Term
| Cancer is clinically defined as... |
|
Definition
| ...a disorder of cell differentiation and growth. |
|
|
Term
| Cancer results in _____ (new growth) and leads to _____ (new growths). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neoplasms. You typically think of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A tumor has _____ (normal/abnormal) cells by both _____ and _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Cancers bypass checkpoints, meaning theres too little growth and too much regulation. |
|
Definition
| False; too much growth and not enough regulation |
|
|
Term
| Describe 2 characteristics of cancer growth. |
|
Definition
1. Uncoordinated
2. Lacks normal regulatory controls over cell growth and division |
|
|
Term
| Cancer is associated with the altered expression of _____ _____, which do what? |
|
Definition
| Cellular genes; regulate proliferation and differentiation |
|
|
Term
| This indicates site of origin, has a specific marker that's unique to where it came from, and knowledge of it can help with treatment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Can be carried by any body fluid including blood and lymph. |
|
|
Term
| Generally speaking, what kind of tissue does cancer arise from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 main tissues form which cancer arises? |
|
Definition
1. Epithelial tissue
2. Mesynchymal tissue
3. Immune cells |
|
|
Term
| Cancers that arise in epithelial tissue are called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sarcomas arise in _____ tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All blood cells come from _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 sub-categories of mesenchyme. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which blood cell(s) originate from lymphoid mesenchyme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which blood cell(s) originate from myeloid mesenchyme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mesenchymal tissue includes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mesenchymal tissue does not include |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 3 categories of immune cell cancer. |
|
Definition
1. Leukemia
2. Lymphoma
3. Myeloma |
|
|
Term
| Leukemia involves _____ _____ _____ and uaually targets _____. |
|
Definition
| Circulating blood cells; leukocytes |
|
|
Term
| Lymphoma involves _____ tumors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myeloma involves _____ _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the 3 immune cell cancers can be acute or chronic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Regarding normal cell division, the body lacks mechanisms to ensure the correctness of the process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What theory explains cancerous cell division. Elaborate. |
|
Definition
| Multi-hit theory; requires multiple gene mutations involved in the regulation of cell growth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The appearance of a tumor (differs form/is the same as) that of the surrounding normal cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What body reaction typically occurs with neoplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tumors can be _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor typically ends in -carcinoma or -sarcoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor is encapsulated and rarely metastasizes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor is localized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor is limited in size? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor more closely resembles the tissue of origin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor retains "normal" cell function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor grows slowly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor has little vasculature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor rarely has necrotic areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor rarely kills the host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor is not angeogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability to make its own blood supply. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Areas of dead tissue due to fast growth and resulting lack of blood supply. |
|
|
Term
| What is a specific example of a malignant tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor typically ends in -oma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for a benign tumor of glandular origin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tumor is not encapsulated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of tumor can invade local tissue and metastasize? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of tumor has the potential to kill the host if left untreated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of tumor grows rapidly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of tumor has necrotic areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of tumor doesn't function like the normal surrounding tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which kind of tumor is angeogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Generally speaking, where does cancer grow? |
|
Definition
| Anywhere there are rapidly dividing cells |
|
|
Term
| List 4 examples of prime cancer growth locations. |
|
Definition
1. Bone marrow
2. Bladder
3. Breast
4. Skin |
|
|
Term
| Describe aspects of antisocial cancer cell behavior. |
|
Definition
| Proliferation despite lack of growth hormone; achieve unlimited replication by escaping "die" signals; lose features of differentiation; contribute poorly to surrounding tissue function; genetically unstable so they accumulate mutations at a higher rate; invade and overrun; migrate and colonize |
|
|
Term
| List 2 gene classes specifically realted to cancer/neoplasms. |
|
Definition
1. Proto-oncogenes
