Term
| How does the mucosal surface area compare to the skin epithelial surface area? |
|
Definition
| The mucosal surface area is larger. |
|
|
Term
| Through what surfaces do the vast majority of infectious agents invade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of microorganisms in the development of mucosal lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
| The mucosal lymphoid tissue cannot develop without microorganisms being present. Mucosal microorganisms are essential to our health. |
|
|
Term
| Is an immune response to food desirable? |
|
Definition
| No. It would do more harm than good. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three types of GALT. |
|
Definition
| Peyer's patches, solitary lymphoid nodules, and appendix. |
|
|
Term
| List the three inductive sites in the mucosal immune system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of a tonsillectomy on the immune response to the Polio vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Children without tonsils have a poorer immune response to the Polio vaccine. |
|
|
Term
| List the two inductive sites in the GALT. |
|
Definition
| Peyer's patches and solitary lymphoid follicles. |
|
|
Term
| List the two effector sites of the GALT. |
|
Definition
| Lamina propria and epithelium. |
|
|
Term
| What types of cells are present in the effector sites of the mucosal immune system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of immune cells are present in the epithelium of the GALT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells facilitate antigen uptake in the GALT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are M cells antigen-presenting cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the mucosal tissue have afferent lymphatics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the number of specificities for intraepithelial lymphocytes compare to that of other lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
| Intraepithelial lymphocytes have limited use of the V region and limited specificities. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of intraepithelial lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
Conventional CD8 aB
Non-conventional (gamma-delta TCR or aB CDR, CD8aa) |
|
|
Term
| Where do lymphocytes stimulated in the mucosal immune system traffic to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of integrin begins to be expressed if a T cell or B cell is stimulated in a Peyer's patch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of integrin is expressed if a B cell or T cell is stimulated in a lymph node? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What addressin interacts with a4B7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do mucosal macrophages compare to systemic macrophages? |
|
Definition
| Mucosal macrophages are programmed to be less inflammatory. |
|
|
Term
| What intracellular receptors in epithelial cells interact with bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is activated by TLR and NOD signaling in the mucosal immune system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of effective immunization against enteric pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do non-conventional T cells recognize antigens via MHC class I? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do non-conventional T cells undergo thymic selection? |
|
Definition
| No. Many are self-reactive. |
|
|
Term
| What two molecules are elevated on epithelial cells during stress? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor on intraepithelial T cells recognizes MICA and MICB on stressed epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The mucosal immune system does not attack food proteins and commensal bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| How do commensal bacteria prevent dendritic cell maturation? |
|
Definition
| They stimulate the epithelium to produce cytokines and other factors that prevent dendritic cell maturation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the important cytokine released by immature dendritic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells are induced by immature dendritic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the strength and speed of a secondary immune response compare to that of a primary immune response? |
|
Definition
| A secondary immune response is stronger and faster than a primary immune response. |
|
|
Term
| List the two causes of memory. |
|
Definition
Clones of long-lived T and B cells.
Constant exposure to low antigen levels. |
|
|
Term
| How long are antibody levels from the primary immune response maintained after the infection is defeated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three ways that antibody left over from the primary immune response can prevent subsequent infections. |
|
Definition
| Neutralization, opsonization, and complement. |
|
|
Term
| What type of immune response is produced if a person is exposed to the same cold one year later? |
|
Definition
| Secondary immune response, which depends on immunological memory. |
|
|
Term
| What type of cell do most activated T cells and B cells become in the primary immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the lag time to a measurable response in the secondary immune response compare to that in the primary immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the number of memory lymphocytes compare with the number of naive lymphocytes that act in a secondary immune response? |
|
Definition
| There are more memory lymphocytes acting in a secondary immune response. |
|
|
Term
| How does the affinity of lymphocytes for the pathogen in the secondary immune response compare to that in the primary immune response? |
|
Definition
| Higher affinity in the secondary immune response. |
|
|
Term
| Why do memory B cells have higher affinity antigen receptors? |
|
Definition
| They have already undergone affinity maturation and isotype switching. |
|
|
Term
| What isotype of antibody is produced in the primary immune response, but not in the secondary immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does memory affect the speed with which an infection is cleared? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does memory affect the severity of the disease after re-exposure to the same pathogen? |
|
Definition
| It results in mild or unnoticeable disease. |
|
|
Term
| List two evolutionary advantages of memory. |
|
Definition
| Re-infection mortality is low, and survivors can care for the sick. |
|
|
Term
| How long can memory last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long can immunity from a vaccination last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How was smallpox eradicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What B cells participate in the secondary immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of immune complexes on naive B cells and memory B cells? |
|
Definition
| Immune complexes are inhibitory for naive B cells, but not for memory B cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism by which immune complexes are inhibitory for naive B cells, but not memory B cells? |
|
Definition
| Crosslinking of BCR and FcvRIIB. |
|
|
Term
| Why does hemolytic disease of the newborn occur in the second and subsequent pregnancies, but not in the first pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| In the first pregnancy, only a primary immune response with low-affinity IgM and some IgG is produced. In the second and subsequent pregnancy, a secondary immune response with high-affinity IgG is produced. |
|
|
Term
| How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented? |
|
Definition
| Infusion of Rh-specific IgG inhibits the naive B cells from mounting a primary immune response. |
|
|
Term
| Do memory T cells require a co-stimulatory (CD28) signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the number of antigenic specificities of naive T cells compare to that of memory B cells? |
|
Definition
| Naive T cells have about 100 times as many antigenic specificities. |
|
|
Term
| Define original antigenic sin. |
|
Definition
| With a pathogen that is highly mutable, the immunological memory and immune response will be gradually eroded. |
|
|
Term
| What do effector memory T cells do? |
|
Definition
| Quickly differentiate into a potent Th1, Th1, or Th17 cell making lots of cytokines, depending on the cytokine environment. |
|
|
Term
| What do central memory T cells do? |
|
Definition
| They are specialized towards entering T cell zones of secondary lymphoid tissue. They rapidly express CD40L and interact with B cells, and some differentiate into follicular helper cells. |
|
|
Term
| Does the maintenance of immunological memory depend on antigen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do FDCs help maintain immunological memory? |
|
Definition
| Antigens can be maintained for long periods on FDCs in the form of immune complexes. |
|
|
Term
| What receptors that contribute to memory are expressed at high levels on FDCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immune response to gamma:delta T cells contribute to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do gamma:delta T cells undergo positive and negative selection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the diversity of gamma:delta T cells compare to that of aB T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do Vgamma9:Vdelta2 T cells recognize? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do gamma:delta T cells circulate directly to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an activated gamma:delta T cell do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are T cells that express the Vgamma:Vdelta1 TCR found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do Vgamma:Vdelta1 T cells react with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Vgamma:delta1 T cells and NK cells. |
|
|
Term
| What causes hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis? |
|
Definition
| Activation of CD8 T cells, which release IFN-gamma to activate macrophages, which release TNF-alpha and IL-6. Activated macrophages attack the bone marrow, damage tissues, and induce inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| Do NK cells have activating receptors, inhibitory receptors, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor is expressed by all NK cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptors do NK cells use to discriminate healthy from infected cells? |
|
Definition
| Receptor for MHC class I molecules. |
|
|
Term
| How does the amount of MHC class I expressed by infected and tumor cells compare to that expressed by healthy cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of an inhibitory receptor that monitors the overall level of class I. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecules binds to the leader sequence of class I molecules and is a measure of the overall expression of HLA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor detects loss of expression of a particular HLA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is missing or defective in the missing self hypothesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of T cells protect against mycobacterial infection? |
|
Definition
| T cells recognizing lipid antigens. |
|
|
Term
| What are CD1a, CD1b, and CD1c? |
|
Definition
| MHC class I-like molecules that present lipid antigens. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does CD1d present to? |
|
Definition
| NKT cells, not conventional aB T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What receptors do NKT cells express? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are NKT cells part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of B cells play a role in bridging innate and adaptive immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are viral vaccines made from? |
|
Definition
| Whole viruses or viral components. |
|
|
Term
| Are you preventing an individual receiving a vaccine from developing disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three strategies in vaccine development? |
|
Definition
Heat killed or inactivated.
