeletal. |
|
Definition
1. Bones and joints
2. Skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| List 5 basic functions of bones. |
|
Definition
1. Hematopoesis
2. Lever
3. Protectoin
4. Stability
5. Storage of minerals and nutrients (fat) |
|
|
Term
| List 4 characteristics of bones. |
|
Definition
1. Innervated
2. Very vascular
3. Dynamic
4. Very organized |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean that bones are dynamic? |
|
Definition
| Constantly undergoing remodeling processes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Volume ejected per ventricle per beat |
|
|
Term
| If stroke volume falls, HR (increases, decreases, no change). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If stroke volume (increases/decreases/no change), HR increases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Volume ejected per ventricle per minute |
|
|
Term
| What is the equation to determine cardiac output. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Period of time heart spends in contraction; cardiac contraction |
|
|
Term
| How much time is spent in systole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Period of time heart spends in relaxation; cardiac relaxation |
|
|
Term
| How much time is spent in diastole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the heart spend more time in diastole? |
|
Definition
| Relaxation requires more active pumping of calcium ions |
|
|
Term
| When speaking of ventricles, always assume we're talking about the (left/right) ventricles. Why? |
|
Definition
| Left; they go out to the extremities |
|
|
Term
| Define end systolic volume. |
|
Definition
| Ventricular volume after systole; residual volume; volume that doesn't leave after heart contracts |
|
|
Term
| Anything that increases _____ _____ causes ESV to decrease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 things that increase cardiac contractility. |
|
Definition
1. Epinephrine
2. Norepinephrine
3. Dopamine |
|
|
Term
| ESV (increases/decreases/no change) if output volume decreases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define end diastolic volume. |
|
Definition
| Ventricular volume after diastole; filling volume |
|
|
Term
| Sterling's law is associated with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased EDV increases _____, which decreases _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define ejection fraction. |
|
Definition
| Measure of cardiac efficiency |
|
|
Term
| What is the equation for ejaction fraction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you find stroke volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If SV and EDV both increase or decrease, will the ejaction fraction ration change? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define mean arterial pressure. |
|
Definition
| Average arterial pressure during one systole, diastole cardiac cycle |
|
|
Term
| What is always measure in mmMg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the equation for mearn arterial pressure? |
|
Definition
| Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (systolic - diastolic) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Difference between systolic and diastolic |
|
|
Term
| Define diastolic pressure. |
|
Definition
| Average pressure during diastole in arteries |
|
|
Term
| Diastolic pressure is on (top/botton) and systolic pressure is on (top/bottom). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define systolic pressure. |
|
Definition
| Average pressure during systole in arteries |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Primes ventricle for max contraction and stretch |
|
|
Term
| Of preload and afterload, which is good? Which is bad? |
|
Definition
| Preload is good; afterload is bad |
|
|
Term
| Preload is synonymous with what 2 things? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Resistance blood sees when it leaves the heart |
|
|
Term
| List 3 things that increase afterload. |
|
Definition
1. Constriction
2. Stenotic valves
3. Anything that causes vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| Regarding afterload, list 4 things that can cause vasoconstriction. |
|
Definition
1. Endothelin
2. Thromboxane
3. PG2alpha
4. Serotonin |
|
|
Term
| If afterload increases, _____ decreases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define total peripheral resistance. |
|
Definition
| Total resistance blood sees in periphery |
|
|
Term
| TPR is a combination of resistance from what 3 things? |
|
Definition
1. Arteries/arterioles
2. Capillaries
3. Veins |
|
|
Term
| What is the equation for TPR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define central venous pressure. |
|
Definition
| Lowest pressure in cardiovascular circuit |
|
|
Term
| What is the location of CVP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the highest amount of pressure occur in the cardiovascular circuit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heart disorders relate to what 4 main things? |
|
Definition
1. Cardiac muscle cells
2. Coronary blood flow
3. Wall layers
4. Cardiovascular system regulation |
|
|
Term
| What is another word for cardiac muscle cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myocytes are (myogenic/neurogenic), which means what? |
|
Definition
| Myogenic; self-generating |
|
|
Term
| Myocyte nerves can change or modulate, but they can't initiate or stop actions. What is this called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What neurons are myocytes innervated by? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic and parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
| T/F Myocytes neurons are capable of making their own activity, as in skeletal muscle neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of myocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Contractile cells
2. Pacemaker cells |
|
|
Term
| List 3 characteristics of contractile myocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Work-horses
2. Generate force
3. 99% of heart wall |
|
|
Term
| Describe 4 characteristics of the appearance of contractile myocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Striated
2. Uninucleate
3. Branching
4. Intercollated disks |
|
|
Term
| By what method do contractile myocytes pirmarily grow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Since contractile myocytes grow primarily by hypertrophy, this means that their cell type is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are contractile myocytes regenerative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding contractile myocytes, physiological hypertrophy results in growth in _____ by means of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Due to physiologiccal hypertrophy of contractile myocytes, at rest, _____ increases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is physiological or pathological hypertrophy non-benificial to contractile myocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pathological hypertrophy of contractile myocytes results in growth in _____, but a loss of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 receptors specific to contractile myocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Beta 1
2. Stretch receptors
3. Dopamine receptors |
|
|
Term
| A stretch receptor is a type of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do stretch receptros on contractile myocites cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The increased contraction which results form stretch receptors on contractile myocytes (does/does not) change HR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do dopamine receptros on contractile myocites cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The increased contraction which results form dopamine receptors on contractile myocytes (does/does not) change HR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the characteristics of a contractile myocite action potential. |
|
Definition
1. Have a set resting membrane potential and threshold potential
2. Depolarize with Na (Na in)
3. Long refractory period or plateau phase (Ca in from ESF)
4. Repolarize w/ K (K out)
5. Do not hyperpolarize |
|
|
Term
| List 3 functions of the long refractory period/plateau phase in contractile myocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Promotes contraction
2. Changes membrane potential
3. Prevents summation/tetany |
|
|
Term
| The long refractory period/plateau phase of contractile myocytes promotes contraction. How is this related to the action potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pacemaker myocytes are also known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pacemaker myocytes make up _____ of the heart wall. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 4 characteristics of appearance of pacemaker myocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Not typical muscle proteins