2. Tumor suppressor genes |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of proto-oncogenes? |
|
Definition
| Regulate cell division; encode growth factors and receptors; signal transduction and transcription |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of tumor suppressor genes? |
|
Definition
| Encode proteins that prevent unwanted proliferation |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 examples of tumor suppressor genes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In response to tumor damage |
|
|
Term
| The loss of what gene occurs in half of all cancer patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients with an inherited defect of this gene have an 85% risk of developing breast cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carcinogens cause mutations in an organisms _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mutation do carcinogens cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding carcinogens, malignant cell population expands if a mutation changes what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do mutated cell populations do to tissues and organs. |
|
Definition
| They disrupt the physiology and function |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 steps of carcinogenesis. |
|
Definition
1. Initiation
2. Promotion
3. Progression |
|
|
Term
| Define carcinogenesis initiation. |
|
Definition
| Genetic mutations activate proto-oncogenes and inactivate tumor suppressor genes. |
|
|
Term
| Define carcinogenesis promotion. |
|
Definition
| Mutant cell proliferation (not check-pointing) |
|
|
Term
| Define carcinogenesis progression. |
|
Definition
| Exhibition of malignant behavior |
|
|
Term
| What is the destination and goal of a metastasis? |
|
Definition
| Anywhere; make an environment in which they can proliferate |
|
|
Term
| Describe the level of difficulty involving metastasis. |
|
Definition
| Even for a malignant tumor, it's difficult and involves many failures b/c they must first gain access to body fluid |
|
|
Term
| In metastasis, what helps identify the tissue of origin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can metastasis be used to predict tumor behavior? |
|
Definition
| Yes b/c it's not typically random |
|
|
Term
| Tumors need a new blood supply if _____ in diameter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Angeogenesis occurs in (early/late) stage tumors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Angeogeneis cannot lead to rapid growth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What growth factor is typically involved in angeogenesis? Why? |
|
Definition
| VEGF; to counter hypoxia, low oxygen flow, and other signs of significant metabolic rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Makes more blood vessles and smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| What does VEGF stand for? |
|
Definition
| Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor |
|
|
Term
| What is a great target for limiting tumor growth and metastasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the paradox concernign angeogenesis. |
|
Definition
| Can't get cancer patients to stop angeogenesis; can't get diabetics to start |
|
|
Term
| Give 2 reasons for tumor grading and staging. |
|
Definition
1. Guide therapy
2. Predict tumor behavior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Histological characterization to determine new growth and structural tumor characteristics (what it looks like) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Description of location and patter of spread of a tumor |
|
|
Term
| (Grading/Staging) is used most often clinically. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stating uses international _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding staging, what does TNM stand for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Elaborate on each aspect of international TNM. |
|
Definition
Tumor - look, location
Node - lymph node involvement
Metastasis - other locations |
|
|
Term
| T/F Tumor staging is consistent between organ systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 aspects that tumor staging focuses on. |
|
Definition
1. Location
2. Size
3. Pattern of spread |
|
|
Term
| What is the acronym describing adult cancer warning signs (ACSs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the C in CAUTION stand for? |
|
Definition
| Change in bowel/bladder habits |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Unusual bleeding/discharge |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Thickening/lump in breast or elswhere; swollen limb |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Indigestion/difficulty swallowing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Obvious change in wart/mole/freckle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the final major ACS that isn't part of the CAUTION acronym. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the acronym used to list the cancer warning signs for children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the C in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
| Continued, unexplained weight loss |
|
|
Term
| What's the H in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the I in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
| Increased swelling or persistent pain in bones/joints |
|
|
Term
| What's the L in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
| Lumpj/mass in abdomen/neck/elsewhere |
|
|
Term
| What's the D in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
| Development of whitish appearance in pupils |
|
|
Term
| What's the R in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
| Recurrent fever independent of infection |
|
|
Term
| What's the E in CHILDREN? |
|
Definition
| Excessive bleeding/bruising |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Noticeable paleness/prolonged fatigue |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 very general effects of cancer. |