Attenuated live vaccines.
Subunit vaccines. |
|
|
Term
| How are attenuated live vaccines produced? |
|
Definition
| By growing in a non-human host. |
|
|
Term
| Should attenuated live vaccines be given to immunocompromised patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a subunit vaccine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the DTaP vaccine made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They non-specifically enhance the immune response to a vaccine. |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of complete Freund's adjuvant? |
|
Definition
| Oil in water emulsion with heat-killed mycobacteria. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An emulsion of squalene, oil, and water used as an adjuvant in humans. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are lipid carriers that load peptides or proteins into the cell cytoplasm and allow MHC class I responses and CD8 T cell activation. |
|
|
Term
| How does an attenuated vaccine cause disease in some cases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you prevent a person from developing a disease as a result of a live, attenuated vaccination? |
|
Definition
| Give the killed vaccine first. |
|
|
Term
| Why does public resistance to vaccination go up as the disease incidence goes down? |
|
Definition
| Fear of side effects replaces fear of disease. |
|
|
Term
| List two chronic disease vaccine issues. |
|
Definition
Pathogens are adept at evading the immune response.
Pathogens can live for years in the host. |
|
|
Term
| What opens up new avenues of vaccine design? |
|
Definition
| Genome sequences of human pathogens. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Aschoff nodules (a form of granuloma) to appear in rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
| Macrophages come in and turn into giant cells. Nodules form because the immune system unsuccessfully tries to destroy the pathogen. |
|
|
Term
| How does binding of factor H by M proteins enhance the virulence of Group A Streptococci? |
|
Definition
| It causes less control of complement activation. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it difficult to make a vaccination against Streptococcus pyogenes? |
|
Definition
| S. pyogenes antigenically varies its capsule. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It inhibits prostaglandin synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| What causes erythema marginatum in rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why can about 5% of individuals control HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does vaccine development face greater or less public scrutiny than drug development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the size of the vaccine development business compare to the size of the drug development business? |
|
Definition
| The vaccine development business is smaller. |
|
|
Term
| What is the big success story of immunology because it has given a greater quality and quantity of life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do viruses provide their own ribosomes for protein synthesis and energy-producing systems for replication? |
|
Definition
| No (except arenaviruses). |
|
|
Term
| What is the only group of viruses that are not submicroscopic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can viruses have both DNA and RNA for genetic material? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of paramyxoviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of reoviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of poxviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of togaviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of herpesviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of the poliovirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of adenovirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the symmetry of tobacco mosaic virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of genome does a helical virus have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do herpetoviridae have an envelope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do togaviridae have an envelope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do orthomyxoviridae have an envelope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do rhabdoviridae have an envelope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Viruses with what structural component cause rashes and autoimmune infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is hemagglutinin likely to be found in a viral core? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why were embryonic eggs the model of choice for propagating poxviruses, influenza viruses, and herpesviruses? |
|
Definition
| They were sterile and had no monolayer. |
|
|
Term
| Why couldn't poliovirus grow in an embronated egg? |
|
Definition
| The receptors for poliovirus were not present. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A term used to describe the phagocytosis of a virus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the receptor for rabies virus? |
|
Definition
| Acetylcholine receptor in the brain. |
|
|
Term
| What are the receptors for influenza? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Posttranslational cleavage to produce viral structural and non-structural proteins occurs during infection of... |
|
Definition
| Picornaviruses (They have polycistronic RNA). |
|
|
Term
| What virus family is characterized as having virion-associated polymerases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do DNA viruses (except poxviridae) replicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do poxviridae use for early transcription? |
|
Definition
| A virion-associated DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| What do all DNA viruses except poxviridae use for early transcription? |
|
Definition
| Cellular RNA polymerase II. |
|
|
Term
| Where do RNA viruses (except retroviridae and orthomyxoviridae) replicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do retroviridae use for early transcription? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do (-) polarity RNA viruses use for early transcription? |
|
Definition
| Virion-associated RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| What do rheoviridae (with a +/- RNA genome) use for early transcription? |
|
Definition
| Virion-associated RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| What do viruses with an infectious (+)-polarity RNA genome use for early transcription? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for human parvovirus B19. |
|
Definition
Parvoviridae
Icosahedral
SS linear DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| What virus causes erythema infectiosum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for human papillomavirus. |
|
Definition
Papovaviridae
Icosahedral
DS circular DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for BK poliomavirus. |
|
Definition
Papovaviridae
Icosahedral
DS circular DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for JC poliomavirus. |
|
Definition
Papovaviridae
Icosahedral
DS circular DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for JC polyomavirus. |
|
Definition
Papovaviridae
Icosahedral
DS circular DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Merkel cell polyomavirus. |
|
Definition
Papovaviridae
Icosahedral
DS circular DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for adenovirus. |
|
Definition
Adenoviridae
Icosahedral
DS linear DNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| What are the smallest DNA viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a replication-defective parvovirus that could potentially be used as a gene therapy vector? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is human parvovirus B19 transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory transmission. |
|
|
Term
| What virus is associated with a slapped cheek rash? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What commonly occurs in adults infected with parvovirus B19? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus is associated with hydrops fetalis (fetal edema) and spontaneous abortion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does parvovirus B19 attack? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients and chronic bone marrow suppression in immune compromised patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do papilloma viruses enter hosts? |
|
Definition
| They enter via mucosa or small breaks in keratinized skin. |
|
|
Term
| What viruses infect undifferentiated keratinocyte stem cells in the basal layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does HPV virus replication occur? |
|
Definition
| Differentiated outer layers. |
|
|
Term
| What types of HPV cause most skin warts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of HPV cause plane warts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of HPV causes plantar warts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of HPV causes butcher's warts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of HPV cause condyloma acuminatum (cauliflower-shaped warts)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of HPV cause condyloma planum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of HPV are associated with 70% of cervical cancers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes focal epithelial hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes oral papillomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are common skin warts transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Person-to-person by contact. |
|
|
Term
| How are plantar warts transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Public showers and swimming pools. |
|
|
Term
| How are genital and oral warts transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases do polyomaviruses cause in children? |
|
Definition
| Mild respiratory infections. |
|
|
Term
| What virus causes fatal multifocal leukoencephalopathy in immunocompromised patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes kidney infections in immunocompromised patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes Merkel cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| Merkel cell polyomavirus. |
|
|
Term
| What symptoms are caused by adenovirus? |
|
Definition
| Cough, sore throat, congestion, and fever (sometimes also conjunctivitis). |
|
|
Term
| How is adenovirus transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Close contact or fecal-oral, such as in swimming pools. |
|
|
Term
| What two cellular anti-oncoproteins are bound and inactivated by HPV proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In most HPV-associated cancer cells, what is the configuration of the HPV genome? |
|
Definition
| Integrated into host DNA. |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for smallpox (variola). |
|
Definition
Poxviridae
Complex
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for vaccinia virus. |
|
Definition
Poxviridae
Complex
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Molluscum contagiosum. |
|
Definition
Poxviridae
Complex
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for herpes viruses. |
|
Definition
Herpesviridae
Icosahedral
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for varicella-zoster virus. |
|
Definition
Herpesviridae
Icosahedral
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for cytomegalovirus. |
|
Definition
Herpesviridae
Icosahedral
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Epstein-Barr virus. |
|
Definition
Herpesviridae
Icosahedral
DS linear DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for hepatitis B virus. |
|
Definition
Hepadnaviridae
Icosahedral
SS/DS circular DNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| What types of cell do HSV-1 and HSV-2 infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of cells does varicella-zoster virus infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What family of viruses has a tegument layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tegument of herpes viruses made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of replication cycle does herpes virus use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the capsid of herpesvirus do? |