2. Not striated
3. Uninucleate
4. Connected by gap junctions |
|
|
Term
| Pacemaker myocytes (are/are not) regenerative. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 receptors associated with pacemaker myocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the characteristic of a pacemaker myocyte action potential. |
|
Definition
1. No set resing membrane potential
2. Have threshold potential
3. No voltage-gated Na channels
4. Depolarize with Ca
5. Ca in, K out
6. Don't hyperpolarize |
|
|
Term
| "The pacemaker" is described as what? |
|
Definition
| The one with the highest depolarization rate |
|
|
Term
| List pacemaker myocytes in order of highest depolarization rate to lowest. |
|
Definition
| SA node-->AV node-->Bundle of His-->Perkinje fibers |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of coronary blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Feed the walls of the heart via coronary circulation |
|
|
Term
| Structually, coronary arteries are _____, which means there is a _____ and a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do coronary arteries arise from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathway of a coronary artery? |
|
Definition
| Aorta-->capillary bed-->cardiac veins-->coronary sinus-->right atrium |
|
|
Term
| When is blood delivered to the heart through the coronary arteries? |
|
Definition
| Only during diastole, when the heart is relaxing and pipes are open (2/3 of time) |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 ways coronary blood flow is controlled. |
|
Definition
1. Systemically
2. Locally |
|
|
Term
| Systemically controlled coronary blood flow involves what organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the adrenal medulla provide systemically for coronary blood flow? What is the result? What are the receptors? |
|
Definition
| Epi and norepi; vasodilation; beta 2 |
|
|
Term
| Systemically controlled coronary blood flow involves _____ activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Locally controlled coronary blood flow involves _____ regulation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of dopamine (released systemically from the adrenal medulla) on coronary blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Nothing; dopamine doesn't alter blood flow - it's not vasoactive |
|
|
Term
| Local, endothelial regulatoin of coronary blood flow results in what 2 things? |
|
Definition
1. Vasodilation
2. Vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| Local, endothelial vasodilation of coronary blood flow involves what 3 factors/receptors? Which is most common*? |
|
Definition
1. Adenosine*
2. Nitric oxide
3. Prostacyclin |
|
|
Term
| Local endothelial vasoconstriction of coronary blood flow involves what 3 factors/receptors? Which is most common*? |
|
Definition
| 1. Endothelin* 2. PGF2alpha 3. Thromboxane |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 layers of the heart, inner to outer. |
|
Definition
1. Endocardium
2. Myocardium
3. Epicardium |
|
|
Term
| What is the deepest, chamber-facing layer of the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 components of endocardium. |
|
Definition
1. Endothelial cells
2. Pacemaker cells |
|
|
Term
| In endocardium, what are the functions of endothelial cells. What do the endothelial cells of the epicardium not do? |
|
Definition
1. Prevent inflammation
2. Prevent leukocyte adhesion
3. Control vascular remodeling
Do not make vasoactive factors |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 main categories of endocardial disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Endocarditis
2. Valve disorders
3. Rhythm disorders |
|
|
Term
| Endocarditis comes in 2 forms; _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of endocarditis is better? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is acute endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| An endogenous bacteria or virus that causes inflammation of the inner layer of heart |
|
|
Term
| What is the manifestation of acute atrial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the acute valve or ventricular manifestation of endocarditis? What does this allow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Acute endocarditis typically results in long-term damage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for actue endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define chronic endocarditis. |
|
Definition
| Recurrent inflammatory response in one section of the heart wall or valve |
|
|
Term
| List 2 things that chronic endocarditis leads to. |
|
Definition
1. Scar tissue formation
2. Decreased elasticity and stretch |
|
|
Term
| What is the manifestation of chronic atrial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the manifestation of chronic valve or ventricular endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| Chronic decrease in output, thus chronic decrease in SV |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for chronic endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| Contractility agent (dopamine agonist); corticosteroid (for immunosuppression); diuretic (low dose ACE inhibitor); treat auto-immune |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of a heart valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 4 things that any valve disorder can be caused by. |
|
Definition
1. Chronic endocarditis (lupus)
2. Age
3. Myocardial infarcion (heart attack)
4. Infection (rheumatic fever) |
|
|
Term
| Valve disorders (are/are not) genetic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 general treatments of valve disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Treat causes
2. Valve replacement |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 main categories of endocardial valve disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Insufficient
2. Stenotic
3. Prolapse |
|
|
Term
| Describe an insufficient valve disorder. |
|
Definition
| Valve does not close completely |
|
|
Term
| An insufficient valve disorder results in what? |
|
Definition
| Backflow, which causes turbulance in the atria, and decreases SV and cardiac output |
|
|
Term
| Where does an insufficient valve disorder typically occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Backflow resulting from insufficient valve disorders causes (atrial/ventricular) backflow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe an insufficient valve disorder heart murmur. |
|
Definition
| Low pitch (whir, whoosh, rumble); heard after the lub |
|
|
Term
| which of the 3 valve disorders has specific stand-alone causes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe stenotic valve disorder. |
|
Definition
| Valve that doesn't open all the way |
|
|
Term
| What results from a stenotic valve disorder? |
|
Definition
| Increased resistance, high afterload, which decreases SV and cardiac output |
|
|
Term
| Which valves are most likely effected in stenotic valve disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the heart murmur of a stenotic valve disorder. |
|
Definition
| High pitch (whistle) heard after lub |
|
|
Term
| List 5 specific causes of stenotic valve disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Hypertension
2. Smoking
3. Dyslipidemia
4. Physical inactivity
5. Heart failure |
|
|
Term
| What is a prolapse valve disorder? |
|
Definition
| Valve burps backwards but typically holds its seal |
|
|
Term
| What does a prolapse valve disorder cause? |
|
Definition
| Change in pressure gradient; by increasing ventricular volume it decreases ventricular pressure, which decreases SV and cardiac output |
|
|
Term
| What does a prolapse valve disorder most commonly affect? |
|
Definition
| Mitral AV valve (left bicuspid) |
|
|
Term
| Which valve disorder does not typically cause heart murmurs. In what case can it cause heart murmurs? |
|
Definition
| Prolapse; if it becomes insufficient or leaky |
|
|
Term
| List 4 endocardial rhythm disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Premature ventricular contraction (PVC)
2. Atrial flutter
3. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
4. Bundle branch block |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An extra heartbeat caused by an abnormal electrical impulse starting in ventricles |
|
|
Term
| List causes/risk factors of PVC. |
|
Definition
1. Age
2. Alcohol
3. Caffeine
4. Pseudoephredine
5. Coronary artery disease
6. Heart failure
7. Stress
8. Valve disorders
9. Ectopic focus |
|
|
Term
| What is an ectopic focus? |
|
Definition
| A bundle of pacemakers located in the wrong place |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of PVC. |
|
Definition
1. May have little impact
2. Strong, skipped heartbeat
3. Racing heartbeat |
