Term
| What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence? |
|
Definition
| Pathogenicity is the ability to cause disease (qualitative term). Virulence is quantification of the ability to cause disease. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four requirements for an organism to be pathogenic? |
|
Definition
1. Gain entry into the host.
2. Adhere to tissues within the host.
3. Evade host defenses.
4. Elicit some sort of damage to the host. |
|
|
Term
| List the four ways that a pathogen can be transmitted. |
|
Definition
1. Autoinoculation (opportunistic infection).
2. Person-to-person (communicable infection).
3. Animal-to-person (zoonotic infection).
4. Environmental (opportunistic infection). |
|
|
Term
| What is the term for microbes that inhabit healthy humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the four types of pathogen. |
|
Definition
| Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Salmonella enteritidis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Variola? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must happen to complement proteins in order for them to be activated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two main functions of complement? |
|
Definition
| Complement facilitates bacterial destruction and induces inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor to a macrophage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 jobs of macrophages? |
|
Definition
1. Recognize pathogens.
2. Eat pathogens.
3. Communicate with other cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytokines tell cells what to do. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chemokines tell cells where to go. |
|
|
Term
| What are the second responders in innate immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What precursor gives rise to neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What precursor gives rise to eosinophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What precursor gives rise to basophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two functions of neutrophils? |
|
Definition
| Phagocytosis and release of cytokines. |
|
|
Term
| What are three locations where neutrophils are found? |
|
Definition
| Bone marrow, blood, and sites of inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| Do neutrophils have a short life span or a long life span? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability in inflammation? |
|
Definition
| It allows fluid, protein, and inflammatory cells to leave the bloodstream and enter the tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What immune response is activated if pathogen spreads to lymphoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is faster, innate immunity or adaptive immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are the recognition mechanisms of innate immunity fixed or variable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are the recognition mechanisms of adaptive immunity fixed or variable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do the recognition mechanisms of innate immunity or adaptive immunity have a greater number of specificities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do the recognition mechanisms of innate immunity or adaptive immunity improve during the response? |
|
Definition
| Adaptive immunity. The recognition mechanisms of innate immunity are constant during the response. |
|
|
Term
| What is the common precursor of all immune cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for B cells? |
|
Definition
| Common lymphoid progenitor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for plasma cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for the NK/T cell precursor? |
|
Definition
| Common lymphoid progenitor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for NK cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the precursor for dendritic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most abundant type of leukocyte in human peripheral blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells are the mediators of adaptive immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of lymphocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of dendritic cells? |
|
Definition
| Dendritic cells are myeloid cells that interact with and help activate lymphocytes. They process and present antigen to naive T cells. |
|
|
Term
| Where does positive selection of T cells occur, and what cells participate in this positive selection? |
|
Definition
| Positive selection of T cells occurs in the cortex of the thymus, and T cells are positively selected by epithelial cells. |
|
|
Term
| Where does negative selection of thymocytes occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Helper or regulatory T cells. |
|
|
Term
| Are most lymphocytes in the blood or the lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two primary lymphoid tissues. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs in primary lymphoid tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three secondary lymphoid tissues. |
|
Definition
| Lymph nodes, spleen, and Peyer's patches. |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in secondary lymphoid tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do pathogens and pathogen-infected dendritic cells travel to the lymph nodes via the blood or the lymphatics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do naive lymphocytes arrive at lymph nodes via blood or lymphatics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cell is predominant in lymphoid follicles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do germinal centers form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the spleen? |
|
Definition
| Blood filter (no lymphatics). |
|
|
Term
| Do MALT/GALT have afferent lymphatics, efferent lymphatics, both, or neither? |
|
Definition
| Efferent, but not afferent. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the majority of secondary lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two ways that antibodies combat infection? |
|
Definition
| Neutralization and opsonization. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first antibody made against an infecting pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What process selects for antibodies that bind more tightly to pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Switching IgM to which Ig isotype allows delivery of the pathogen to phagocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What describes the movement of a T cell into and out of a lymph node? |
|
Definition
| Enters via the bloodstream and exits via the efferent lymphatics. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the flagella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What motion results from a counterclockwise motion of the flagella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What motion results from a clockwise motion of the flagella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two functions of pili. |
|
Definition
| Attachment and conjugation/mating. |
|
|
Term
| Does Bacillus anthracis have a capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Streptococcus pneumoniae have a capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance usually makes up the capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What makes up the capsule of B. anthracis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 ways that capsules are an important virulence factor. |
|
Definition
| Adherence, protection from desiccation, anti-phagocytic. |
|
|
Term