|
Definition
| It docks to nuclear pores and releases DNA. |
|
|
Term
| What cell type does herpes simplex latency occur in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe viral gene expression during latency of herpesvirus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells does EBV infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the three alpha-herpesviruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of herpes is caused by HSV-1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of herpes is caused by HSV-2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two ways that HSV-2 is acquired. |
|
Definition
| Sexually or perinatally during birth. |
|
|
Term
| Where does local replication of HSV-1 and HSV-2 occur? |
|
Definition
| In epithelial cells at sites of infection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| HSV infection of the fingers. |
|
|
Term
| Who is at risk for herpes Whitlow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary ocular infection caused by HSV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the recurrent ocular infection caused by HSV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading infectious cause of blindness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is neonatal herpes prevented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What usually causes necrotizing herpes simplex encephalitis? |
|
Definition
| HSV-1 in children and adults; HSV-2 in newborns. |
|
|
Term
| What virus causes chickenpox as the primary infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does latency of VZV occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Shingles (recurrence of VZV). |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is available for VZV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bell's palsy follows what part of VZV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the four beta-herpesviruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important pathogen in the beta-herpesvirus subgroup? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main mode of transmission of CMV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of a CMV infection in an immunocompetent patient? |
|
Definition
Can be asymptomatic.
Mild cold-like illness (no rash).
Mononucleosis-like syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does CMV latency occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of death in AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
| CMV reactivation at CD4 counts less than 50-100 cell/cc. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first line treatment for CMV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major infective cause of birth defects and congenital hearing loss? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what group of fetuses is CMV most severe? |
|
Definition
| Children of seronegative mothers. |
|
|
Term
| What virus causes Roseola Infantum (aka exanthem subitum), which involves severe fever and rash in infants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells do HHV-6A, HHV-6B, and HHV-7 infect? |
|
Definition
| T cells. This is also where latency occurs. |
|
|
Term
| List the two gamma-herpesviruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do EBV and KSHV begin replicating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of EBV and KSHV on latently infected B cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary infection of EBV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes oral hairy leukoplakia in AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is hepatitis B virus transmitted in developed countries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What makes up the HBV vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes firm papules and nodules with central depression (common in children)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Poliovirus. |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae
Icosahedral
SS nonsegmented (+) RNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Coxsackie virus. |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae
Icosahedral
SS nonsegmented (+) RNA
Naked. |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for ECHO virus. |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae
Icosahedral
SS nonsegmented (+) RNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Rhinovirus. |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for enteroviruses. |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae
Icosahedral
SS nonsegmented (+) RNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for hepatitis A virus. |
|
Definition
Picornaviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for norovirus virus. |
|
Definition
Caliciviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Naked |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Rubella virus. |
|
Definition
Togaviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Dengue virus. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Japanese encephalitis. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for St. Louis encephalitis. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for tickborne encephalitis virus. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for West Nile virus. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Yellow fever virus. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for hepatitis C virus. |
|
Definition
Flaviviridae
Icosahedral
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for rabies virus. |
|
Definition
Rhabdoviridae
Helical
SS nonsegmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for respiratory syncytial virus. |
|
Definition
Paramyxoviridae
Helical
SS non-segmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for mumps. |
|
Definition
Paramyxoviridae
Helical
SS non-segmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for measles. |
|
Definition
Paramyxoviridae
Helical
SS non-segmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Marburg virus. |
|
Definition
Filoviridae
Helical
SS non-segmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Ebola virus. |
|
Definition
Filoviridae
Helical
SS non-segmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for influenza viruses. |
|
Definition
Orthomyxoviridae
Helical
SS segmented (-) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| List the family, symmetry, genome type, and presence/absence of an envelope for Coronavirus. |
|
Definition
Coronaviridae
Helical
SS non-segmented (+) RNA
Enveloped |
|
|
Term
| How are enteroviruses transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Ingestion of contaminated food or water. |
|
|
Term
| Where do enteroviruses replicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are enteroviruses shed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of aseptic meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does polio cause damage to the lower motor neurons of the spinal cord and the brainstem? |
|
Definition
| Direct damage (not immune-mediated). |
|
|
Term
| What is the Salk polio vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of the Salk vaccine? |
|
Definition
| It prevents poliomyelitis by inducing IgG in the blood. |
|
|
Term
| Does the Salk vaccine prevent GI infection or shedding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Sabin polio vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Sabin vaccine do? |
|
Definition
| It prevents poliomyelitis by inducing IgG in the blood and prevents infection of the GI tract via secretory IgA. |
|
|
Term
| What viruses are the primary cause of the common cold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do rhinoviruses replicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are rhinoviruses spread? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory droplets and hand-to-hand. |
|
|
Term
| How is hepatitis A transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is a vaccine available for hepatitis A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does hepatitis A often progress to chronic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is norovirus transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of gastroenteritis outbreaks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hepatitis causes chronic hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are alphaviruses transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is rubella transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital disease causes heart disease, cataracts, hepatitis, CNS damage, and deafness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are all flaviviridae except hepatitis C transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two Flaviviridae cause hemorrhagic fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does West Nile virus cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is hepatitis C spread? |
|
Definition
| Blood products, tattooing, needle sharing, sexual, mother to infant. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of coronaviruses? |
|
Definition
| Upper respiratory infections. |
|
|
Term
| What virus has a bullet shape? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is rabies transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Usually by animal bites, but can be inhaled. |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by swelling of the parotid glands? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three C's of measles? |
|
Definition
| Cough, coryza (runny nose), and conjunctivitis. |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with Koplik's spots in the mouth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of rash occurs in measles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pneumovirus is a major cause of respiratory infections in children? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory syncytial virus. |
|
|
Term
| How are pneumoviruses transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory droplets and hand-to-mouth transmission. |
|
|
Term
| Which influenza type has more diverse H and N antigens and has an animal reservoir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are orthomyxoviruses spread? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the flu usually involve a fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the flu usually involve a runny nose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells mediate the destruction of epithelial cells in the respiratory tract in influenza? |
|
Definition
| T cells (worse in people with stronger immune systems). |
|
|
Term
| How is LaCrosse virus spread? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two conditions does LaCrosse virus cause? |
|
Definition
| Meningitis and encephalitis. |
|
|
Term
| How are arenaviridae transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the structure of rotaviruses? |
|
Definition
| They have an icosahedral capsid within an icosahedral capsid. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the genome of rotaviruses. |
|
Definition
| Segmented, double-stranded RNA genome. |
|
|
Term
| What is the family of rotavirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many pieces of double-stranded RNA are in rotaviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do kuru infections cause an increase in antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What demonstrated the role of an infectious agent in the pathogenesis of kuru? |
|
Definition
| The disease was serially transmitted to experimental animals. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by communal cannibalism in Papua New Guinea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal function of prion proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes spongiform encephalopathies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do prions elicit an immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does classic CJD differ from variant CJD? |
|
Definition
| Classic CJD is genetically transmitted, and variant CJD is transmitted from the environment (such as infected beef). |