|
Definition
1. Widely vaired depending on location and migration
2. Warning signs published to increase treatment seeking
3. Improvements in early evaluation and prevention |
|
|
Term
| List 8 general symptoms/side effects of cancer/treatment. |
|
Definition
1. Pain
2. Cachexia
3. Bone marrow suppression
4. Immunodeficiency
5. Nausea
6. Hair loss
7. Mucosal sloughing
8. Paraneoplastic syndromes |
|
|
Term
| What 3 things cause pain in cancer patients? |
|
Definition
1. Metastasis
2. Tissue invasion/damage
3. Treatment |
|
|
Term
| T/F Cancer related pain is usually preventable or well-maintained at least until the end. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cachexia is typically associated with _____ _____ and sometimes with _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cachexia results from what 4 things? |
|
Definition
1. Decreased appetite
2. Increased metabolic rate
3. Food competition
4. Treatment |
|
|
Term
| Cachexia results in what 3 things? |
|
Definition
1. Overall wt. loss
2. General weakness/fatigue
3. Energy mobilization |
|
|
Term
| Cachexia is partially a result of incrased metabolic rate. Why does metabolic rate occur? |
|
Definition
| Cells are rapidly dividing |
|
|
Term
| Bone marrow suppression results in what 3 things? |
|
Definition
1. Anemia
2. Leukopenia
3. Thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| Why does bone marrow suppression-related anemia occur? |
|
Definition
| Becuase RBC production is decreased and there's chronic and acute bleeding |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define thrombocyteopenia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This result of bone marrow suppression is a predisposition to hemorrhages/clotting disorders. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cancer-related immunodefiency generally results from _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define paraneoplastic syndrome. |
|
Definition
| When a tumor is producing an inappropriate hormone that cannot be shut off b/c that specific location doesn't have a negative feedback mechanism for the inappropriate hormone |
|
|
Term
| List 2 examples of paraneoplastic syndrome. |
|
Definition
1. Cushing's hyponatremia
2. Hypercalcemia |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 main therapy options for cancer. |
|
Definition
1. Surgery
2. Radiation
3. Chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
| T/F Cancer survival rate has not changed much. |
|
Definition
| False; the average 5 year survival rate is >60% |
|
|
Term
| Which form of cancer therapy is best for localized, solid, accessible tumors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of cancer therapy causes minimal damage to other cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of cancer therapy is difficult in densly vascular/innervated areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Surgery is never used in combination with other forms of cancery therapy. |
|
Definition
| False; often used in combination |
|
|
Term
| List 4 risks of surgical cancer therapy. |
|
Definition
1. Disfigurement
2. Pain
3. Infection
4. Blood loss |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| All tumor cells are different. |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of radiation cancer therapy? |
|
Definition
| To cause nuclear DNA damage in rapidly dividing cells that have little time to repair |
|
|
Term
| What is the main problem with radiation cancer therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is radiation cancer therapy best? |
|
Definition
| For tumors in vital, inaccessible places; for "escaped" tumors |
|
|
Term
| Cancer radiation therapy can be difficult b/c of tumor cell _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cancer therapy is used for localized tumors or to decrease the tumor size in combination with surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of cancer radiation therapy? |
|
Definition
| Depends on the specific tissue |
|
|
Term
| Which form of cancer therapy is both major and systemic, having no option for local treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Chemotherapy may be primary or used in combination w/ another mode of therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemotherapy is good at... |
|
Definition
| ...killing rapidly dividing cells. |
|
|
Term
| List 3 mechanisms of chemotherapy. |
|
Definition
1. Disruption of enzyme production
2. Inhibition of DNA/RNA/protein synthesis
3. Prevention of mitosis |
|
|
Term
| List 2 things that can improve a cancer prognosis. |
|
Definition
1. Early detection
2. Localized tumor site |
|
|
Term
| What kind of tumor has a higher treatment success rate? Give an example. |
|
Definition
| Specific of patterned metastasis; Hodgkin's |
|
|
Term
| List 4 minor cancer therapies. |
|
Definition
1. Hormone blockers
2. Immunotherapy
3. Gene therapy
4. Stem cell trnasplantation |
|
|
Term
| What might be the way of the future for cancer therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is stem cell transplantation most often implicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 main parts of the nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What constitutes the CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The CNS includes cell bodies that (can/cannot) divide and repair. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F The CNS is regenerative. |
|
Definition
| False; is non-regenerative |
|
|
Term
| List a ver important general characteristic of the CNS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The PNS is further split into what two main categories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the PNS involves sensory imput? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the PNS invovles receptor-based information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The afferent PNS is further split into what 2 categories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List some general afferent PNS characteristics. |