| What do Quellung and India ink detect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. |
|
Definition
| Gram-positive bacteria have one cell membrane, which is surrounded by a thick peptidoglycan cell wall. Gram-negative bacteria have two cell membranes and a thin layer of peptidoglycan. |
|
|
Term
| Where is lipopolysaccharide located? |
|
Definition
| In the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of penicillin? |
|
Definition
| It blocks the cross-linking of peptide side chains in the peptidoglycan cell wall. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of bacitracin? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of cycloserine? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| Teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid are located on which bacterial cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 components of LPS? |
|
Definition
| Lipid A, core polysaccharide, and O side chain. |
|
|
Term
| Does C. difficile form spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule is in the cortex of spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the formula for the number of bacterial cells at time t? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the formula for number of generations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the formula for generation time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During which phase of growth can generation time be calculated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What toxin is associated with potatoes and can cause dizziness, dysphagia, blurred vision, and difficulty breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does endotoxin cause damage? |
|
Definition
| It causes collateral damage through inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| Distinguish toxinosis from infection. |
|
Definition
| In a toxinosis, symptoms are due solely to the presence of a toxin. In an infection, the bacteria produces toxin after infection. |
|
|
Term
| Is staphylococcal food poisoning a toxinosis or an infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which has a faster onset, a toxinosis or infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Campylobacter jejuni cause toxinosis or infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is perfringolysin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is C. difficile toxin B (and A)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is S. aureus leukocidin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is botulinum toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is tetanus toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is C. difficile toxin A (and B)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is cholera toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is E. coli heat labile toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of toxin is Shiga toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of pore-forming toxins. |
|
Definition
| Perfringolysin and S. aureus leukocidins. |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a toxin that disrupts the actin cytoskeleton. |
|
Definition
| C. difficile toxins A and B disrupt the actin cytoskeleton by inactivating Rho GTPases. |
|
|
Term
| Give three examples of toxins that work by ADP-ribosylating. |
|
Definition
| Cholera toxin, E. coli heat labile toxin, and pertussis toxin. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly, what is the mechanism of action of tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of C. perfringens alpha toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is botulinum toxin a simple or compound A-B toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is cholera toxin a simple or compound A-B toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the B subunit of cholera toxin do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the A subunit of cholera toxin do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium produces diphtheria toxin? |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin? |
|
Definition
| It ADP-ribosylates EF2 and shuts down protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| How is the diphtheria toxin carried? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Clostridium botulinum Gram-positive or Gram-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Clostridium botulinum aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Clostridium botulinum form spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of Clostridium botulinum? |
|
Definition
| Environmental: soil and water. |
|
|
Term
| List the three forms of botulism and state whether each is a toxinosis or an infection. |
|
Definition
Foodborne - toxinosis.
Infant (consumption of spores) - infection.
Wound - infection. |
|
|
Term
| What type of paralysis is observed in botulism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for botulism? |
|
Definition
Passive immunotherapy using antiserum.
Mechanical ventilator. |
|
|
Term
| Is Clostridium tetani Gram-positive or Gram-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is clostridium tetani aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Clostridium tetani usually enter the body? |
|
Definition
| It can colonize deep wounds. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of tetanus toxin? |
|
Definition
| It migrates to the neuron cell body in the CNS and blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters. |
|
|
Term
| What type of paralysis results from tetanus toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of shiga toxin? |
|
Definition
| It cleaves host ribosomal RNA, blocking protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a normal antigen and a superantigen? |
|
Definition
| Normal antigens are taken up and processed by APCs and displayed to T cells in the binding groove of a class II MHC. Superantigens are not processed and bind directly to the class II MHC outside the normal groove nondiscriminately, leading to activation of many T cells. |
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of superantigens. |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes make toxins that cause toxic shock syndrome. |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of toxic shock syndrome on the sensitivity to LPS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the toxic portion of LPS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the variable portion of LPS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the potency of endotoxin compare with the potency of exotoxins? |
|
Definition
| Endotoxin is weaker than exotoxins, but large numbers of endotoxins are often involved. |
|
|
Term
| List the three important cytokines that cause an inflammatory response to endotoxin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three effects of endotoxin on the endothelial cells lining blood vessels. |
|
Definition
| Coagulation, vasodilation, hypotension. |
|
|
Term
| List 4 criteria for SIRS. |
|
Definition
Hyper- or hypothermia.
Tachypnea.
High or low WBC count.
Tachycardia. |
|
|
Term
| List the criteria for sepsis. |
|
Definition
| 2 SIRS criteria + infection. |
|
|
Term
| List the criteria for severe sepsis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the criteria for septic shock. |
|
Definition
| Severe sepsis + hypotension. |
|
|
Term
| List the criteria for toxic shock. |
|
Definition
| Septic shock caused by Group A Streptococcus or Staphylococcus aureus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three main functions of the complement system? |
|
Definition
Enhance immune cell function.
Induce inflammation.