|
|
Term
| List treatment options for PVC. |
|
Definition
1. Avoid risk factors
2. Beta blockers
3. Calcium channel blockers
4. Cardiac ablation |
|
|
Term
| What do beta blockers do for PVC? |
|
Definition
| Slow down HR and make pacemaker cells depolarize less fast |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of cardiac ablation? |
|
Definition
| Kill ectopic focus cells (in rhythm disorders) |
|
|
Term
| Define an atrial flutter. |
|
Definition
| An abnormal heart rhythm that occurs in atria of heart and is usually associated w/ tachycardia; many mini atrial contractions |
|
|
Term
| What is a cause of atrial flutter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List symptoms of atrial flutter. |
|
Definition
1. Leg/abdominal swelling
2. Effort intolerance
3. Thrombus formation
4. Varicose veins |
|
|
Term
| Why does leg/abdominal swelling occur in atrial flutter? |
|
Definition
| Venous return decreases so there's venous backflow |
|
|
Term
| Why does throbus formation occur in atrial flutter? |
|
Definition
| Venous backflow and venous stasis |
|
|
Term
| List treatment options for atrial flutter. |
|
Definition
1. Anticoagulants or antiplatelet agents
2. Cardioversion
3. Cardiac ablation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Presence of an extra, abnormal electrical pathway in heart leads to very fast heartbeat |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of Wolff-Parkinson-White? |
|
Definition
| Ectopic focus; abnormal gene |
|
|
Term
| List symptoms of Wolff-Parkinson-White. |
|
Definition
1. Intolerance to exercise
2. Fast HR
3. Sensations of rapid flutterings or pounding heartbeat
4. Dizziness
5. Lightheaded
6. Fainting |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Wolff-Parkinson-White? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of Buncle Branch Block. |
|
Definition
1. Little change in rhythm
2. Slower excitation on one side
3. Delayed contraction on one side
4. Atria in unison, but ventricles not, so valves also out of unison
5. Lub, lub, dub, dub |
|
|
Term
| Valve openings and closings are entirely dependent on _____ activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List treatment options for bundle branch block. |
|
Definition
1. Calcium channel blocker
2. Sodium/potassium ATPase inhibitor
3. Dopamine |
|
|
Term
| The treatment for bundle branch block is based on the need to do what? |
|
Definition
| Increase contractility and decrease HR |
|
|
Term
| What does a sodium/potassium ATPase inhibitor do for bundle branch block? |
|
Definition
| Delays resetting of membrane potential |
|
|
Term
| What is the system for bone organization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the osteon/haversion system? |
|
Definition
| Functional unit of bone; smallest piece of bone that does all bone functions |
|
|
Term
| List the 5 cell types of bone. |
|
Definition
1. Osteocyte
2. Osteoblast
3. Osteoprogenitor
4. Bone lining
5. Osteoclast |
|
|
Term
| What is the most abundant bone cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell is concidered an adult cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell maintains the bony matrix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding the matrix, why is bone so unique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Not terminally differentiated or grown-up |
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell is an immature osteocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell makes bony matrix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once an osteoblast has done it's job in making bony matrix, it is considered an _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an osteoprogenitor? |
|
Definition
| A stem cell destined to become an osteoblast |
|
|
Term
| What bone cell is an inactive osteocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can bone lining regain osteocyte-like features? |
|
Definition
| Yes if it's in an active place |
|
|
Term
| What is an ideal location in which bone lining could regain osteocyte-like features? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bone cell performs resorption of matrix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell began as a monocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell is not born in bone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bone cell has the most unique "cell line"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do hormones regulate bone? |
|
Definition
| By regulating cell types that live in bone |
|
|
Term
| List 2 hormones that regulate bone. |
|
Definition
1. PTH (parathyroid hormone)
2. Calcitonin |
|
|
Term
| What does PTH doe to regulate bone? |
|
Definition
| Releases calcium from bone |
|
|
Term
| Of the hormones that regulate bone, which is released when plasma calcium is too low? What activity does it increase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Related to bone, what does PTH cause in small intestines? |
|
Definition
| Increased absorption of calcium |
|
|
Term
| Related to bone, what does PTH cause in kidneys? |
|
Definition
| Increased reabsorption of calcium |
|
|
Term
| Calcitonin increases _____ activity when plasma calcium is too _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the 2 bone regulating hormones, which one is used less often? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding bone, what does calcitonin cause in small intestines and kidneys? |
|
Definition
| Small intestines - decreased absorption of calcium; kidneys - decreased absorption of calcium |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of bone growth. |
|
Definition
1. Endochondral ossification
2. Intramembranous ossification |
|
|
Term
| Which type of bone growth involves bone replacing cartilage skeleton? |
|
Definition
| Endochondral ossification |
|
|
Term
| By which type do most bones grow? |
|
Definition
| Endochondral ossification |
|
|
Term
| Everything except for _____ _____ and _____ grows by endochondral ossification. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the growth of bone related to periosteum in endochondral ossification. |
|
Definition
| Periosteum surrounds cartilage that becomes skeleton, but doesn't regulate growth |
|
|
Term
| Which bones grown by intramembranous ossification? |
|
Definition
| Flat bones (skull bones and clavical) |
|
|
Term
| Describe intramembranous ossification bone growth in relation to periosteum. |
|
Definition
| Bone grows withing finite membrane space b/c membrane is there first; bone is built with membrane around it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Membrane that surrounds all bones |
|
|
Term
| List 3 factors that regulate peak bone mass. |
|
Definition
1. Physical activity
2. Diet
3. Gender |
|
|
Term
| What gender typically has higher peak bone mass and why? |
|
Definition
| Males; anabolic testosterone, more bone remodeling forces, more muscle mass, more wreckless activity |
|
|
Term
| List 6 skeletal disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Neoplasms
2. Growth disorders
3. Infection
4. Metabolic disorders
5. Arthritis
6. Osteonecrosis |
|
|
Term
| T/F Skeletal neoplasms very rarely metastasize. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do skeletal neoplasms metastasize so easily? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of skeletal neoplasms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of benign skeletal neoplasms. |
|
Definition
1. -oma, encapsulated, non-necrotic, non-angeogenic, act like parent tissue
2. Local discomfort after activity or at joint surface
3. Within periosteum |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a benign skeletal neoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of malignant skeletal neoplasms. |
|
Definition
1. -sarcoma, not encapsulated, fast-growing, necrotic areas, angeogenic
2. Deep, radiating bone pain at night
3. Beyond periosteum |
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a benign skeletal neoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a malignant skeletal neoplasm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a malignant skeletal neoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 3 main categories of skeletal growth disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Asymmetrical endochondral ossification
2. Too much bone
3. Too little bone |
|
|
Term
| What is asymmetrical endochondral ossification? |
|
Definition
| Inability to replace cartilage with bone |
|
|
Term
| Asymmetrical endochondral ossification can be a developmental disorder during growth due to what? |
|
Definition
| Vitamin deficiencies and osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of asymmetrical endochondral ossification. |
|
Definition
1. Limb specific knock knees, bowed legs, hemihypertrophy
2. Scoliosis