|
|
Term
| List the 6 steps of the viral life cycle in vivo. |
|
Definition
1. Entry.
2. Replication at primary sites of infection.
3. Dissemination.
4. Replication at secondary sites of infection.
5. Secondary dissemination to tertiary sites.
6. Shedding. |
|
|
Term
| What is the different between virulence and pathogenicity? |
|
Definition
| Virulence is quantitative. Pathogenicity is not. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of HSV ICP34.5? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of HSV glycoprotein D? |
|
Definition
| Dissemination to neurons. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of rotavirus NSP4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes fever, fatigue, malaise, aches, and drowsiness during viral infections? |
|
Definition
| Cytokine effects on the brain. |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of preexisting antibodies due to a previous infection on the risk of hemorrhagic fever from dengue virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of nucleoside and nucleotide analogs that are used as anti-herpesviral agents? |
|
Definition
| The compete for the active site in herpesviral polymerase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An L-valine ester of acyclovir used to increase oral bioavailability. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A nucleoside analog used to treat herpesviral infections. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dGTP analog used to treat herpesviral infections. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An L-valine ester of Ganciclovir. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dCTP analog used to treat herpesviral infections. |
|
|
Term
| What performs the first phosphorylation of anti-herpesviral nucleoside analogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the neutropenia and anemia in some patients who use Ganciclovir/Valganciclovir? |
|
Definition
| Activity against host polymerase-alpha. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of the nucleoside and nucleotide analogs used to treat herpesvirus infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to the nucleoside analogs that are used to treat herpesviral infections? |
|
Definition
| Mutation in the viral enzyme that performs the initial phosphorylation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the less common mechanism of resistance to nucleoside and nucleotide analogs used to treat herpesvirus infections? |
|
Definition
| Mutation in the active site of the herpesviral polymerase causes cross-resistance to all available polymerase inhibitors. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of activity of acyclovir? |
|
Definition
| Active against HSV 1 and 2 and at high doses against VZV, EBV, and herpes B virus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of activity of ganciclovir, valganciclovir, and cidofovir? |
|
Definition
| CMV, HHV6, HHV8, HSV, VZV, and EBV. |
|
|
Term
| What is Cidofovir active against, besides herpesviruses? |
|
Definition
| Adenoviruses, papilloma viruses, and pox viruses. |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of Ganciclovir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the activity of Ganciclovir monitored? |
|
Definition
| Monitor CMV serum PCR for response. |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of Valganciclovir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the side effect of Cidofovir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of Foscarnet? |
|
Definition
| Pyrophosphate analog that binds the pyrophosphate site on the herpesvirus polymerase, blocking it. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of Foscarnet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to Foscarnet? |
|
Definition
| Viral DNA polymerase mutation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of Foscarnet? |
|
Definition
| Active against all human herpesviruses and HIV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a NS3/4A protease inhibitor used to treat hepatitis C. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two side effects of Simeprevir? |
|
Definition
| Rash and photosensitivity. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of Simeprevir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sofosbuvir is a NS5B protease inhibitor used to treat hepatitis C. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two side effects of Sofosbuvir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of Sofosbuvir? |
|
Definition
| Metabolism by p-glycoprotein. |
|
|
Term
| Are hepatitis B treatments active against hepatitis C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a nucleoside analog with HIV activity that is primarily used to treat hepatitis B. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A nucleoside/nucleotide analog used to treat hepatitis B. |
|
|
Term
| Is Entecavir active against 3TC/FTC resistant hepatitis B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Adefovir is a nucleoside/nucleotide analog used to treat hepatitis B. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tenofovir is a nucleoside/nucleotide analog used to treat hepatitis B. |
|
|
Term
| Are Adefovir and Tenofovir active against 3TC/FTC resistant hepatitis B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Telbivudine is a nucleoside/nucleotide analog used to treat hepatitis B. |
|
|
Term
| How long must hepatitis B treatment be continued? |
|
Definition
| Indefinitely to prevent flares. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat influenza A and B. |
|
|
Term
| What is the side effect of Zanamivir? |
|
Definition
| Bronchospasm in patients with asthma or bronchitis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A neuraminidase inhibitor used to treat influenza A and B. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of Zanamivir and Oseltamivir? |
|
Definition
| They are neuraminidase inhibitors that cause aggregation of viral particles within the cell. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of Oseltamivir and Zanamivir? |
|
Definition
| Renal and fecal excretion (Oseltamivir is first carboxylated). |
|
|
Term
| What is the antigen depot effect? |
|
Definition
| Adjuvants can increase the time that antigen remains at the administration site. |
|
|
Term
| Are killed or antigenic components Th1 biased or Th2 biased? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are live, attenuated vaccines Th1 biased or Th2 biased? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the hepatitis A vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Formalin inactivated whole virus. |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the influenza vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the Hib vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Conjugated polysaccharide. |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the S. pneumoniae vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Conjugated polysaccharide. |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the Neisseria meningitidis vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Conjugated polysaccharide. |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the HPV vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Virus-like particle made from capsid proteins. |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the varicella zoster vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Temperature sensitive virus. |
|
|
Term
| What type of vaccine is the MMR vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two ways that the pathogen can win? |
|
Definition
| Alteration of the pathogen or inherited or acquired immunodeficiencies. |
|
|
Term
| What do the changes in pathogen include? |
|
Definition
| Genetic variation - prevention of long-term immunity. |
|
|
Term
| How does S. pneumoniae prevent a memory response? |
|
Definition
| Different serotypes means primary response all over again. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A slight change in the antigens that leads to some of the antibodies from a previous infection being ineffective. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A major change in the antigens of a virus that leads to an almost completely new virus, which can cause a pandemic. |
|
|
Term
| Does vaccination results in any protection in cases of antigenic drift? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does vaccination result in any protection in cases of antigenic shift? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathogenesis of sleeping sickness. |
|
Definition
| Trypanosoma brucei undergoes gene rearrangements to change its surface glycoproteins, leading to problems with antigen/antibody complexes causing neurological damage. |
|
|
Term
| How do pathogens exploit phagocytic cells? |
|
Definition
| They can use phagocytic cells as a protective haven. |
|
|
Term
| How does Treponema pallidum evade the immune system? |
|
Definition
| It coats itself with serum proteins to make itself look like the host. |
|
|
Term
| What do superantigens do? |
|
Definition
| They stimulate a massive but ineffective immune response. |
|
|
Term
| What type of T cell is active in the highly localized form of leprosy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of T cell is activated in the disseminated form of leprosy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is potentially helpful for directing an appropriate immune response to leprosy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine causes hypergammaglobulinemia in lepromatous leprosy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of T cells differentiate in an environment rich in TGF-beta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the consequence of lacking FOXP3? |
|
Definition
| Increased autoimmunity due to decreased Treg activity. |
|
|
Term
| What combination of cytokines causes differentiation into Th17? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is used by Th1 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is used by Th2 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is used by Th17 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine can induce MHC class II expression on some cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of viral IL-10 homologs in immune evasion? |
|
Definition
| Increase the pH of endosomes to inhibit proteolysis and loading of peptides onto MHC class II. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What increases the levels of Pkr? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does activated Pkr do? |
|
Definition
| It phosphorylates the translation initiation factor eIF2a, which shuts down translation and stops viral replication. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the genome of HIV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does HIV have an envelope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule does HIV initially bind to when infecting a cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the two co-receptors that HIV can use to enter a cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does reverse transcriptase act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What enzyme combines HIV viral DNA with the host cell's DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of HIV protease? |
|
Definition
| It cuts protein chains into individual proteins that combine to form a working virus. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The stalk of the complex on the surface of HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What does HIV use for transcription? |
|
Definition