Induce lysis of bacterial cells. |
|
|
Term
| Define complement fixation. |
|
Definition
| Attachment of C3b to a bacterium. |
|
|
Term
| List the three pathways that activate C3. |
|
Definition
| Alternative, lectin, classical. |
|
|
Term
| Which pathway of C3 activation is first to act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathway of C3 activation is second to act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathway of C3 activation is third to act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which pathway of C3 activation does the pathogen surface create a local environment conducive to complement activation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which pathway of complement activation does mannose-binding lectin bind to the pathogen surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which pathway of complement activation does a C-reactive protein or antibody bind to a specific antigen on the pathogen surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Properdin stabilizes C3bBb on the pathogen surfaces. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Factor H counters properdin by making C3b susceptible to cleavage by Factor I. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It cleaves C3b into iC3b and inhibits C3 convertase. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They destabilize C3bBb on host cell surfaces. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of CR1 on macrophages? |
|
Definition
| It binds to C3b on bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of the alternative C5 convertase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of C5b? |
|
Definition
| It initiates formation of the membrane attack complex. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria does the MAC primarily work on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It binds to C5b678 and blocks the binding of C9 to the forming MAC. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of nocturnal paroxysmal hemoglobinurea? |
|
Definition
| The GPI anchor that attaches DAF and CD59 is missing, which causes inappropriate formation of the MAC on erythrocytes and spontaneous complement-mediated hemolysis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are anaphylatoxins that bind to cell receptors and induce degranulation of mast cells and basophils. |
|
|
Term
| What do serpins and alpha-macroglobulins do? |
|
Definition
| They block the action of microbial proteases. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 35-40 amino acid peptides with antimicrobial activity. |
|
|
Term
| What cells make alpha-defensins? |
|
Definition
| Panneth cells (intestinal crypt cells) and neutrophils. |
|
|
Term
| What cells make beta-defensins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the three types of macrophage receptors that recognize pathogens. |
|
Definition
| Complement receptors, pattern recognition receptors, and toll-like receptors. |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of TLR signaling (especially TLR4)? |
|
Definition
| Production of inflammatory cytokines. |
|
|
Term
| What is the location of TLR4 and TLR1:TLR2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the location of TLR3, and what does it recognize? |
|
Definition
| TLR3 is on intracellular membranes and recognizes pathogenic nucleic acids (ds RNA). |
|
|
Term
| What protein does LPS bind to on macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What three parts form the complex that recognizes LPS on macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What adaptor protein bridges the signaling components in TLR4 signaling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IRAK4? |
|
Definition
| It is a kinase that phosphorylates TRAF6 in the TLR4 signaling cascade. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function if IKK? |
|
Definition
| IKK phosphorylates IKB, leading to the formation of NFKB. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A transcription factor that induces expression of multiple pro-inflammatory cytokines. |
|
|
Term
| What adaptor proteins are involved in the TLR4 signaling in response to viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is involved in the TLR4 signaling in response to viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is secreted as a result of TLR4 signaling in response to viruses? |
|
Definition
| Type 1 interferons: IFN-alpha and IFN-beta. |
|
|
Term
| List two functions of IL-6. |
|
Definition
| Fever and induction of acute phase protein production by hepatocytes. |
|
|
Term
| List 5 functions of TNF-alpha. |
|
Definition
Activate vascular endothelium.
Increase vascular permeability.
Fever.
Mobilization of metabolites.
Shock. |
|
|
Term
| List 5 effects of IL-1-beta. |
|
Definition
Activates vascular endothelium.
Activates lymphocytes.
Local tissue destruction.
Fever.
Production of IL-6. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of CXCL8? |
|
Definition
| Chemotactic factor that recruits neutrophils and basophils to the site of infection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IL-12? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Carbohydrate-binding molecules on leukocytes that are used to attach to other cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cell-specific oligosaccharides. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Alpha, beta heterodimers that bind to immunoglobulin-like molecules and play a role in leukocyte circulation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An adhesion molecules that is recognized by LFA-1. |
|
|
Term
| What molecule on the endothelial surface binds tightly with LFA-1 on neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine increases expression of ICAM-1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do neutrophils use to kill? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What granules contain lysozyme, defensins, myeloperoxidase, and proteases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What granules contain lactoferrin (which competes for iron) and NADPH oxidase, which is essential for neutrophil function and respiratory burst? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of the respiratory burst on pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of chronic granulomatous disease? |
|
Definition
| Lack of NADPH oxidase causes infections to be contained in localized nodules or granules. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main function of acute-phase proteins? |
|
Definition
| Activation of complement and opsonization. |
|
|
Term
| List the three benefits of fever. |
|
Definition
Decreased rate of pathogen replication.
Human cells become resistant to TNF-alpha.
Antigen processing and presentation is increased. |
|
|
Term
| List the three proteins of the acute phase response. |
|
Definition
| C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, and mannose-binding protein. |
|
|
Term
| What does C-reactive protein bind to on bacteria and fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What complement protein binds to CRP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is the first component in activation of the classical pathway by C-reactive protein or immunoglobulin. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 cellular responses to type I interferons? |
|
Definition
Increased resistance to viral replication in all cells.
Increased expression of ligands for receptors on NK cells.
Activate NK cells to kill virus-infected cells. |
|
|
Term
| What do NK cells produce to activate adaptive (T cell) immunity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do NK cell receptors deliver positive or negative signals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An inhibitory receptor on NK cells. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An activating receptor on NK cells. |
|
|
Term
| Ligands for what NK cell receptor are produced in response to viral infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines are involved in activation of blood vessel endothelium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines are involved in fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is involved in induction of IL6 synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is responsible for increased vascular permeability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine causes localized tissue destruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine causes acute-phase protein production by hepatocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine induces resistance to viral replication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines activate NK cells? |
|
Definition
| IL12, type I interferons. |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is involved in leukocyte chemotaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is involved in activation of binding by beta-2 integrins (LFA-1, CR3)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is involved in septic shock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine is involved in mobilization of metabolites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which body site harbors the greatest number of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A structured, multi-layered community of adherent bacteria |
|
|
Term
| Why are biofilms important? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are single species biofilms found? |
|
Definition
| Normally sterile sites (heart valves, bone, implanted devices). |
|
|
Term
| Where are multi-species biofilms found? |
|
Definition
| Exposed sites (teeth, skin). |
|
|
Term
| List three beneficial functions of normal flora. |
|
Definition
Nutrition.
Protection from bad microbes.