3. Kyphosis
4. Lordosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lateral curvature in spine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Too much anterior thoracic curvature |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Too much posterior lumbar curvature |
|
|
Term
| List 2 types of growth disorders that involve too much bone. |
|
Definition
1. Paget's disease
2. Osteophytes |
|
|
Term
| Paget's disease involves overactive _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Overactive osteoblasts increase likelihood of getting what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Paget's disease result in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most commonly affected bone in Paget's disease? Are all bones affected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are problems related to Paget's disease? |
|
Definition
| Bones get too thick and dull, aching pain |
|
|
Term
| In Paget's what is the reason for dull, aching pain? |
|
Definition
| Too much mass inside periosteum |
|
|
Term
| What is a treatment for Paget's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do osteophytes typically occur? |
|
Definition
| Where bones are stressed (fracture, joint trauma, broken bone) |
|
|
Term
| Why do osteophytes occur in the heels (heel spurs)? |
|
Definition
| Very large tendon connected to heel bone |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for osteophytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for a growth disorder that results in too little bone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define osteogenesis imperfecta. |
|
Definition
| Inability to properly cross-link collagen fiber in bony matrix |
|
|
Term
| Bones of osteogenesis imperfecta lack strength in what direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is osteogenesis imperfecta diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| At birth, when baby has multiple fractures coming out of birth canal |
|
|
Term
| T/F Osteogenesis imperfectat occurs in varying levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for osteogenesis imperfecta? |
|
Definition
| Make everything else about the bone stronger |
|
|
Term
| What is the word for a skeletal infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Almost all osteomyelitis is caused by _____ infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 types of osteomyelitis. |
|
Definition
1. Endogenous
2. Exogenous |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of endogenous osteomyelitis. |
|
Definition
1. Bone infected from pathogen already in body
2. Carried by blood or lymph
3. Bone pain
4. Treatment is antibiotics |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of exogenous osteomyelitis. |
|
Definition
1. Bone infected from pathogen that outside body; requires access
2. Commonly from open fracture
3. Bone pain
4. Treatment is antibiotics |
|
|
Term
| List an example of a skeletal metabolic disorder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What skeletal metabolic disorder is the most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osteoporosis results in the overall loss of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F In osteoporosis, the ratio of mineralized to non-mineralized content changes; everything decreases at varying rates. |
|
Definition
| False; does not chage; same rate |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
1. Fractures
2. Brittle bones
3. Decrease in height |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 most common locations of osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
1. Vertebral bodies
2. Femur head
3. Colles fracture |
|
|
Term
| What is a colles fracture? |
|
Definition
| A distal radius ulna fracture |
|
|
Term
| How is osteoporosis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| Based on change in mineral bone content |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 categories of osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define primary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
| Changes occur at level of bone cell |
|
|
Term
| In primary osteoporosis, what is happening at the level of bone cell? |
|
Definition
| Clast activity is increasing, blast activity is decreasing, or both |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 categories of primary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who does type I primary osteoporosis affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is type I primary osteoporosis natrually prevented in most pre-menopausal women? |
|
Definition
| Estrogen keeps clast activity low |
|
|
Term
| Type I primary osteoporosis is an absolute increase in _____ activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List risk factors for type I primary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
1. Genetics
2. Family history
3. Low calcium intake
4. Physical inactivity
5. Complexion |
|
|
Term
| Why is complexion a risk factor for type I primary osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
| Inability to synthesis vitamin D |
|
|
Term
| List treatments for type I primary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
1. Wt. bearing exercise
2. Estrogen supplement
3. Diet
4. Bisphosphenate |
|
|
Term
| What is a side effect of estrogen supplementation? |
|
Definition
| Can increase risk of breast cancer and decrease risk of cervical/uterine cancer |
|
|
Term
| What do bisphosphenates do? |
|
Definition
| Suppress activity of clasts |
|
|
Term
| Who does type II primary osteoporosis affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of osteoporosis does everyone get as they age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Type II primary osteoporosis is characterised by an absolute decrease in _____ activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F In type II primary osteoporosis, blast cell # decreases and thus matrix output per cell decreases. |
|
Definition
| False; blast cell # remains normal, but matrix output per cell decreases |
|
|
Term
| Define secondary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
| Side effect of something else |
|
|
Term
| List causes of secondary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
1. Radiation
2. Chemo
3. Hormone disorders
4. Smoking
5. Heavy alcohol use
6. Cancer
7. Leukemia |
|
|
Term
| List 2 hormone disorders that can cause secondary osteoporosis. |
|
Definition
1. Hypogonadism
2. Hyperparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What is multiple myeloma and how does it cause secondary osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
| Bone stem cell cancer; tumor cells make osteoclast activating factor |
|
|
Term
| How do leukemias cause secondary osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
| Decrease osteoblast activity |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osteoarthritis is more specifically a _____ disorder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Progressive breakdown of joint surfaces, which causes inflammation |
|
|
Term
| All joint surfaces are made of what? This covers every surface involved in _____ _____. |
|
Definition
| Articular hyaline cartilage; movable articulation |
|
|
Term
| Osteoarthritis is most often caused by what 3 things? |
|
Definition
1. Overuse
2. Trauma
3. Obesity |
|
|
Term
| Unlike Rheumatoid, osteoarthritis is usually _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the speed of osteoarthritis. |
|
Definition
| A progressive, slow, continuous breakdown of joint surfaces |
|
|
Term
| When is osteoarthritis inflammatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding inflammation, how is osteoarthritis different from Rheumatoid? |
|
Definition
| Swelling isn't an inherent part of process; no connection with immune; not auto-immune |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of joint replacement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List treatments for osteoarthritis. |
|
Definition
1. NSAIDs (anti-inflammatories)
2. Analgesic meds
3. Wt. reducing devices
4. Decreased body mass
5. Joint replacement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This skeletal disorder can be caused by any of the other bone disorders and is ultimately caused by loss of blood flow to the bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if a section of bone dies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 most common treatments for osteonecrosis. |
|
Definition
1. Surgery
2. Joint replacement |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of osteonecrosis. |
|
Definition
1. Traumatic
2. Non-traumatic |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of osteonecrosis and what is it characterized by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 examples of non-traumatic osteonecrosis. |
|