| Host cell mRNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| After exposure to HIV, how long is the delay before HIV actually infects a cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do anti-HIV viral antibodies begin to appear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is an HIV surface glycoprotein used for entry into cells. |
|
|
Term
| Why does LPS get into the blood of HIV patients? |
|
Definition
| Bacteria escape from the gut. |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of increasing LPS in HIV patients? |
|
Definition
| Activation of CD8 T cells and a hyperactive immune system. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A receptor that delivers LPS to toll-like receptors. |
|
|
Term
| What does a high sCD14 mean in an HIV patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sCD14 increases as a result of activation of what type of cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes HIV-associated pulmonary disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why must post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV be given early? |
|
Definition
| It must happen before the HIV genome is inserted into the host DNA. |
|
|
Term
| What is D-dimer a marker of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are antivirals static or cidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dTTP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dTTP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dATP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dATP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dCTP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dCTP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A dGTP analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What phosphorylates nucleoside analogs that are used to treat HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is tenofovir different from the other nukes used to treat HIV? |
|
Definition
| It already has a phosphate group and is a nucleotide analog. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of nukes? |
|
Definition
| Metabolized by non-P450-dependent processes and/or excreted in the urine. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of HIV resistance to nukes? |
|
Definition
| Mutations in reverse transcriptase. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely NRTI to fail first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is FTC active against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is 3TC active against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a nucleoside analog used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
| List three side effects of abacavir. |
|
Definition
Hypersensitivity syndrome (fever, rash)
Abdominal pain and possible vomiting
Increased risk of cardiovascular disease |
|
|
Term
| A patient tests positive for HLA B57-01. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| The patient is at risk for hypersensitivity syndrome caused by Abacavir. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tenofovir + Emtriva coformulated. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two side effects of Tenofovir? |
|
Definition
| Renal toxicity and phosphate wasting-osteopenia. |
|
|
Term
| A patient taking Tenofovir for HIV has a GFR less than 60. What should you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Tenofovir active against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)? |
|
Definition
| They are noncompetitive inhibitors of reverse transcriptase. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of NNRTIs? |
|
Definition
| They are active against HIV-1only. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of NNRTIs? |
|
Definition
| They are metabolized by the liver, including P450 3A4 enzymes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to NNRTIs? |
|
Definition
| Mutation of reverse transcriptase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is an NNRTI used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major side effect of Efavirenz? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a contraindication for Efavirenz use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An NNRTI used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What are two side effects of Rilpiverine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is an NNRTI used to treat HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What are two side effects of Etravirine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Efavirenz + Tenofovir + Emtriva. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rilpivirine + Tenofovir + Emtriva. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of HIV protease inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| They mimic the aromatic peptide bonds that are targeted by HIV protease, thus inhibiting the cleavage of gag and gag-pol precursors. |
|
|
Term
| What is the metabolism of protease inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| Mostly due to P450 enzymes. |
|
|
Term
| Which protease inhibitor inhibits CYP3A4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to protease inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| 4-8 mutations in HIV protease. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most difficult HIV drug to become resistant to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which HIV protease inhibitor has a huge number of drug interactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main side effect of Atazanavir? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What protease inhibitor is also useful for PI resistant HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of HIV drugs causes Lipodystrophy syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Elvitegravir, Cobicistat, Tenofovir, and Emtriva. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dolutegravir, Abacavir, and Lamivudine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of Mariviroc? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the TROPHILE assay? |
|
Definition
| It determines whether the HIV uses only CCR5 and is, therefore, susceptible to Mariviroc. |
|
|
Term
| When is the viral burden the greatest during an HIV infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is more transmissible by blood, hepatitis or HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary means of identifying chronic HIV infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test is used to confirm a diagnosis of chronic HIV after ELISA is performed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary means of diagnosing acute HIV infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the HIV antibody test positive or negative during acute HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus causes retinitis, which often leads to irreversible blindness in HIV patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of an inherited immune deficiency that is not very severe. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pathogen is an individual with an antibody deficiency unable to fight effectively? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is X-linked aggamaglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for antibody deficiencies? |
|
Definition
| Antibiotics and monthly injections of gamma globulins from healthy individuals (passive immunity). |
|
|
Term
| Besides B cell deficiencies, what else can cause diminished production of antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a receptor on T cells whose absence leads to immunodeficiency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two consequences of defects in complement components? |
|
Definition
| Impaired antibody respones and accumulation of immune complexes. |
|
|
Term
| What types of infections are people with complement deficiencies susceptible to? |
|
Definition
| Extracellular bacterial infections. |
|
|
Term
| What type of infection are people with defects in phagocytes susceptible to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes leukocyte adhesion deficiency I? |
|
Definition
| Deficiency in CD18 , an integrin component, so that inflammatory cells do not migrate to sites of infection. |
|
|
Term
| What causes leukocyte adhesion deficiency II? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition results from defects in T cell function? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a gene defect that results in SCID. |
|
Definition
| Common gamma chain deficiency. The common gamma chain is a cytokine receptor chain associated with many cytokines (IL-2, 4, 7, 9, 15, and 21). |
|
|
Term
| What cells fail to develop as a result of bare lymphocyte syndrome MHC class II? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells fail to develop in bare lymphocyte syndrome MHC class I? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to correct genetic defects of the immune system? |
|
Definition
| Hematopoietic stem cell transplants. |
|
|
Term
| The success of bone marrow transplants is directly correlated with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is prevented by matching the HLA of bone marrow donors and recipients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must be true in a bone marrow transplant in order for SCID not to occur? |
|
Definition
| The donor must share at least one MHC class I and one MHC class II. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An ectoparasite lives on the surface of the body. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An endoparasite lives within the host's body. |
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Plasmodium belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which division of protozoa includes intracellular parasites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Trypanosoma belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Balantidium belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The feeding, dividing, vegetative stage that causes tissue damage. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dormant, inactive stage that protects the organisms from the environment and can be an infective stage. |
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Giardia lamblia belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Cryptosporidium parvum belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Entamoeba histolytica cause? |
|
Definition
| Bloody diarrhea (amoebic dysentery). |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages in the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Entamoeba histolytica acquired? |
|
Definition
| By drinking water or eating foods contaminated with cysts (infective stage). |
|
|
Term
| What is the first place that Entamoeba histolytica goes from the intestine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Amebiasis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Giardia lamblia cause? |
|
Definition
| Diarrhea and fatty stool. |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages in the life cycle of Giardia lamblia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infective stage for Giardia lamblia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Giardia lamblia acquired? |
|
Definition
| Drinking or eating contaminated food or water. |
|
|
Term
| What parasitic disease is characterized by an inability to absorb fat-soluble vitamins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Cryptosporidium parvum cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Cryptosporidium acquired? |
|
Definition
| From contaminated water and food or from animals (zoonosis). |
|
|
Term
| Describe the location of Cryptosporidium. |
|