Immune stimulation. |
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin is produced in Peyer's patches in response to the gut flora? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What results from the immune response to commensals? |
|
Definition
| Release of cytokines that bolster the mucus layer and protect from pathogens and food antigens. |
|
|
Term
| What are two ways that commensal organisms protect against bad microbes? |
|
Definition
| Exclusion and production of bactericidal compounds. |
|
|
Term
| What causes bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
| Dysbiosis: Normal healthy lactobacilli replaced by harmful anaerobic bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
Thin, watery discharge.
Fishy odor.
Itching. |
|
|
Term
| What does bacterial vaginosis increase the risk for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Amsel criteria for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
Thin, grayish-white discharge.
Increased vaginal pH.
Positive whiff test.
Clue cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is a harmful effect of normal flora? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can S. aureus cause opportunistic folliculitis? |
|
Definition
| Penetrate razor-burned skin. |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of device-related infections? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus epidermidis. |
|
|
Term
| Why are patients susceptible to Streptococcus pneumoniae after transplantation surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a likely cause of antibiotic-associated pseudomembraneous colitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic is particularly likely to cause C. diff infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. The microorganism must always be found in similarly diseased animals but not in healthy ones.
2. Microorganisms must be isolated from diseased animals and grown in pure culture.
3. The isolated organism must cause the original disease when inoculated into a susceptible animal.
4. The microorganism can be reisolated from the experimentally infected animal. |
|
|
Term
| What are two roles of adherence of pathogens? |
|
Definition
| Avoid physical removal by host defenses and aid in nutrient uptake. |
|
|
Term
| State the requirement of bacteria for carbon dioxide. |
|
Definition
| All bacteria require carbon dioxide in a catalytic amount. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bacteria that require carbon dioxide in a greater concentration than found in air. |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a capnophile. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of enriched media. |
|
Definition
| Blood agar and chocolate agar. |
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of selective media. |
|
Definition
| Salmonella-Shigella agar, Mod. Thayer-Martin. |
|
|
Term
| Give three examples of differential media. |
|
Definition
| EMB, blood agar, MacConkey. |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a medium that is both selective and differential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does MacConkey agar select for? |
|
Definition
| Gram-negative enteric bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What do pink colonies on MacConkey agar mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Partial lysis, green (oxidation of Hg). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stain is used to detect Mycobacteria in clinical specimens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a medium that is only an enriched medium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What biochemical test detects the presence of a clotting enzyme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Quellung reaction detect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an advantage of using nucleic acid based tests? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of a bacteriostatic drug? |
|
Definition
| Addition of the drug results in growth arrest. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the antigen-binding sites on a TCR or antibody? |
|
Definition
| Hypervariable regions (CDRs). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The antigenic region or the part of the molecule that is recognized by TCR or Ig. |
|
|
Term
| How many gene segments are in the variable region of the light chain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many gene segments are in the variable region of the heavy chain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four mechanisms of antigen-independent development of diversity. |
|
Definition
1. The presence of multiple V genes.
2. V-D-J and V-J recombinations.
3. Combinations of chains.
4. Junctional diversity. |
|
|
Term
| What is the B cell antigen recognition receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the effector protein for adaptive humoral immune responses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What other membrane proteins are associated with membrane Ig? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is somatic hypermutation? |
|
Definition
| In response to antigen, somatic hypermutation targets the rearranged gene segments encoding the variable region. Mutations are introduced to the V region at a high rate. |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of somatic hypermutation? |
|
Definition
| Increased affinity for antigen or affinity maturation. |
|
|
Term
| What determines the function of Ig? |
|
Definition
| Heavy chain regions (Fc). |
|
|
Term
| What stimulates isotype switching? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs at the genetic level during isotype switching? |
|
Definition
| VDJ associates with a secondary CH. |
|
|
Term
| Does co-expression of IgM and IgD require antigen or DNA rearrangement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the other proteins required for TCR expression. |
|
Definition
| CD3 (gamma, delta, and epsilon) and zeta. |
|
|
Term
| What type of receptor is expressed by most T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define antigen processing. |
|
Definition
| The intracellular generation of peptides from protein. |
|
|
Term
| Define antigen presentation. |
|
Definition
| Association of peptides with MHC on the cell membrane. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does TCR recognize peptide presented by non-self MHC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What determines MHC class binding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are pathogens that live inside the cell located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are pathogens that are taken up by the cell located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does processing of antigen for class II occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does processing of antigen for class I occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of TAP? |
|
Definition
| It carries peptides into the ER to associate with MHC class I. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of calnexin? |
|
Definition
| Chaperone that stabilizes MHC class I. |
|
|
Term
| What is required for MHC class I to be expressed in the membrane? |
|
Definition
| A peptide must be in the groove. |
|
|
Term
| What type of peptide is contained by most MHC class I molecules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of invariant chain (li)? |
|
Definition
| It associates with MHC class II in the ER and sits in the binding groove. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to li in the vesicle? |
|
Definition
| It is cleaved, but the CLIP fragment remains in the groove. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of HLA-DM? |
|
Definition
| It causes the release of CLIP from the peptide binding groove in MHC class II. |
|
|
Term
| What cells express MHC class I? |
|
Definition
| All cells except erythrocytes (any cells that might need to be killed). |
|
|
Term
| What cells express MHC class II? |
|
Definition
| Cells that can activate CD4s (T cells, B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells, and thymic epithelium). |
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the gene cluster in which MHC class I, II, and III is found? |
|
Definition
| HLA (human leukocyte antigen). |
|
|
Term