Definition
1. Neoplasm
2. Blood clot
3. Other bone disorders |
|
|
Term
| Somatic pathways are _____ and _____ only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Somatic neurons can innervate many cells, but somatic motor end plates can innervate only 1 cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Somatic neurons are tropic to what? What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| Tropic; if you cut the nerve, no matter what occurs externally, the muscle cell decreases in size |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Something that releases a growth factor to regulate ability for regrowth/repair/regeneration |
|
|
Term
| How does skeletal muscle growh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Skeletal muscle shrinks by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List examples of physiological skeletal muscle atrophy. |
|
Definition
1. Laziness
2. Bed rest
3. Cast
4. Disuse
5. Space flight |
|
|
Term
| List examples of pathological skeletal muscle atrophy. |
|
Definition
1. Metabolic disorders
2. Musculary dystrophy
3. Dennervation injuries |
|
|
Term
| Lis the 3 main categories of skeletal muscle disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Muscular dystrophy
2. Metabolic disorders
3. Age-related changes |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 most severe forms of muscular dystrophy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define Duchenne muscular dystrophy. |
|
Definition
| Progressive muscle weakness, delayed motor skills and atrophy |
|
|
Term
| What is the more common and severe form of muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which form of muscular dystrophy is muscle mass lost and muscle tissue replaced with scar tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a word for the replacement of muscle tissue with scar tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metaplasia in Duchenne causes very _____ muscles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of muscular dystrophy is genetic x-linked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is first affected in Duchenne? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of muscular dystrophy is sometimes accompanied by mental retardation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Duchenne and Becker are both caused by a specific mutation in the _____ gene. This gene helps make _____, which does what? |
|
Definition
| DMD; dystrophin; links actin to cytoskeleton of muscle cell |
|
|
Term
| Describe the diagnosis and progression of Duchenne. |
|
Definition
| Diagnosed early with very rapid progression; early death (twenties) |
|
|
Term
| Which form of muscular dystrophy results in wheelchair dependency by adolescence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is there a cure for Duchenne or Becker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diagnostic tool is associated with both Duchenne and Becker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define Becker muscular dystrophy. |
|
Definition
| Progressive muscle weakness and atrophy |
|
|
Term
| Which form of muscular dystrophy is milder and has more varied symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is first affected in Becker? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of Becker. |
|
Definition
1. Muscle weakness
2. Toe walking
3. Frequent falls
4. Difficulty breathing |
|
|
Term
| Describe the progression of Becker. |
|
Definition
| Slower progression; later death (40s-50s) |
|
|
Term
| List 5 metabolic disorders of skeletal muscle. |
|
Definition
1. Acid maltase deficiency (Pompe's)
2. McArdle's
3. Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
4. Tarui's disease
5. Debrancher enzyme deficiency (Cori's) |
|
|
Term
| Define acid maltase deficiency or Pompe's. |
|
Definition
| Glycogen storage disorder |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of acid maltase deficiency or Pompe's. |
|
Definition
1. Lack of muscle tone
2. Enlarge liver and heart
3. Difficulty swollowing
4. Large protruding tongue
5. Die young by heart/respiratory
6. Progressive weakness of diaphram and trunk |
|
|
Term
| When is onset of acid maltase deficiency or Pompe's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Like Pompe's, McCardles is also a _____ _____ disorder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F McArdle's is always noticed. |
|
Definition
| False; sometimes unnoticed until high intensity exercise |
|
|
Term
| McArdles's is a lack of what? Which is responsible for what? |
|
Definition
| Muscle phosphorylase; glycogen breakdown |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of McArdle's. |
|
Definition
1. Fatigue
2. Muscle cramps
3. Muscle wasting |
|
|
Term
| Which 3 skeletal muscle metabolic disorders don't significantly change lifespan? |
|
Definition
1. McArdle's
2. Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
3. Tarui's disease |
|
|
Term
| Define myoadenylate deaminase deficiency. |
|
Definition
| Genetic defect in myoadenylate deaminase enzyme that affects cell's ability to recycle ATP |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of myoadenylate deaminase deficiency. |
|
Definition
1. Exercise intolerance
2. Cramps
3. Muscle pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Metabolic muscle disease that interferes with CHO processing |
|
|
Term
| Tarui's disease is a genetic defect of what? Why is this enzyme important? |
|
Definition
| Phosphofructo-kinase enzyme; rate limiting step in glycolysis that determines how fast we make ATP; can't make ATP without it |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of Tarui's disease. |
|
Definition
1. Exercise intolerance
2. Pain and cramps
3. Rust-colored urine |
|
|
Term
| What is rust-colored urine a sign of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the recommendation fo Tarui's disease? |
|
Definition
| Avoid strenuous exercise and high CHO meals |
|
|
Term
| Define debrancher enzyme deficiency or Cori's. |
|
Definition
| Genetic defect in debrancher enzyme that interferes with processing of CHOs for energy production |
|
|
Term
| What does Cori's interfere with. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| Breakdown of glycogen in muscle and liver; can't use glycogen |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of Cori's. |
|
Definition
1. Weakness
2. Low blood sugar
3. Seizures
4. Enlarged liver
5. Growth retardation |
|
|
Term
| Those with Cori's are intolerant to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Overall loss of muscle mass |
|
|
Term
| List age-related changes to skeletal muscle. |
|
Definition
1. Thicker sarcolemma
2. Muscle related CT gets stiffer
3. Fast-twitch fibers lost over slow-twitch
4. Slower reaction time |
|
|
Term
| The plasma membrane of skeletal muscle is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although CT associated with muscle gets stiffer with age, _____ tend to stay pliable. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does reaction time slow with age? |
|
Definition
| B/c of neuronal communication and skeletal muscle function |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of age-related skeletal muscle changes. |
|
Definition
1. Slower diffusion
2. Harder to get rid of waste products
3. Faster fatigue
4. Longer recovery
5. Lower work cpaacity |
|
|
Term
| List treatments for age-related skeletal muscle changes. |
|
Definition
1. Wt. bearing exercise
2. Resistance training |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for age-related changes to skeletal muscle based on? |
|
Definition
| Delaying onset by maintaining activity (type I fibers) |
|
|
Term
| T/F In aging, force output per muscle cell stays high as long as muscle is being used. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The myocardium houses _____ cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which heart wall is the thickest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 myocardial disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Myocardial infarction
2. Heart failure |
|
|
Term
| What is a myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is happening in a myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
| Muscle wall is dying because it's not getting enough oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What type of injury is a myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for myocardial infarction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List atrial versus ventricular manifestations of myocardial infarction. |
|
Definition
| Atrial - asymptomatic; ventricular - decreased SV |
|
|
Term
| In heart disorders, why are atrial manifestaions often times asymptomatic? |
|
Definition
| Atria are just receiving chambers |
|
|
Term