|
Definition
| Mechanical (pressure), pain, temperature, touch |
|
|
Term
| List some special afferent PNS characteristics. |
|
Definition
| Any special senses like taste and smell |
|
|
Term
| Which part of the PNS involves motor output? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The efferent PNS is further split into what 2 categories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The somatic efferent PNS includes _____ structures, which includes what specifically? |
|
Definition
| Voluntary; skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| What aspect of the efferent PNS has motor units, both large and small? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This part of the PNS has cholinergic neurons and cholinergic (nicotinic) receptors only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the PNS includes Na being let into the cell? What kind of cell? |
|
Definition
| Somatic efferent; skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| The somatic efferent PNS is (excitatory/inhibitory/both). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is it possible to inhibit a somatic efferent PNS signal? If so, how? |
|
Definition
| Yes, must happen centrally (before it ever gets to the PNS) |
|
|
Term
| What 2 things are capable of inhibiting a somatic efferent PNS signal. Describe a major characteristic of both. |
|
Definition
1. GABA
2. Glycine
Always inhibitory |
|
|
Term
| In the somatice efferent PNS, muscle are either _____ or _____ _____. |
|
Definition
| Contracting; resisting contraction |
|
|
Term
| A somatic motor neuron can innervate _____ skeletal muscle cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Somatic efferent PNS pathways are _____-neuron pathways. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The autonomic efferent PNS is (voluntary/involuntary). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The autonomic efferent PNS innervates _____, which includes what 3 things? |
|
Definition
Viscera
1. Smooth muscle
2. Cardiac muscle
3. Glands |
|
|
Term
| The autonomic efferent PNS is broken down into what 2 system? |
|
Definition
1. Sympathetic
2. Parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
| What 2 parts of the nervous system typically have similar targets? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic and parasympathetic of the autonomic efferent PNS |
|
|
Term
| The autonomic efferent PNS has _____-neuron pathways. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The term viscosity refers to a charachteristic of which efferent PNS system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define viscosity in terms of the ANS (autonomic nervous system). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The sympathetic autonomic efferent PNS responses are typically dexcribed as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a very important aspect of the sympathetic responses? Why? |
|
Definition
| They can only do a single thing in a single place, so you never find more than one type of adrenergic receptor in a single location; neurotransmitters don't have brains |
|
|
Term
| What does the parasympathetic autonomic efferent PNS do? |
|
Definition
| Housekeeping or rest and digest |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 general jobs of the nervous system. |
|
Definition
1. Input
2. Integration
3. Output |
|
|
Term
| Which of the 3 general nervous system functions involves the PNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of e 3 general nervous system functions involves the CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PNS input is concerned with what? |
|
Definition
| Sensory receptor information |
|
|
Term
| What is a key word related to PNS output? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lis the 2 rules of dual autonomic innervation. |
|
Definition
1. Involuntary tissues get both sympathetic and parasympathetic messages
2. Sympathetic and parasympathetic messages are in opposition |
|
|
Term
| List 6 exceptions to the rules of dual autonomic innervation. |
|
Definition
1. Cardiac contractility manifests as stroke volume by only the sympathetic beta 1 adrenergic receptors
2. Adrenal medulla uses a modified motor neuron that's only activated by nicotine and Ach
3. Pupils - papillary constricted are muscarinic and papillary radial are alpha 1 adrenergic
4. Blood vessels are sympathetic only
5. Salivary glands - excitatory only; parasympathetic makes thin and sympathetic makes thick
6. Sweat glands are sympathetic only, but have muscarinic receptor |
|
|
Term
| What is the exception to the blood vessel exception to the rules of autonomic innervation? |
|
Definition
| BV in genitalia arouse by parasympathetic means |
|
|
Term
| Peripheral receptors of the nervous system can be based on what 2 things? |
|
Definition
1. Mechanisms
2. Neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
| List the 2 mechanisms upon which peripheral receptors are based. |
|
Definition
1. Ionotropic
2. Metabotropic |
|
|
Term
| T/F Almost all peripheral nerves carry afferent and efferent neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of ionitropic peripheral receptors. |
|
Definition
1. Direct
2. End of somatic motor pathway
3. Physically linked to an ion channel
4. Peripherally always excitatory
5. Rare |
|
|
Term
| Are ionotropic receptors always excitatory? |
|
Definition
| Peripherally yes; centrally no |
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of metabotropic peripheral receptors. |
|
Definition
1. Indirect
2. Require a 2nd messenger system
3. Physically linked to a 2nd messenger system
4. Common
5. Inhibitory and excitatory |
|
|
Term
| Are metabotropic receptors always both inhibitory and excitatory? |
|
Definition
| Yes, both peripherally and centrally |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a metabotropic peripheral receptor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 peripheral receptor neurotransmitter classifications. |