| How many classical class I genes are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are class II genes organized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to say that MHC genes are polymorphic? |
|
Definition
| There are multiple forms (alleles) of each class I chain and each class II gene in the population. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The combination of alleles on an individual's chromosome. |
|
|
Term
| How many class I proteins does each person express? |
|
Definition
| 6 (A, B, and C from each parent). |
|
|
Term
| How many class II proteins does each person express? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What residues of peptides contact MHC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What peptide residues determine the set of peptides with which each MHC interacts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Response against MHC proteins from a different allele. |
|
|
Term
| What process accounts for mothers making antibodies against the fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the genes for MICA and MICB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are MICA and MICB expressed? |
|
Definition
| Fibroblasts and intestinal epithelium. |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to say that MHC molecules have promiscuous binding affinity? |
|
Definition
| A particular MHC molecule has the potential to bind to different peptides. |
|
|
Term
| Give two examples of groups of bacteria that are often naturally transformable. |
|
Definition
| Many streptococci and Neisseria species. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the example discussed in class about how S. pneumoniae can acquire resistance to penicillin. |
|
Definition
| Transformation of a chromosomal pbp gene from oral streptococci. |
|
|
Term
| Do Corynebacteria require special media for cultivation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Corynebacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do Corynebacteria Gram-stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have an unusual Chinese letter morphology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are visualized with metachromatic granules stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause an adherent membrane in the throat? |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can cause a bull neck due to swelling of lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae. |
|
|
Term
| What substance is responsible for most symptoms of diphtheria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What carries the gene encoding diphtheria toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are C. diphtheriae strains lacking the toxin virulent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for diphtheria? |
|
Definition
| Antibiotics and antitoxin. |
|
|
Term
| Are C. diphtheriae normal flora that can cause opportunistic infections like infective endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does B. anthracis gram-stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of B. anthracis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium is characterized by large size, central spores, and a rectangular morphology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is anthrax transmitted? |
|
Definition
| From contact with infected animals or animal products (mainly herbivores) or bioterrorism (not human-to-human transmission). |
|
|
Term
| List the three forms of anthrax. |
|
Definition
| Cutaneous, inhalation, and gastrointestinal. |
|
|
Term
| How does cutaneous anthrax occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by an initial papule that develops into a painless black necrotic eschar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria can cause mediastinal widening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does widespread dissemination of B. anthracis occur? |
|
Definition
| Bacilli multiply within lymph nodes prior to widespread dissemination. |
|
|
Term
| What bacterium has a poly-D-glutamyl capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the colony morphology of B. anthracis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the poly-D-glutamyl capsule function as a virulence factor for B. anthracis? |
|
Definition
| Resistance to phagocytosis. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the structure and function of the anthrax toxin. |
|
Definition
Protective antigen is the binding subunit.
Edema factor has adenylate cyclase activity.
Lethal factor is a protease that kills cells. |
|
|
Term
| How does endospore formation function as a virulence factor for B. anthracis? |
|
Definition
| Provides environmental persistence and facilitates transmission. |
|
|
Term
| Is B. anthracis aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major problem that develops in inhalation anthrax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Bacillus cereus Gram-stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of B. cereus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is Bacillus cereus normally found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two diseases caused by B. cereus. |
|
Definition
| Food-borne intoxication and endophthalmitis. |
|
|
Term
| Is Bacillus cereus food poisoning an intoxication or infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is B. cereus food poisoning treated? |
|
Definition
| No treatment required (self-limiting). |
|
|
Term
| How do Listeria monocytogenes Gram-stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Listeria monocytogenes catalase positive or catalase negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of motility does Listeria monocytogenes have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Listeria monocytogenes spore-forming? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of mild listeriosis? |
|
Definition
| Gastrointestinal or influenza-like. |
|
|
Term
| How does listeriosis manifest itself in the immunocompromised? |
|
Definition
| Miningitis and minigoencephalitis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the consequence of listeriosis in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
| It can lead to spontaneous abortions or generalized neonatal infections. |
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with Mexican-style cheese? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with hot dogs, luncheon meats, and deli meats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for listeriosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Listeria monocytogenes move around in cells? |
|
Definition
| It hijacks the host actin cytoskeleton. |
|
|
Term
| What protein allows Listeria monocytogenes to form an actin cloud? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What environment is conducive to Listeria monocytogenes growth? |
|
Definition
| High salt, low temperature. |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to prevent diphtheria? |
|
Definition
| Vaccination with a toxoid. |
|
|
Term
| How do Staphylococci Gram-stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Stapylococci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Staphylococci catalase-positive or catalase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Streptococci catalase-positive or catalase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is S. aureus coagulase-positive or coagulase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is S. epidermidis coagulase-positive or coagulase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to say that Staphylococci are pyogenic or suppurative? |
|
Definition
| They attract neutrophils, leading to pus formation. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most important defenses against Staph? |
|
Definition
| Neutrophils and opsonophagocytosis. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Chediak-Higashi syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Secretory granule dysfunction. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Job-Buckley syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have protein A as a virulence factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is a virulence factor in Staph that binds to Fc and inhibits opsonophagocytosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of alpha-toxin in Staph? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of gamma toxin in Staph? |
|
Definition