| How is myocardial infarction diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| By looking at cardiac enzymes in plasma (which are normally in cells) |
|
|
Term
| List treatments for myocardial infarction. |
|
Definition
1. Anticoagulant
2. Lipid lowering agent
3. Anti-hypertensive
4. Contractility agent (dopamine agonist) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of myocardial contractility |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of heart failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which typeo of heart failure is most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in systolic heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Cells are unable to generate adequate force to maintain cardiac output |
|
|
Term
| What is the most superficial layer of the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The epicardium is continuous with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Epicardium is primarily composed of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 main types of cardiovascular system regulation. |
|
Definition
1. Short term
2. Long term |
|
|
Term
| Short term cardiovascular system maintenance is based on what? |
|
Definition
| Beat to beat maintenance of pressure |
|
|
Term
| Short term cardiovascular system regulation relies on the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Baroreflex is mediated by sets of _____, which are types of _____. |
|
Definition
| Baroreceptors; mechanoreceptors |
|
|
Term
| Baroreceptors receive information about _____. In other words, they're _____ receptors stimulated by volume. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Baroreflex receptors are located in areas that are designed to have _____, so they're not considered weak spots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean if baroreflex receptors are over-stretched? Under-stretched? |
|
Definition
| Over means blood volume and systemic pressure are too high; uncer means blood volume and systemic pressure are too low |
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of over-stretched baroreflex responses. |
|
Definition
1. Activates parasympathetic
2. Decreases HR only
3. Not dramatic b/c hypertension not acute crisis |
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of under-stretched baroreflex responses. |
|
Definition
1. Activates sympathetic alpha 1
2. Increases HR
3. Increases contractility and SV
4. Vasoconstriction and venoconstriction to increase venous return and preload
5. Dramatic response b/c hypotension is acute crisis |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 locations of baroreflex receptors. |
|
Definition
1. Aortic arch
2. Carotid sinus |
|
|
Term
| Which baroreflex receptor monitors what's going to body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which baroreflex receptor monitors what's going to brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Long term CV system regulation is done so by the _____ system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Long-term CV system regulation relies on the ability to change _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 systems that aid in long term endocrine CV system regulation. |
|
Definition
1. RAA system
2. ANP/BNP system |
|
|
Term
| The RAA system is great if... |
|
Definition
| ...you have a healthy heart |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Renin, angiotensin, aldosterone |
|
|
Term
| RAA system promotes (increases/decreases) in pressure, volume and sodium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathway of the RAA system. |
|
Definition
| Angiotensinogen is converted by renin to angiotensin I which is converted by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) to angiotensin II |
|
|
Term
| List 3 characteristics of angiotensinogen. |
|
Definition
1. Made in liver constantly
2. No stimulus
3. Plasma protein |
|
|
Term
| What is the "on" switch in the RAA system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 characteristics of renin. |
|
Definition
1. Stimulated by low Na/plasma volume/mean arterial pressure
2. Made in kidneys |
|
|
Term
| List 2 characteristics of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE). |
|
Definition
1. Made in pulmonary capillaries
2. Constituatively expressed |
|
|
Term
| List effects of angiotensin II. |
|
Definition
1. Adrenal cortex releases aldosterone, which increases Na reabsorption
2. Arterial vasoconstriction increases pressure/resistance/afterload
3. Hypothalamus increases thirst
4. Hypothalamus/posterior pituitary increase vasopressin, which vasoconstricts and increases water reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| What do ANP and BNP stand for? |
|
Definition
| Arterial natriuretic peptides; brain (ventricle) natriuretic peptides |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decrease in Na/volume/pressure |
|
|
Term
| ANP/BNP decrease _____ activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ANP/BNP decrease the release of what? This eliminates what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which endocrine regulation system is a long term regulator of hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which endocrine regulation system is a long term regulator of hypotension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List reasons why capillaries are good at exchange. |
|
Definition
1. Slow flow
2. High resistance
3. High surface area
4. Thin membrane (1 cell thick) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 2 cardiac rhythm disorders both show signs of re-entrant rhythms? |
|
Definition
1. Atrial flutter
2. Wolff-Parkinson-White |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of heart failure. |
|
Definition
1. Decreased SV and cardiac output
2. Swelling
3. Elevated HR
4. Shortness of breath/fatigue/weakness/activity intolerance |
|
|
Term
| What causes swelling in heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes shortness of breath/fatigue/weakness/activity intolerance in heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compensatory responses for heart failure come in what 2 forms? |
|
Definition
1. Short term
2. Long term |
|
|
Term
| In the short term, if cardiac output falls due to heart failure, the _____ turns on _____ responses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the short term compensatory responses for heart failure. |
|
Definition
1. Vasoconstriction
2. Increased HR
3. Increased afterload |
|
|
Term
| Short term vasoconstriction as a result of heart failure causes _____ which is (good/bad). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the long term compensatory response for heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the RAA system do for heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Adds volume and afterload to a system that can't keep up |
|
|
Term
| List 3 blanket treatments for heart failure. |
|
Definition
1. Diuretic
2. Contractility agent
3. Peripheral agent |
|
|
Term
| List 5 diuretic agents used for heart failure. |
|
Definition
1. ACE inhibitor
2. Renin inhibitor
3. Aldosterone antagonist
4. Ang II blocker
5. Loop diaretics |
|
|
Term
| What does an ACE inhibitor do? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits conversion of Ang I to Ang II; stops the RAA system |
|
|
Term
| Where do loop diaretics act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a specific contractility agent used for heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 5 peripheral agents used to treat heart failure. |
|
Definition
1. Compression hose
2. Nitric oxide donor
3. Beta 2 agonist
4. Adenosine
5. Low dose anti-coagulant |
|
|
Term
| What is a peripheral agent used to treat venous stasis/thrombus formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference b/w systolic and diastolic heart failure? |
|
Definition
Systolic - inability to generate adequate contraction during systole
Diastolic - inability to adequately fill ventricles during diastole |
|
|
Term
| During diastolic heart failure, are the ventricles able to relax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of heart failure is most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 problems associated w/ diastolic heart failure. |
|
Definition
1. Too much fluid
2. Mechanical obstruction |
|
|
Term
| Of systolic heart failure, which is more common? |
|
Definition
| Left side (pulmonary congestion/edema) |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for right side systolic heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Systemic venous congestion |
|
|
Term
| The epicardium has _____/_____ disorders. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List an example of an epicardial/pericardial disorder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of one or both layers of the pericardial layers |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 forms of pericarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Pericarditis is a more permanent disorder. |