Definition
| It is an intracellular parasite, but extracytoplasmic. |
|
|
Term
| What part of the body does Balantidium coli infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the stages in the life cycle of Balantidium coli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infective stage of Balantidium coli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Balantidium coli acquired? |
|
Definition
| By eating or drinking contaminated food or water. |
|
|
Term
| What does Balantidium coli cause? |
|
Definition
| Diarrhea or dysentery - intestinal ulcers. |
|
|
Term
| What does Trichomonas vaginalis use for locomotion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of the life cycle of Trichomonas vaginalis? |
|
Definition
| Only a flagellate stage, no cyst. |
|
|
Term
| How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Plasmodium cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two blood and tissue protozoal infections that are not transmitted by an arthropod vector. |
|
Definition
| Toxoplasmosis and amebic encephalitis. |
|
|
Term
| What cells do Plasmodium species infect? |
|
Definition
| Red blood cells and liver cells. |
|
|
Term
| How is malaria transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which species of Plasmodium is the most virulent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What infective form of Plasmodium is injected into the blood by mosquitos? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does Plasmodium go first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of Plasmodium is released from the liver to go to red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does malaria lead to renal failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease causes knobs on red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is malaria diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the result of a lack of Duffy antigen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the host of toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what group of protozoa does Toxoplasma gondii belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Toxoplasmosis acquired? |
|
Definition
| Infected cat feces or from improperly cooked meat. |
|
|
Term
| What does toxoplasmosis cause in immunocompetent individuals? |
|
Definition
| Flu-like illness. It is much more severe and can cause things like encephalitis, myocarditis, and hepatitis in immunocompromised patients. |
|
|
Term
| What is the infective form of Toxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Toxoplasma an intracellular or extracellular parasite? |
|
Definition
| Intracellular parasite in macrophages. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of macrophages in toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| They carry Toxoplasma to the liver and brain. |
|
|
Term
| Where does Toxoplasma become encysted and dormant in healthy people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parasitic disease causes hydrocephaly in newborns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Toxoplasmosis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| Test sera of mother and infant for IgM and IgG. |
|
|
Term
| What family does Leishmania belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the stages in the life cycle of Leishmania? |
|
Definition
| Promastigotes and amastigotes. |
|
|
Term
| What causes sleeping sickness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Chagas disease? |
|
Definition
| American trypanosomiasis. |
|
|
Term
| How is Leishmania acquired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is African Trypanosomiasis acquired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infective stage of Leishmania? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells are infected by Leishmania? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Leishmania tropica cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Leishmania brasiliensis cause? |
|
Definition
| Mucocutaneous Leishmaniosis. |
|
|
Term
| What does Leishmania donovani cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of Leishmania has a flagellum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the disfiguring scars in Leishmaniasis? |
|
Definition
| Ulcers are secondarily infected with bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| How is Leishmaniasis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| Microscopic identification of the parasites in stained films or culture of material taken from the margin of a lesion. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A disease caused by Leishmania donovani which affects the cells of the reticuloendothelial system, causing hepatosplenomegaly. |
|
|
Term
| What cytokines cause the coma in sleeping sickness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major organ affected by Trypanosoma cruzi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Naegleria fowleri belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Acanthamoeba belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To what division of protozoa does Balamuthia mandrillaris belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Naegleria fowleri cause? |
|
Definition
| Primary amebic meningoencephalitis. |
|
|
Term
| What does Acanthamoeba cause? |
|
Definition
| Granulomatous amebic encephalitis and amebic keratitis. |
|
|
Term
| What does Balamuthia madrillaris cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of Naegleria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is infection with Naegleria diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| By finding amebae in CSF. |
|
|
Term
| How is amebic keratitis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infective stage of Acanthamoeba? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which free-living ameba discussed in class is an opportunistic pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of amebic encephalitis is chronic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Balamuthia mandrillaris acquired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Babesiosis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Babesiosis cause? |
|
Definition
| Anemia due to lysing of red blood cells. |
|
|
Term
| What parasite generates ring-like trophozoites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An innocuous substance that causes an IgE response. |
|
|
Term
| What antibody causes Type I hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of antigen causes Type I hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effector mechanism of Type I hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of antibody causes Type II hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of antibody causes Type III hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Serum sickness and the Arthus reaction are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor does IgE bind to on mast cells, eosinophils, and basophils to produce antigen receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can the first exposure to an allergen cause an allergic reaction? |
|
Definition
| No. IgE must already be present. |
|
|
Term
| Is Type I hypersensitivity immediate or delayed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what case can monoclonal IgE cause a Type I hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| If the allergen has repetitive epitopes. |
|
|
Term
| Which cells (mast cells or basophils) are tissue-resident cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What protease is released by mucosal mast cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What protease is released by connective tissue mast cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecules contribute to the late-phase reaction in a Type I hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
| Newly formed lipids, cytokines, and chemokines. |
|
|
Term
| What cells release histamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What enzyme produces histamine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What histamine receptor is involved in allergic reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the result of histamine release from mast cells? |
|
Definition
| Smooth muscle contraction and mucus production. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for prostaglandins and leukotrienes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do prostaglandins and leukotrienes contribute to the late-phase reaction or early-phase reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine, released by what cells, stimulates eosinophil production? |
|
Definition
| IL-5 released by Th2 cells. |
|
|
Term
| The presence of what cells is diagnostic for chronic allergic inflammation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the principle cause of airway damage that occurs in chronic asthma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of basophils in Type I hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
| Initiate Th2/IgE with IL-4 and IL-13. |
|
|
Term
| What type of response is elicited by a skin test or skin exposure to an allergen? |
|
Definition
| Immediate wheal and flare reaction at the site. |
|
|
Term
| Is there a correlation between total IgE and severity of Type I hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to treat systemic anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Mild allergies to inhaled antigens. |
|
|
Term
| Where do allergens that cause allergic rhinitis enter the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the hygiene hypothesis? |
|
Definition
| Exposure of children to multiple infections reduces the likelihood of an allergy. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Type II hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
| Antibodies specific for altered components of human cells. |
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Goodpasture's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction results from the reaction of penicillin with proteins on human cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is prevented by matching ABO antigens of blood donor and recipients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Type III hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
| Immune complexes formed from IgG and soluble antigens. |
|
|
Term
| What complexes cause the most problems with Type III hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can result from the administration of large quantities of soluble antigens, like anti-venom? |
|
Definition
| Type III hypersensitivity. |
|
|
Term
| What are Type IV hypersensitivity reactions mediated by? |
|
Definition
| Antigen-specific effector T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity is delayed-type hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity is contact hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity is celiac disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does the first contact with poison ivy cause a detectable reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes celiac disease? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity to common food proteins. |
|
|
Term
| What is Necator americanus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Ascaris lumbricoides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Enterobius vermicularis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common nematode in the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infective stage of Necator americanus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Necator americanus acquired? |
|
Definition
| Larvae in soil penetrate the skin. |