|
Definition
1. Cholinergic
2. Adrenergic |
|
|
Term
| Ach and Ach-like things turn on these peripheral NT receptors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of cholinergic peripheral receptors. |
|
Definition
1. Nicotinic
2. Muscarinic |
|
|
Term
| Which cholinergic peripheral receptor is ionotropic? Metabotropic? |
|
Definition
| Nicotinic is ionotropic; muscarinic is metabotropic |
|
|
Term
| Where are nicotinic cholinergic peripheral receptors located? |
|
Definition
| Skeletal muscle motor end plate and autonomic ganglia (where pre and postganglionic neurons synapse) |
|
|
Term
| What binds most strongly to nicotinic receptors? Most commonly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Muscarinic cholinergic peripheral receptors have _____ targets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What binds most strongly to muscarinic receptors? Most commonly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an exception to the muscarinic cholinergic peripheral receptor classification. |
|
Definition
| Sweat glands have sympathetic targets, but are still muscarinic |
|
|
Term
| T/F Sympathetic activity can cause both dilationa and constriction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic peripheral receptors are all (ionotropic/metabotropic). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although they have preferences, adrenergic peripheral receptors will typically bind to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic peripheral receptors are only _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F All sizes of blood vessels and airways change in size. |
|
Definition
| False; large blood vessels and airways don't really change in size |
|
|
Term
| List the 4 types of adrenergic peripheral receptors. |
|
Definition
1. Alpha 1
2. Alpha 2
3. Beta 1
4. Beta 2 |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of an alpha 1 adrenergic peripheral receptor. |
|
Definition
1. Excitatory
2. Excludes heart
3. Prefers norepi |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of an alpha 2 adrenergic peripheral receptor. |
|
Definition
1. Inhibitory
2. Excludes blood vessels and airways
3. Prefers norepi |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of a beta 1 adrenergic peripheral receptor. |
|
Definition
1. Excitatory
2. Heart
3. Equal affinity to epi and norepi |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of a beta 2 adrenergic peripheral receptor. |
|
Definition
1. Inhibitory
2. Blood vessels and airways
3. Prefers epi |
|
|
Term
| Glial cells live _____ or _____, but not _____. |
|
Definition
| Centrally; peripherally; both |
|
|
Term
| Which major divison of the nervous system has regenerative abilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the PNS specific glial cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of Schwann cells. |
|
Definition
| Produce myelin, help in regeneration and re-growth of neurons |
|
|
Term
| How many axons can a Schwann cell myelinate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dexcribe the thickness of myelin produced by a Schwann cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of satellite cells? |
|
Definition
| Help in re-growth and repair, make growth factors |
|
|
Term
| List characteristics of satellite cells. |
|
Definition
1. Live in bare areas of neuronal cell membrane
2. Tropic to neurons |
|
|
Term
| List 2 "bare" areas on a neuronal cell membrane. |
|
Definition
1. Cell body
2. Nodes of Ranvier |
|
|
Term
| T/F The CNS has regenerative capabilities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 4 CNS specific glial cells. |
|
Definition
1. Microglial
2. Oligodendrocytes
3. Ependymal
4. Astrocytes |
|
|
Term
| A microglial cell is an example of what? |
|
Definition
| A tissue specific macrophage |
|
|
Term
| What is the smallest glial cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the physical attributes of a microglial cell. |
|
Definition
| Elongated cell body, disk-shaped nucleus, many processes |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of microglial processes? What is it not? |
|
Definition
| Act as feeler and receptors; unlike dendrites, wich collect information |
|
|
Term
| What do microglial cells specifically tell us about the CNS? |
|
Definition
| It has some protection agains infection |
|
|
Term
| Oligodendrocytes are considered what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another vital function of oligodendrocytes? |
|
Definition
| Prevent adult neuronal regeneration and re-growth |
|
|
Term
| How many axons do oligodendrocytes myelinate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the thickness of the myelin produced by oligodendrocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of ependymal cells? |
|
Definition
| Make, secrete, and reabsorb CSF |
|
|
Term
| Where are ependymal cells found in the CNS? |
|
Definition
| In linings of fluid-filled spaces in the cranium (ventricles) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the CNS glial cells is most abundant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Astrocytes have many functions, list them. |
|
Definition
1. Form blood-brain barrier
2. Structural scaffolding
3. Get rid of waste
4. Metabolic and nutritional support
5. Regulate intra/extracellular ion concentrations |
|
|
Term
| What is the shape of an astrocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 2 types of astrocytes. |
|
Definition
1. Fibrous
2. Protoplasmic |
|
|
Term
| Where are fibrous astrocytes located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides fibrous astrocytes, what else resides in white matter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 things that make up the blood-brain barrier. |
|
Definition
1. Blood vessels
2. Single layer of endothelial cells
3. Astrocytes |
|
|
Term
| Where are protoplasmic astrocytes located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides protoplasmic astrocytes, what else resides in grey matter? |