|
Definition
| False; tends to come and go |
|
|
Term
| What is a risk factor for pericarditis in general? Why? |
|
Definition
| Obesity; causes inward pressure |
|
|
Term
| How is pericarditis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
1. Chest pain
2. Scratch heart sounds |
|
|
Term
| What causes the scratchy heart sounds in pericarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is pericardial effusion? |
|
Definition
| Buildup of fluid in pericardial space b/w visceral and parietal layers |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for pericardial effusion? |
|
Definition
| Pericardiocentesis (drain fluid) |
|
|
Term
| Which form of pericarditis does not cause long-term damage, is 80% viral/idiopathic, and isn't treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic pericarditis is typically _____ to something else. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does chronic pericarditis cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a primary cause of heart failure? What is it called when it causes HF? |
|
Definition
| Chronic pericarditis; restrictive pericarditis |
|
|
Term
| List 3 risk factors for chronic pericarditis. |
|
Definition
1. Long-term tumor (lungs)
2. Tuberculosis
3. Auto-immune |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for chronic pericarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arteries have _____ layers of smooth muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arteries have _____ layers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arteries are always lined with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compared to veins, arteries have... |
|
Definition
1. Smaller lumens
2. More regular shape
3. Higher pressure
4. Higher resistance |
|
|
Term
| Arteries typically belong to what side? |
|
Definition
| Left/systemic circulation |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of an artery? |
|
Definition
| Move (typically oxygen rich) blood away from heart |
|
|
Term
| List arterial receptors and if they're excitatory or inhibitory. |
|
Definition
1. Beta 2 i
2. Alpha 1 e
3. PGF2alpha e
4. Thromboxane e
5. Adenosine i
6. Serotonin e
7. Endothelin e
8. Prostocyclin i
9. Histamine i
10. Bradycinin i
11. Stretch e
12. Vasopressin e
13. Ang II e
14. Thermo hot i
15. Thermo cold e |
|
|
Term
| List 4 arterial disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Hypertension
2. Arteriosclerosis
3. Aneurysm
4. Thrombus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is hypertension an acute crisis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the value for hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Hypertension is only high systolic and diastolic. |
|
Definition
| False; can be high systolic, high diastolic, or both |
|
|
Term
| When is hypertension most dangerous? Why? |
|
Definition
| High diastolic; keeps systemic pressure high when system should be resting |
|
|
Term
| Hypertension is a risk factor for the development of an _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What autoregulators work overtime during hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is hypertension usually diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 6 treatments of hypertension. |
|
Definition
1. Beta 1 blockers
2. Low Na/fat diet
3. Aerobic exercise
4. Diuretic (ACE inhibitor, beta blocker)
5. Ca channel blocker
6. Beta 2 agonist |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 forms of hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Primary hypertension is AKA... |
|
Definition
| ...idiopathic hypertension |
|
|
Term
| Which form of hypertension is most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unlike primary HT, secondary hypertension... |
|
Definition
| ...has a cause or is a side effect of something else |
|
|
Term
| List 13 causes of secondary HT. |
|
Definition
1. Na
2. Obesity
3. Dyslipidemia
4. Age
5. Inactivity
6. Gender
7. Genetics
8. Family history
9. Smoking
10. Race
11. Caffeine/nicotine
12. Diet
13. Endocrine disorders |
|
|
Term
| List 5 endocrine disorders that can cause secondary HT. |
|
Definition
1. Too much vasopressin
2. Too much ADH (perineoplastic syndrome)
3. Too much aldosterone
4. Too much renin
5. Too little Ca (hypoparathyroidism) |
|
|
Term
| What is arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hardening of arteries b/c of atheromas or fatty deposits |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arteriosclerosis results in a loss of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for arteriosclerosis? What manifestations are you treating for? |
|
Definition
1. Beta 2 agonist
2. Low-dose ACE inhibitor
Hypertension |
|
|
Term
| What does a loss of compliance in arteriosclerosis cause? |
|
Definition
| Big fluctuations in pressure in capillaries; decreased capillary function; increased MAP; hypertension |
|
|
Term
| The (fewer/more) the layer of smooth muscle cells, the (less/more) reactive the vessel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Arterioles consist of _____ layers of smooth muscle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do arterial aneurysms occur? |
|
Definition
| Anywhere pressure is high; large arteries |
|
|
Term
| Arterial aneurysms aren't usually seen until _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for arterial aneurysm are the same as they are for _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If caught, what is the treatment for an arterial aneurysm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an arterial thrombus begin with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of arterial thrombus? |
|
Definition
1. Stable
2. Thromboembolus (breaks off and moves) |
|
|
Term
| What are treatments for arterial thrombus? |
|
Definition
1. Anticoagulant
2. Lipid lowering agent |
|
|
Term
| Capillaries have _____ layers of endothelial cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of capillaries. |
|
Definition
1. Low diffusion distance
2. High diffusion rate
3. No smooth muscle
4. No capacity to change diameter
5. High surface area
6. High resistance
7. Slow flow |
|
|
Term
| Capillaries are maximized for _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 bulk flow (fluid) movements in capillaries. Define each. |
|
Definition
1. Ultrafiltration - fluid moves from inside capillary to interstitial space
2. Reabsorption - fluid moves from interstitial space to inside capillary |
|
|
Term
| What happens on the arterial side of a capillary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens on the venous side of a capillary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the net movement across a capillary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 4 capillary forces. What does each do? |
|
Definition
1. Capillary hydrostatic pressure - ultrafiltration
2. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure - reabsorption
3. Capillary oncotic pressure - reabsorption
4. Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure - ultrafiltration |
|
|
Term
| Which of the 4 capillary forces is small? |
|
Definition
| Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 fluid forces/push pressures. |
|
Definition
1. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
2. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 protein forces/pull pressures. |
|
Definition
1. Capillary oncotic pressure
2. Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure |
|
|
Term
| What is the only capillary force that changes across a capillary? |
|
Definition
| Capillary hydrostatic pressure |
|
|
Term
| List a capillary disorder. |
|
Definition
| Lose too much fluid/excess ultrafiltration |
|
|
Term
| Excess ultrafiltration of a capillary is always _____ to blood moving through a capillary. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 types of excess ultrafiltration. |
|
Definition
1. Hypoproteinemia
2. Hypertension |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Too few proteins inside capillary/decreased capillary oncotic pressure |
|
|
Term
| What is the most abundant plasma protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypoproteinemia usually causes _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cannnot keep up in hypoproteinemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List causes of hypoproteinemia. |
|
Definition
1. Liver disorders
2. Immune complex glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
| List symptoms of hypoproteinemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In terms of capillary disorders, what is hypertension? |
|
Definition
| Increased hydrostatic pressure |
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of veins. |
|