| Lyses red and white blood cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is Panton Valentine Leukocidin associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are TSST-1, Staphylococcal enterotoxins, and exfoliatin? |
|
Definition
| They are superantigen toxins of Staph. |
|
|
Term
| What is the likely cause of toxic shock, high fever, red rash, and sloughing off of skin on the extremities? |
|
Definition
| Colonization by a TSST-producing strain of Staph. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with food poisoning as a result of eating contaminated salty foods, like ham? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Staphylococcal enteritis? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcal enterotoxins. |
|
|
Term
| What toxin and bacteria causes scalded skin syndrome (sunburn-like rash)? |
|
Definition
| Exfoliatin secreted by Staph. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of localized skin and soft tissue infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are aggressively spreading skin infections like cellulitis and necrotizing fasciitis more commonly associated with S. aureus or Group A Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is impetigo associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common cause of CF-related pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of acute endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of bacteremia and pneumonia in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of food poisoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of pyomyositis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of mastitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of abscesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of prosthetic joint infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of catheter-associated infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common contaminant of blood cultures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main virulence factor of S. epidermidis? |
|
Definition
| Polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (slime). |
|
|
Term
| How is S. saprophyticus distinguished from other coagulase negative Staph? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women? |
|
Definition
| E. coli (S. saprophyticus is also common). |
|
|
Term
| How do Streptococi Gram-stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hemolysis does Strep pyogenes do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hemolysis does Strep agalactiae do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is S. pyogenes Group A or Group B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is S. agalactiae Group A or B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hemolysis does S. pneumoniae do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hemolysis does Strep viridans do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hemolysis does Enterococcus do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What group is Enterococcus in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the spread of Staph generally through symptomatic or asymptomatic individuals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the spread of S. pyogenes mainly via symptomatic or asymptomatic individuals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main reservoir of S. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic is S. pyogenes sensitive to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 5 virulence factors of S. pyogenes. |
|
Definition
M protein
Hyaluronic capsule
Hemolysins
Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins
Enzymes |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important virulence factor of S. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of M protein in S. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
| It is anti-phagocytic and binds fibrin. |
|
|
Term
| What virulence factor of S. pyogenes is likely involved with rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium is associated with scarlet fever in children and toxic shock syndrome in adults? |
|
Definition
| S. pyogenes, via pyrogenic exotoxins. |
|
|
Term
| Which is better able to spread through tissues, Group A Streptococci or S. aureus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cellulitis most likely associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is most likely to cause a sandpaper-like rash? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes peurperal fever (postpartum endometritis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of life-threatening infections in neonates? |
|
Definition
| S. agalactiae (Group B Strep). |
|
|
Term
| What is the major virulence factor of S. agalactiae (Group B strep)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of S. pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis at any age except neonates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of otitis media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major virulence factor of S. pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsule. |
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria commonly colonize teeth and lead to caries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do anaerobes have catalase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do anaerobes have superoxide dismutase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Clostridium tetani Gram-negative or Gram-positive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Clostridium tetani? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause myonecrosis or gas gangrene and food-borne infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Clostridium species aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the growth of Clostridium perfringens rapid or slow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of binary clostridial enterotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have a double zone of hemolysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause myonecrosis (gas gangrene)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Clostridia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Clostridia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Clostridium botulinum subgroup is the most common cause of disease in the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause "failure to thrive" and "floppy baby syndrome." |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have a terminal spore with distension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause spastic paralysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the predominant genus found in the colon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common Bacteroides species in infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Bacteroides fragilis infection disseminated? |
|
Definition
| Bacteremia and abscess following surgery or trauma to the gut. |
|
|
Term
| Is Bacteroides fragilis Gram-positive or Gram-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with a polysaccharide capsule that can initiate abscesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with intra-abdominal abscesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with gynecological infections and abscesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common anaerobe isolated from the blood in bacteremia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Bacteroides fragilis aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What toxin secreted by B. fragilis causes gastroenteritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Bacteroides fragilis? |
|
Definition
| Slender Gram-negative rods. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A stem cell marker used clinically for stem cell transplantation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A critical cytokine in lymphocyte development. |
|
|
Term
| At what stage is IL-7Ralpha expressed in B cell development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first identifiable B cell that has a limited capacity for self-renewal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of B cell development does D-J rearrangement of the heavy chains occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of B cell development does V-DJ rearrangement of the heavy chains occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of B cell development does V-J rearrangement of the light chains occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the role of CAMs in B cell development? |