|
|
Term
| How is Necator americanus diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do adult Necator americanus worms reside? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Necator go through to get to the intestines? |
|
Definition
| Skin, then blood and lungs. |
|
|
Term
| What does Necator americanus feed on, and what is the consequence of this? |
|
Definition
| Necator americanus feeds on red blood cells and causes anemia. |
|
|
Term
| What are three conditions caused by Necator americanus? |
|
Definition
| Pneumonitis, diarrhea, and severe anemia. |
|
|
Term
| What does Ascaris lumbricoides infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the infective form of Ascaris lumbricoides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of Ascaris lumbricoides is diagnostic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do Ascaris larvae migrate through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Ancylostoma caninum cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Toxocara canis cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Toxocara canis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of Enterobius is infective and diagnostic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Enterobius infection acquired? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the cell membrane of fungi and dermatophytes differ from human cell membranes? |
|
Definition
| They have ergosterol/zymosterol. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms of fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between yeasts and molds? |
|
Definition
| Yeasts are single cells, and molds are made up of hyphae and mycelium. |
|
|
Term
| What does Malassezia furfur cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Malassezia furfur infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Trichophyton tinea cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does dermatophytosis invade living tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is subcutaneous mycosis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the causative agents of subcutaneous mycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Sporothrix schenckii cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Rose Gardeners Disease acquired? |
|
Definition
| Traumatic inoculation of spores or inhalation of spores. |
|
|
Term
| What does Histoplasma capsulatum cause? |
|
Definition
| Primary pulmonary disease. |
|
|
Term
| What does Blastomyces dermatitis cause? |
|
Definition
| Primary pulmonary disease. |
|
|
Term
| What does Coccidiodes immitis cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Histoplasma? |
|
Definition
| Dimorphic - yeast in tissue, mold in soil. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to Histoplasma spores after they are inhaled? |
|
Definition
| They are engulfed by macrophages and develop into yeast forms to form granulomas in tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What activities is Blastomyces dermatitides associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What animals are a harbinger of human disease caused by Blatomyces dermatitides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Blastomycosis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| Broad based budding yeast in tissue, urinary antigen. |
|
|
Term
| How is Coccidiodes immitis transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Inhaled from cacti in the desert. |
|
|
Term
| What disease causes fungus balls in the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with "skin tumors"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pathogen is Candida albicans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pathogen is Aspergillus fumigatus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pathogen is P. jiroveci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungus, which is often part of the normal flora, causes thrush? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungus is associated with denture stomatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungus is associated with endocarditis in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungus causes oral infections in newborns due to an infection in the mother? |
|
Definition
| Candida albicans (oral candidiasis). |
|
|
Term
| How is Cryptococcus neoformans acquired? |
|
Definition
| Inhalation of spores, which become deposited in the pulmonary alveoli. |
|
|
Term
| What tissue does Cryptococcus neoformans have a predilection for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is C. neoformans encapsulated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with pigeon droppings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of meningitis in HIV patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease are HIV patients treated for prophylactically once CD4 count falls below 100? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Aspergillus fumigatus transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Inhalation of large numbers of spores. |
|
|
Term
| What fungus is linked to hepatocellular carcinoma due to aflatoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is zygomycosis (mucormycosis) acquired? |
|
Definition
| Everywhere (it is ubiquitous in nature). |
|
|
Term
| What state are zygomycetes always in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What fungi have hyphae that branch at bizarre angles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is at an increased risk for rhinocerebral infection from zygomycosis? |
|
Definition
| Poorly controlled diabetics. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of azole antifungals? |
|
Definition
| Interfere with ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme. |
|
|
Term
| Which azoles (imidazoles or triazoles) can be used systemically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two contraindications for use of azole antifungals. |
|
Definition
| Heart failure and drugs that prolong the QT interval. |
|
|
Term
| What class of antifungals is generally well tolerated but can cause GI distress, elevated liver enzymes, and prolonged QT interval and torsades? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Resistance is a major problem for which azole antifungal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Fluconazole distribute to the CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition requires caution when using Fluconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antifungal can cause dry mouth, alopecia, and muscle weakness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two indications for use of Fluconazole? |
|
Definition
| Candidiasis and cryptococcosis. |
|
|
Term
| Which has a broader spectrum, Fluconazole or Itraconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Itraconazole distribute to CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Itraconaozole eliminated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Itraconazole administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a contraindication for Itraconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antifungal interacts with PPIs, H2 receptor blockers, and antacids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antifungal causes the following side effects?
Typical of azoles plus:
-Peripheral neuropathy, visual disturbances, hearing loss, tinnitus (rare)
- Congestive heart failure (rare) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antifungal is a potent P450 inhibitor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antifungal causes visual disturbances and photosensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Vorioconazole eliminated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Posconazole distribute to CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Posaconazole get eliminated? |
|
Definition
| Fecal elimination of unchanged drug and metabolites. |
|
|
Term
| What is the broadest spectrum antifungal, used for prophylaxis against candida and aspergillus in severely immunocompromised patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What increases the absorption of Posaconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antifungal is a prodrug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Isovuconazonium administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Isavuconazonium distribute to the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the half-life of Isovuconazonium long or short? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Isovuconazonium eliminated? |
|
Definition
| Hepatic metabolism followed by fecal/renal elimination. |
|
|
Term
| Does Isovuconazonium have many drug interactions? |
|
Definition
| Yes. It can interact with man drugs and grapefruit because it is a CYP3A4 substrate. |
|
|
Term
| What antifungal is used for invasive aspergillosis and mucormycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Clotrimazole administered? |
|
Definition
| Topically and with oral lozenges. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main side-effect of Clotrimazole? |
|
Definition
| Local discomfort with intravaginal administration. |
|
|
Term
| What antifungal is used for vaginal candidiasis, superficial candidiasis, dermatophytic infections, and oral candidiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drugs end in -fungin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of echinocandins? |
|
Definition
| They inhibit the synthesis of 1,3-beta-D-glucan, a component of the fungal cell wall. |
|
|
Term
| How are echinocandins administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are echinocandins eliminated? |
|
Definition
| Redistribution and slow metabolism. |
|
|
Term
| In what case would you need to decrease the dose of echinocandins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antifungals are used for Aspergillosis, severe Candida infections, and esophageal candidiasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are echinocandins appropriate for use in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
| No. They are pregnancy category C. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of polyene is less nephrotoxic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of polyenes? |
|
Definition
| Polyenes bind to ergosterol and permeability of fungi. |
|
|
Term
| How are polyenes administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do polyenes distribute to CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are polyenes eliminated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a contraindication for polyenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drugs has a synergistic interaction with flucytosine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are polyenes safe to use in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of antifungals is used for rapidly progressing, severe mycoses and nonresponsive infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole? |
|
Definition
| Production of reactive oxygen species leads to DNA damage. |
|
|
Term
| How is metronidazole administered to treat protozoal infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does metronidazole distribute to CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is metronidazole eliminated? |
|
Definition
| Hepatic metabolism (may turn urine reddish brown). |
|
|
Term
| For whom is metronidazole contraindicated? |
|
Definition
| Women in the first trimester of pregnancy. |
|
|
Term
| What drug has an antabuse-like reaction with ethanol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antiparasitic has the following spectrum of activity?