Definition
1. Big lumen
2. Irregularly shaped lumen
3. Thinner walls
4. Less smooth muscle
5. One-way valves
6. High capacitance
7. Lower pressure circuit |
|
|
Term
| What does capacitance mean w/ regards to veins? |
|
Definition
| Store a lot of blood in veins b/c slow moving |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Varicose veins
2. Chronic venous insufficiency
3. Superior vena cava syndrome
4. Venous thrombus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Weakened venous valves that leads to weakened venous walls and pooling blood |
|
|
Term
| List causes/risk factors of varicose veins. |
|
Definition
1. Standing long time
2. Age
3. Gender
4. Family history
5. Obesity
6. Pregnancy
7. Phlebitis
8. Leg injury
9. Poor circulation |
|
|
Term
| List symptoms of varicose veins. |
|
Definition
1. Cosmetic
2. Aching, itching
3. Thrombophlebitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Superficial vein inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What is thrombophlebitis? |
|
Definition
| Vein inflammation from blood clot |
|
|
Term
| List treatments of varicose veins. |
|
Definition
1. Compression hose
2. Leg elevation
3. Exercise
4. Laser therapy
5. Sclerotherapy
6. Surgery/stripping |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Liquid injection scars veins |
|
|
Term
| What is chronic venous insufficiency? |
|
Definition
| Veins can't pump enough blood back to heart b/c of bad valves |
|
|
Term
| List causes of chronic venous insufficiency. |
|
Definition
1. DVT (deep vein thrombosis)
2. Phlebitis
3. Genetic
4. Obesity |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of chronic venous insufficiency. |
|
Definition
1. Varicose veins
2. Edema
3. Hyperpigmentation of legs
4. Itching
5. Aching
6. Leg ulcers |
|
|
Term
| List treatments for chronic venous insufficiency. |
|
Definition
1. Ted hose
2. Sclerotherapy
3. Stripping
4. Valve repair
5. Avoid long standing/sitting
6. Exercise |
|
|
Term
| What's superior vena cava syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Gradual obstruction of SVC which causes decreased venous return above diaphragm and ends in death |
|
|
Term
| List causes of SVC syndrome. |
|
Definition
1. Lung cancer
2. Obesity
3. Thrombosis
4. TB |
|
|
Term
| List symptoms of SVC syndrome. |
|
Definition
1. Dyspnea
2. Trunk/upper extremity swelling
3. Blue tinge
4. Bulging jugular veins and eyes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List treatments for SVC syndrome. |
|
Definition
1. Surgery
2. Radiation
3. Glucocorticoids, diuretics
4. Wt. loss |
|
|
Term
| What's a venous thrombus? |
|
Definition
| Accumulation of clotting factors/platelets near venous valve |
|
|
Term
| What disorder has causes based on the Triad of Virchow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Triad of Virchow. |
|
Definition
1. Venous stasis
2. Venous endothelial damage
3. Hypercoagulable state |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of venous thrombus. |
|
Definition
1. Pain
2. Redness
3. Extremity edema
4. Unilateral |
|
|
Term
| Venous thrombus (is/is not) usually accompanied w/ clinical symptoms b/c vein is (deep/superficial). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List treatments for venous thrombus. |
|
Definition
1. Ambulation
2. Pneumatics (air)
3. Prophylactic anticoagulants
4. Thrombolytic therapy |
|
|
Term
| The blood mainly functions as a _____ _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 6 components of blood. |
|
Definition
1. Water
2. Proteins
3. Cells
4. Ions
5. Nutrients
6. Waste |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Albumin
2. Ig
3. Clotting factors
4. Anti-clotting factors
5. Transport proteins |
|
|
Term
| List 2 functions of albumin. |
|
Definition
1. Create oncontic pressure
2. Transportation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Leukocytes
2. Erythrocytes
3. Platelets |
|
|
Term
| What is the biggest plasma cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the size of erythrocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which plasma cell's differentiation is regulated by EPO? TPO? |
|
Definition
EPO-erythrocytes
TPO-platelets |
|
|
Term
| What is the smallest plasma cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which plasma cells are anucleate and lack organelles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the lifespan of a erythrocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are erythrocytes born? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Erythrocytes are full of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do erythrocytes die? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What plasma cells stay inside pipes? |
|
Definition
| Erythrocytes and platelets |
|
|
Term
| Erythrocytes transport _____ and some _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cell fragments of megakaryocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-circulating cells in bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of EPO is made in the liver and targets bone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of EPO is in the liver as leftover from fetal life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All TPO is made by the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelets are (granular/agranular). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 4 components of platelet granules. |
|
Definition
1. Serotonin-vasoconstricts
2. ThromboxaneA2-vasoconstricts
3. ADP-short term clotting factor
4. Thromboplastin-long term clotting factor |
|
|
Term
| List for plasma ions. Which is most important/abundant*? |
|
Definition
1. Sodium*
2. Calcium
3. Chloride
4. Potassium |
|
|
Term
| List for plasma ions. Which is most important/abundant*? |
|
Definition
1. Sodium*
2. Calcium
3. Chloride
4. Potassium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Glucose
2. Free fatty acids
3. AAs |
|
|
Term
| What 2 things determine the level of plasma nutrients? |
|
Definition
1. Mobilizing hormones
2. Storage hormones |
|
|
Term
| List 3 nutrient mobilizing hormones. |
|
Definition
1. Glucagon
2. Cortisol
3. Epi/norepi |
|
|
Term
| List 3 nutrient storage hormones. |
|
Definition
1. Insulin
2. Testosterone
3. Growth hormone |
|
|
Term
| What is plasma waste a side effect of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 things associated with blood disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Hematocrit
2. Hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| % of total blood that's packed w/ RBC or RBCs per total volume |
|
|
Term
| List the layers of hematocrit, starting from the bottom. |
|
Definition
1. RBCs
2. Buffy coat
3. Plasma |
|
|
Term
| List 2 things that makeup the buffy coat. |
|
Definition
1. Leukocytes
2. Platelets |
|
|
Term
| List 8 things that can change hematocrit. Do they increase or decrease it? |
|
Definition
1. Elevation i
2. Acute exercise i
3. Chronic exercise i
4. Pregnancy i
5. Dehydration i
6. Plasma donation i
7. hemorrhage d
8. Post-surgical bleeding d |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are blood disorders based on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Too many RBCs or too much hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
| Polycythemia makes blood too (thin/thick) and hematocrit too (low/high). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 risk factors of Polycythemia. |
|
Definition
1. EPO secreting tumor
2. Bone marrow tumor |
|
|
Term
| List 2 risks associated with polychythemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Too few RBCs or not enough hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Pernicious anemia
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Hemolytic anemia
4. Sickle cell
5. Microcytic
6. Macrocytic |
|
|
Term
| This blood disorder causes auto-immune destruction of intrinsic factor cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In pernicious anemia, you can't make RBCs and _____ falls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anemia is the most common nutritional deficiency involving iron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anemia is auto-immune and targets own RBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does hemolytic anemia cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This anemia is more common in African Americans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to RBCs in sickle cell anemia? |
|
Definition
| RBCs born completely normal->go to lungs->get O2->go to tissue->unload O2->confirmational change makes them sickle |
|
|
Term
| In this anemia, cells get stuck in capillaries and can cause clots. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of microcytic/macrocytic anemia. |
|
Definition
1. RBCs are too small/big
2. Dysfunctional
3. Hematocrit doesn't change
4. Cell # normal |
|
|