|
Definition
| Adherence to bone marrow stromal cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of integrins like VLA-4 in B cell development? |
|
Definition
| Adherence to VCAM-1 on bone marrow stromal cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of Kit in B cell development? |
|
Definition
| Kit is a receptor on the pro-B cell that binds to SCF on the bone marrow stromal cells. |
|
|
Term
| What rearrangement leads to expression of the pre-BCR? |
|
Definition
| Heavy chain rearrangement. |
|
|
Term
| What is the light chain on the pre-BCR? |
|
Definition
| Surrogate light chain (VpreB). |
|
|
Term
| Is pre-BCR expression required for development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stops heavy chain rearrangement and starts light chain rearrangement? |
|
Definition
| Heavy chain expression with surrogate light chain. |
|
|
Term
| What is allelic exclusion in B cell development? |
|
Definition
| Only one heavy chain is expressed. |
|
|
Term
| What is light chain isotype exclusion? |
|
Definition
| Only one light chain (lambda or kappa) can be expressed). |
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin does an immature B cell express? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the advantage of allelic and light chain isotype exclusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of RAG-1 and RAG-2? |
|
Definition
| Lymphoid-specific recombinase in B cell development. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of TdT? |
|
Definition
| N-nucleotide addition in B cell development. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of Btk in B cell development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What protein in B cell development is associated with inherited immune deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes B cell tumors? |
|
Definition
| Aberrant rearrangements in which an Ig gene is placed next to a proto-oncogene. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to non-self reacting B cells? |
|
Definition
| They express mIgD and exit to the blood. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to B cells that bind multivalent self-antigens? |
|
Definition
| They are retained in the bone marrow and get a second chance. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to a B cell if it binds to soluble univalent self-antigen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do B cells enter a lymph node? |
|
Definition
| They arrive at the T cell area in an HEV. |
|
|
Term
| What is the key survival step when a B cell enters secondary lymphoid tissue? |
|
Definition
| Entry into a primary follicle. |
|
|
Term
| What is a primary follicle populated by? |
|
Definition
| Follicular dendritic cells that both retain antigen and give a non-specific survival signal. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It attracts immature B cells to the HEV. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It attracts B cells into the primary follicle. |
|
|
Term
| What interactions drive maturation of immature B cells in a lymph node? |
|
Definition
| Interactions with follicular dendritic cells and cytokines. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to B cells that find antigen in the T cell zone? |
|
Definition
| They form a primary focus. Some mature to plasma cells. |
|
|
Term
| Where do B cells go from the primary focus? |
|
Definition
| To the follicle to form a a germinal center. |
|
|
Term
| Where do isotype switching, affinity maturation, and memory cell development occur in B cell development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of ALL? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of pre-B cell leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of mantle cell lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of chronic lymphocytic leukemia? |
|
Definition
| Activated or memory B cell. |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of follicular center cell lymphoma or Burkitt's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
| Mature memory B cell that resembles a germinal center B cell. |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of Hodgkin's lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal cell equivalent of multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
| Plasma cell (various isotypes). |
|
|
Term
| What type of cells, highlighted in red in the PowerPoint, is present in the cortex of the thymus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of they thymus contains epithelial cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, and thymocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the thymus as it ages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the lifespan of T cells compare with that of B cells? |
|
Definition
| Mature peripheral T cells are long-lived and self-renewing, while B cells are not. B cells are continually replenished from the bone marrow. |
|
|
Term
| When a cell first commits to the T cell lineage, does it express CD4 or CD8? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine drives T cell development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Notch is a receptor on thymocytes that keeps a cell on the T cell path and away from the B cell path. |
|
|
Term
| What is expressed as a result of a beta victory in T cell development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is CD4 or CD8 expressed when the pre-TCR is expressed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to beta rearrangement when the pre-TCR is expressed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to alpha, gamma, and delta rearrangement when the pre-TCR is expressed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells mediate the positive selection for MHC recognition? |
|
Definition
| Cortical epithelial cells. |
|
|
Term
| Do most developing T cells recognize MHC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What determines expression of CD4 or CD8? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does negative selection eliminate in T cell development? |
|
Definition
| Self-peptide-reactive T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major cells that mediate negative selection in the thymus? |
|
Definition
| Dendritic cells and macrophages. |
|
|
Term
| What triggers apoptosis during negative selection in T cell development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AIRE is a transcription factor that promotes expression of tissue-specific antigens in the thymus for negative selection. It is expressed by epithelial cells in the medulla. |
|
|
Term
| What type of antigens do regulatory T cells recognize? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two molecules characterize regulatory T cells? |
|
Definition
| CD25 and the transcription factor FoxP3. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of N. gonorrhoeae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are N. gonorrhoeae motile? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of N. gonorrhoeae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are N. gonorrhoeae oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are N. gonorrhoeae fastidious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What grows selectively on Thayer-Martin medium and non-selectively on chocolate agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism undergoes high-frequency variation in its pilus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virulence factor allows N. gonorrheae to attach to the epithelium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What genus has opacity proteins (Opa) that make colonies appear opaque? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have PorB in the outer membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are porin, peptidoglycan, and LOS released by Neisseria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have lactoferrin receptor (phase variable), hemoglobin receptor (phase variable), and transferrin receptor (not phase variable)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have IgA protease to evade the host immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 consequences of high frequency variation in Neisseria gonorrheae? |
|
Definition
No vaccine.
Infection is not protective.