Trichmonas
Amebiasis (+luminal amebicide)
Giardia,
Anaerobic bacterial infections
Gardnerella bacterial vaginosis
Rosacea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of pyrimethamine? |
|
Definition
| Disrupts folic acid synthesis in parasites by inhibiting DHFR. |
|
|
Term
| What anti-parasitic drug is synergistic with sulfonamides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Pyrimethamine used for? |
|
Definition
| Toxoplasmosis and malaria. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of chloroquine? |
|
Definition
| It accumulates in the parasitic food vacuole and prevents protozoal polymerization and detoxification of heme. |
|
|
Term
| What is chloroquine used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of malaria is commonly resistant to chloroquine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Mefloquine used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment and prophylaxis for chloroquine-resistant malaria. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Mefloquine? |
|
Definition
| It prevents heme degradation in the parasite. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main toxicity of Mefloquine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Atovaquone used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment and prevention of chloroquine-resistant malaria strains. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Atovaquone? |
|
Definition
| It interferes with electron transfer (energy production). |
|
|
Term
| What are three contraindications for using Atovaquone? |
|
Definition
| Small child, pregnant, severe renal impairment. |
|
|
Term
| What are Artemisins used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of a broad spectrum of malaria types. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Artemisinins? |
|
Definition
| It is converted to an active drug that produces reactive oxygen species. |
|
|
Term
| What can't Artemisinins be used in monotherapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Primaquine used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of relapsing malaria after treating and eliminating the erythrocytic stage. |
|
|
Term
| What are two contraindications for use of Primaquine? |
|
Definition
| G6PD deficiency and pregnancy. |
|
|
Term
| What is Quinine used for? |
|
Definition
| Treatment of chloroquine-resistant strains of malaria (not prophylaxis). |
|
|
Term
| What should Quinine be combined with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Quinine? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits heme detoxification. |
|
|
Term
| Who is more likely to have an autoimmune disease, males or females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease results if an antibody against the insulin receptor acts as an antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease results of an antibody against the insulin receptor acts as an agonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity causes Type 1 diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Goodpasture's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Goodpasture's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Antibodies directed against Type IV collagen react with the basement membrane, resulting in immune complex deposition in the kidney. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Graves' Disease? |
|
Definition
| Antibodies against the TSH receptor cause release of thyroid hormone. |
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Graves' Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of the transfer of Graves' Disease between hosts with serum? |
|
Definition
| This demonstrates a soluble mediator (antibodies). |
|
|
Term
| What causes Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
| Destruction of thyroid tissue by both antibody and T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by ectopic lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease causes a butterfly rash? |
|
Definition
| Systemic lupus erythematosus. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Antibodies against nucleic acids and nucleoproteins. |
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Anti Ig play a major role in the inflammatory process in rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a treatment for rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides anti-TNF-alpha, what is another treatment for rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
| Anti-CD20 antibodies reduce B cell levels and improve symptoms. |
|
|
Term
| What causes multiple sclerosis? |
|
Definition
| Th1 cells activated against the myelin sheath. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
| Antibodies to the acetyl choline receptors induce their degradation. |
|
|
Term
| Autoimmunity is a failure in what cells' tolerance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Deficiency in the transcription factor AIRE. |
|
|
Term
| What receptor on T cells checks the activating stimulation via CD28/B7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Given an example of an inhibitory cytokine released by Treg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What T cells are activated by CTLA4? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is required for Treg development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Immune Dysregulation Polyendocrinopathy Enteropathy X-linked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn's disease are associated with increased levels of what kind of T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary genetic factor determining susceptibility to autoimmune diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can a certain HLA allele guarantee disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does HLA affect the susceptibility to autoimmune disease? |
|
Definition
| By presenting specific subsets of peptides. |
|
|
Term
| How does inflammation facilitate the development of autoimmunity? |
|
Definition
| IFN-gamma induces expression of MHC class II on cells that do not normally express class II, which increases the probability of activating an auto-reactive T cell. |
|
|
Term
| What is epitope spreading? |
|
Definition
| An immune response against an increasing number of epitopes causes progression of autoimmune disease. |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a disease that illustrates the consequences of epitope spreading. |
|
Definition
| Pemphigus vulgaris is caused by anti-desmoglein Ig. |
|
|
Term
| What is solid organ rejection? |
|
Definition
| The host attacks and destroys the transplant. |
|
|
Term
| What is graft vs host disease? |
|
Definition
| The transplant attacks the host. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Response of one individual against antigens (proteins) which differ among members of the same species. |
|
|
Term
| What causes hyperacute rejection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three situations induce anti-HLA? |
|
Definition
| Pregnancy, multiple blood transfusions, and previous organ transplants. |
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity is similar to hyperacute rejection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes acute rejection? |
|
Definition
| Host has alloreactive T cells that recognize donor Class I/II. |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for acute rejection to develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is acute rejection mediated by a direct or indirect pathway of allorecognition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test is used to test for alloreactivity before transplantation of solid organs? |
|
Definition
| The mixed lymphocyte reaction. PBLs from recipient are mixed with irradiated PBLs from donor, and the proliferation and function of recipient T cells is measured. |
|
|
Term
| Acute rejection is analogous to what type of hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for chronic rejection to occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of chronic rejection? |
|
Definition
| Antibody against HLA interacts with FcR on PMN and monocytes to initiate an inflammatory reaction. |
|
|
Term
| Does chronic rejection involve direct or indirect recognition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are corticosteroids used for? |
|
Definition
| They are anti-inflammatory immunosuppressive drugs. |
|
|
Term
| In what class of drugs does Prednisone belong? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
| Interfere with NF-kB which activates transcription of pro-inflammatory cytokines. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A cytotoxic immunosuppressive drug. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Azathioprene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Cyclophosphamide? |
|
Definition
| A cytotoxic immunosuppressive drug. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Cyclophosphamide? |
|
Definition
| It crosslinks DNA and blocks cell division. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A cytotoxic immunosuppressive drug. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate? |
|
Definition
| It blocks DNA replication. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inhibitor of T cell activation that acts as an immunosuppressive drug. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inhibitor of T cell activation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Cyclosporin A and Tacrolimus? |
|
Definition
| They interfere with calcineurin, which activates the transcription factor NFAT. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Rapamycin? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits T cell activation by interfering with signal transduction via IL2R. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of Belatacept? |
|
Definition
| It is soluble CTLA4, which binds B7 and blocks delivery of signal 2 (CD28-B7). |
|
|
Term
| Why can the eye be transplanted across HLA differences? |
|
Definition
The cornea lacks vasculature.
The aqueous humor contains immune response inhibitors like TGF-beta, which generate immature DCs. These DCs produce tolerance. |
|
|
Term
| Why can the liver be transplanted across HLA differences? |
|
Definition
It has very low levels of HLA.
It is constantly exposed to foreign proteins from the GI tract, which leads to low inflammatory state. |
|
|