|
Definition
| Cell bodies and unmyelinated axons |
|
|
Term
| What is the most abundant form of brain cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 6 parts of the brain that we've covering. |
|
Definition
1. Cerebral cortex
2. Cerebellum
3. Basal nuclei
4. Thalamus
5. Hypothalamus
6. Brainstem |
|
|
Term
| What part of the brain is responsible for most functions in general? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| More specifically, list the functions of the cerebral cortex. |
|
Definition
1. Learning
2. Language
3. Memory
4. Motor output
5. Personality
6. Sensory processing |
|
|
Term
| What part of the cerebral cortex is responsible for motor output? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the functions of the cerebellum. |
|
Definition
1. Fine motor control
2. Balance
3. Coordination
4. Cerebral cortex filter |
|
|
Term
| Where are basal nuclei located? |
|
Definition
| Embedded in the white matter in the grey matter of the hemispheres |
|
|
Term
| What region of the brain is affected in Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of basal nuclei? |
|
Definition
| Inhibitory filter of useless movements from hemispheres |
|
|
Term
| What NT is specific to the basal nuclei? Is it inhibitory or excitatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is dopamine always inhibitory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Relay station or sorter of incoming information |
|
|
Term
| What does the thalamus do for us? |
|
Definition
| Crude awareness of sensation |
|
|
Term
| What part of the brain acts as a physical link b/w the nervous and endocrine systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides being a physical link b/w nervous and endocrine systems, what other functions does the hypothalamus have? |
|
Definition
1. Makes oxytocin and ADH
2. Regulates fluid balance
3. Regulates temperature
4. Regulates the ANS |
|
|
Term
| ADH is also known as _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Another name for the hypothalamus is the _____ _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the origin for most cranial nerves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the brainstem? |
|
Definition
| Controls vitals like respiratory and cardiovascular |
|
|
Term
| List the 4 main categories of brian disorders. |
|
Definition
1. Abnormal autoregulation
2. Increases in intercranial pressure
3. NT disorders
4. Ischemia/reperfusion injuries |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An intrinsic regulatory mechanism that constantly maintains blood flow |
|
|
Term
| Another word for blood flow is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides in the brain, where else does perfusion autoregulation occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 forms of autoregulation. |
|
Definition
1. Myogenic
2. Endothelial |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of myogenic autoregulation. |
|
Definition
1. Local
2. Intrinsic to cerebral blood vessels
3. Constrict when stretched
4. Protective response to maintain constant perfusion |
|
|
Term
| List the characteristics of endothelial autoregulation. |
|
Definition
1. Local
2. Single layer of cells that line all blood vessels
3. Independent of happenings elsewhere
4. Product on-site vasodilators/vasoconstrictors |
|
|
Term
| T/F Some of the on-site vasodilators/vasoconstrictors produced by endothelial autoregulation are considered hormones. |
|
Definition
| False; none are b/c they're not put directly into bloodstream |
|
|
Term
| Which of the on-site vasodilators/vasoconstricors of enothelial autoregulation does not require receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 3 on-site vasodilators produced by endothelial autoregulation. |
|
Definition
1. Adenosine
2. Nitric oxide
3. Prostacyclin |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 on-site vasoconstrictors produced by endothelial autoregulation. |
|
Definition
1. Endothelin
2. Thromboxane
3. PGF 2 alpha |
|
|
Term
| Is it common for autoregulation to fail? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If autoregulation fails on the side of being too much, what results? |
|
Definition
| Increased ICP; symptoms depend on location of blood accumulation |
|
|
Term
| If autoregulation fails on the side of being too little, what results? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define intercranial pressure (ICP). |
|
Definition
| Pressure on the cranium by everything inside |
|
|
Term
| What 3 things does ICP depend on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increases in ICP result in (typical/differing) manifestations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 things that can increse cerebral tissue volume. |
|
Definition
1. Swelling
2. Tumor
3. Any CNS infection |
|
|
Term
| Swelling that increases cranial tissue volume results from what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define secondary brain injury. |
|
Definition
| Swelling that occurs as a result of a traumatic primary brain injury |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for swelling that increases cranial tissue volume? |
|
Definition
| Medically induced coma, anti-inflammatory meds |
|
|
Term
| A tumor that increases cranial tissue volume is not ______ based. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 examples of tumors that increase cranial tissue volume. |
|
Definition
1. Oligodendroma
2. Astrocytoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common of all adult brain cancers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for tumors that increase cranial tissue volume? |
|
Definition
| Local radiation, surgery, chemo |
|
|
Term
| List 2 examples of CNS infections that increase cranial tissue volume. |
|
Definition
1. Meningitis
2. Encephalitis |
|
|
Term
| What does meningitis affect? |
|
Definition
| 1+ dural meninges (dura, arachnoid, pia) |
|
|
Term
| Meningitis can be _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although this version is easier to treat, which type of meningitis wreaks more havock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of meningitis is less contagious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for viral meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Encephalitis can be _____, _____, or _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which forms of encephalitis are easier to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of encephalitis is more difficult to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another word for an increase in CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 forms of hydrocephaly. |
|
Definition
1. Communicating
2. Non-communicating
3. Normal pressure |
|
|
Term
| Which type of hydrocephaly is more common in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs in communicating hydrocephaly? |
|
Definition
| Inability to maintain reabsorption of CSF (making more than we can reabsorb) |
|
|
Term
| Does communicating hydrocephaly occur because there's something wrong with the ependymal cells? |
|
Definition
| No, they're perfectly normal |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 forms of hydrocephaly cause an increase in ICP? |
|
Definition
| Communicating and non-communicating |
|
|
Term
| Which form of hydrocephaly is more common in kids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs in non-communicating hydrocephaly? |
|
Definition
| Obstruction in ventricular system |
|
|
Term
| The cerebral ventricular system is where _____ cells are located. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens in normal pressure hydrocephaly? |
|
Definition
| CSF increases but ICP stays normal |
|
|
Term
| What must normal pressure hydrocephaly suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give 3 examples of instances where cerebral tissue decreases in normal pressure hydrocephaly. |
|
Definition
1. Elderly
2. Tissue removal
3. Loss of neuronal volume (Alzheimer's, stroke) |
|
|
Term
| What is cerebral blood volume maintained by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of increased cerebral blood volume depend on _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 things that increase cerebral blood volume. |
|
Definition
1. Aneurysm
2. Hemorhage
3. Hematoma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Weak spot in vessel wall that bulges |
|
|
Term
| Aneurisms are almost always (veinous/arterial). Why? |
|
Definition
| Arterial; higher pressure |
|
|
Term
| Most aneurysms are (symptomatic/asymptomatic). Thus people are (aware/unaware) of the problem before rupture. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In was case would an aneurysm cause symptoms? |
|
Definition
| If it's pushing on something |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for an aneurism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What vessels does fluid typically leak from into interstitial space in a hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the 3 things that increase cranial blood volume, which are named based on location? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| Turning-up clotting cascade, patch |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bruise; very acute capillary damage that causes fluid accumulation into interstitial space that slows and stops |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a hematoma? |
|
Definition
| Manage symptoms and monitor for worsening |
|
|
Term
| (Peripherally/centrally) dopamine increases cardiac contractility. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Something that changes ability to make and release NTs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Parkinson's
2. Alzheimer's
3. Huntington's |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Commonly occurring degenerative disorder of basal ganglia involvling failure of dopaminergic neuron pathways |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the nervous system does Parkinson's affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Parkinson's essentially results from a loss of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of Parkinson's. |
|
Definition
| Goofy gait, tremor at rest, stooped posture, bilateral, muscle stiffness |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments of Parkinson's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Degenerative disorder that affects brain and causes dimentia, especially late in life |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of dimentia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 major structual changes can be seen in the autopsy of an Alzheimer's victim? |
|
Definition
1. Beta amyloid plaques
2. Neurofibrillary tangles |
|
|
Term
| What are beta amyloid plaques? |
|
Definition
| In Alzheimer's, protein plaques that inhibit exchange |
|
|
Term
| What are neurofibrillary tanges made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alzheimer's involves the death of _____ neurons and the loss of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List some manifestations of Alzheimer's. |
|
Definition
| Depression, anger, anxiety, agitation, repetitive behavior, cognitive impairment, normal pressure hydrocephaly |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for Alzheimer's? |
|
Definition
| Cholinesterase inhibitor, memory exercises, environmental modifications |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Severe degeneration of basal ganglia in cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Huntington's is typically passed from _____ to _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the nervous system does Huntington's affect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Huntington's affects certian parts of the body. |
|
Definition
| False; affects entire body |
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathogenesis of Huntington's. |
|
Definition
| Loss of GABAergic neurons; changes how glutamine fits into protein structure |
|
|
Term
| GABAergic neurons have an affect on what? |
|
Definition
| Dopamine pathways in the ganglia |
|
|
Term
| List the manifestations of Huntington's. |
|
Definition
| Loss of control of voluntary movement (bizarre), progressive dysfunction of thought, memory loss, mood change, irritability |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for Huntington's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Return of blood supply after ischemia |
|
|
Term
| The symptoms of stroke are almost entirely dependent on _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 types of ischemia/reperfusion injuries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Almost all strokes are _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define atheroma formation. |
|
Definition
| Fatty clot on vessel wall |
|
|
Term
| _____ cells line blood vessels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 4 functions of endothelial cells. |
|
Definition
1. Make vasoactive factors
2. Prevent platelet and leukocyte adhesion
3. Prevent inflammation/immune response
4. Control vascular remodeling |
|
|
Term
| What growth factor is involved in the endothelial function of controlling vascular remodeling? |
|
Definition
| VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) |
|
|
Term
| By what means does smooth muscle grow? |
|
Definition
| Hyperplasia (make and replace) |
|
|
Term
| List the 9 steps in atheroma formation. |
|
Definition
1. Endothelial damage
2. Lipoprotein adhesion
3. Macrophage infiltration
4. Macrophages phagocytose lipoproteins
5. Foam cells
6. Fatty streak
7. More leukocytes enter
8. Platelet activation
9. Smooth muscle cell proliferation |
|
|
Term
| Regarding atheroma formation, list 2 forms of endothelial damage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give examples of mechanical endothelial damage. |
|
Definition
| Hypertension, bifurcated (branched) artery |
|
|
Term
| Give examples of chemical endothelial damage. |
|
Definition
| Smoking, high blood glucose |
|
|
Term
| Which liproproteins stick in atheroma formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Macrophage that has ingested lipoproteins |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding atheroma formation, what do platelets activate? |
|
Definition
| Serotonin, PDGF (platelet derived growth factor) |
|
|
Term
| Regarding atheroma formation, what does serotonin do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding atheroma formation, what does PDGF do? |
|
Definition
| Smooth muscle cell proliferation |
|
|
Term
| Regarding atheroma formation, list the 2 forms of smooth muscle cell proliferation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Stable smooth muscle cap around atheroma |
|
|
Term
| Give some characteristics of a thrombus. |
|
Definition
| Builds in size; can close lumen, but allows some blood flow |
|
|
Term
| Strokes caused by _____ have slower onset b/c it slowly changes blood flow. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of a thrombus? |
|
Definition
| Deep vein thrombosis (after surgery) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Incomplete, unstable clot that dislodges and moves somewhere else |
|
|
Term
| What does an embolus cause? |
|
Definition
| More ischemia and very little blood flow |
|
|
Term
| Strokes from _____ come out of nowhere. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an example of an embolus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does a pulmonary embolism end up? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most pulmonary embolisms are _____ in nature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Factor that increases likelihood of something happening |
|
|
Term
| Are risk factors cause and effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 4 primary risk factors of stroke. |
|
Definition
1. Smoking
2. Hypertension
3. Dyslipidemia
4. Physical inactivity |
|
|
Term
| What is the parameter of a primary risk factor? |
|
Definition
| One factor by itself increases likelihood |
|
|
Term
| What is the parameter of a secondary risk factor? |
|
Definition
| Factor must be paired w/ another factor |
|
|
Term
| List secondary risk factors for stroke. |
|
Definition
1. Gender
2. Race
3. Age
4. Alcoholism
5. Stress
6. Diet
7. Type II diabetes
8. Positive family history |
|
|
Term
| (Males/Females) are at higher risk of stroke. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What races are at higher risk of stroke? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (Youth/Elderly) are at higher risk of stroke. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of diet increases risk of stroke? |
|
Definition
| High fat or high salt (when salt sensitive) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transient ischemic attack |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In area of endothelial damage that healed before thrombus formation |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for TIA? |
|
Definition
| Baby aspirin, blood thinners, stop smoking, exercise |
|
|
Term
| How does baby aspirin help with TIA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 2 non-brain disorders. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only difference between MS and Gullain Barre? |
|
Definition
| MS targets specific protein in CNS myelin; Gullain Barre targets specific protein in PNS myelin |
|
|
Term
| In MS and Gullain Barre, do the oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells function normally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of MS and Gullain Barre? |
|
Definition
1. Demyelination
2. Auto-immune
3. Type II HS
4. Result of immune response is scarred axon |
|
|
Term
| List manifestations of MS and Gullain Barre. |
|
Definition
| No conduction through axon, changes in vision, reduced grip strength |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for MS and Gullain Barre? |
|
Definition
| Immunosuppression (corticosteroids) |
|
|