Recurrent infections common. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes severe ophthalmia neonatorum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common bacterial infection in the world? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of Neisseria miningitidis? |
|
Definition
| Gram-negative diplococci. |
|
|
Term
| What medium is used to culture N. meningitidis from sterile sites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virulence factor is present in N. meningitidis but absent in N. gonorrhoeae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is N. meningitidis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of meningitis in young adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only cause of epidemic miningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes bilateral destruction of the adrenal glands? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does N. meningitidis oxidize glucose or maltose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| People without what organ are more susceptible to infection with encapsulated organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What gonococcal virulence factor is not subject to high-frequency antigenic variation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What best describes the discharge associated with gonococcal infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is most at risk for meningococcal disease? |
|
Definition
| Infants and young adults. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of E. coli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cellular morphology of E. coli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Salmonella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Salmonella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Campylobacter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Campylobacter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Shigella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Shigella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Vibrio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Vibrio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Yersinia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Yersinia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of H. pylori? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of H. pylori? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Klebsiella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Klebsiella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Serratia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Serratia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Proteus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Proteus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea is caused by STEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three bacteria associated with undercooked meat and poultry. |
|
Definition
| Salmonella, Campylobacter, STEC. |
|
|
Term
| List 3 bacteria associated with unpasteurized milk, juice, and soft cheeses. |
|
Definition
| Salmonella, Campylobacter, and Y. enterocolitica. |
|
|
Term
| State a bacterium associated with raw eggs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State a bacterium associated with raw seafood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List four bacteria that rarely cause infections in the United States but are common in developing countries due to poor sanitation. |
|
Definition
| Salmonella Typhi, V. cholera, EPEC, and EIEC. |
|
|
Term
| What causes traveler's diarrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| State a bacterium that rarely causes food-borne illness in the United States but is common in other developed nations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does ETEC have a pre-formed toxin or does it make the toxin once ingested? |
|
Definition
| It makes a toxin once ingested. |
|
|
Term
| Does Vibrio have a pre-formed toxin, or does it make the toxin once ingested? |
|
Definition
| It makes the toxin once ingested. |
|
|
Term
| Does STEC have a pre-formed toxin, or does it make a toxin once ingested? |
|
Definition
| It makes the toxin once ingested. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of diarrhea does ETEC cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea does Vibrio cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea does STEC cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea does Salmonella cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea does Shigella cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea does Campylobacter cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an S-shaped Gram-negative bacterium that causes food-borne illness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary source of E. coli O157:H7 infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea is caused by E. coli O157:H7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are E. coli Lac+ or Lac-? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three types of E. coli that cause watery diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two types of E. coli that cause bloody diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of E. coli colonizes the genitourinary tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of E. coli causes neonatal meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of E. coli has the Type III secretion system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common E. coli foodborne disease in the U.S.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pathogen is HUS associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is EHEC not treated with antibiotics? |
|
Definition
| It potentiates HUS because more SLT is produced. |
|
|
Term
| What is the major source of Campylobacter infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diarrhea is caused by Campylobacter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can Campylobacter ferment carbohydrates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the growth conditions for Campylobacter. |
|
Definition
| Microaerophile, capnophile, does not grow on MacConkey or other enteric agars. |
|
|
Term
| Does Campylobacter have catalase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does campylobacter have oxidase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria grows on Preston media under microaerophilic conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Shigella exclusively a human pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Salmonella exclusively a human pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Salmonella capable of fermenting lactose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Shigella capable of fermenting lactose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria (Salmonella or Shigella) produces hydrogen sulfide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common foodborne infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Salmonella serovar is systemic and life-threatening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Salmonella serovar Typhi transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Salmonella serovar requires treatment with antibiotics (the others are self-limiting)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria form black colonies on Hektoen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause rose spots? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of Shigella is rare in the U.S.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Shigella species makes Shiga toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium causes currant jelly stool? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes food-borne illness and has a darting motility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should antibiotics be used to treat Campylobacteriosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Vibrio species can be massively destructive and lead to sepsis if it invades soft tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have shooting star motility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria form large, yellow, opaque colonies on TCBS agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Yersinia enterocolitica Lac+ or Lac-? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the oxygen requirements of Yersinia enterocolitica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium causes diarrhea and colonizes Peyer's patches to cause a painful syndrome that mimics appendicitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What GI disease-causing bacteria are associated with undercooked pork and raw milk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with gastric ulcers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What H. pylori virulence factor promotes ulcer formation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is diagnosed with urease breath assay, gastric biopsy, or serologic assay? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of H. pylori infection? |
|
Definition
| H. pylori requires a proton pump to pump protons out of itself and keep its pH near neutral. |
|
|
Term
| How is Serratia marcescens transmitted? |
|
Definition
| It is an opportunistic infection. |
|
|
Term
| What two types of infections does Serratia marcescens cause? |
|
Definition
| Lower respiratory and urinary tract infections. |
|
|
Term
| Does Serratia marcescens ferment lactose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria produce a red pigment (prodigiosin)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Klebsiella pneumoniae transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes necrotizing lobar pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes pneumonia, bacteremia, UTIs, and infection of burn wounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Klebsiella pneumoniae Lac+ or Lac-? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have a luxurious capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Proteus mirabilis cause? |
|
Definition
| UTIs (mainly). In immunocompromised, it can cause pneumonitis and septicemia. |
|
|
Term
| Is Proteus mirabilis Lac+ or Lac-? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has a swarming motility and forms concentric circles on agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virulence factor of Proteus mirabilis raises urine pH and causes struvite kidney stones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain and cellular morphology of H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain and cellular morphology of B. pertussis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain and cellular morphology of Legionella pneumophila? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain and cellular morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agar is used to grow H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What respiratory pathogens are pleomorphic coccobacilli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
| Normal flora of human upper respiratory tract. |
|
|
Term
| What distinguishes pathogenic from non-pathogenic strains of H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
| Pathogenic strains usually have a capsule. |
|
|
Term
| How is H. influenzae transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary disease caused by H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
| Community-acquired broncho-pneumonia. |
|
|
Term
| List 3 risk factors for H. influenzae. |
|
Definition
Very young or very old.
Immunocompromised.
American Indian. |
|
|
Term
| What is a serious secondary disease that H. influenzae can cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What respiratory pathogen can cause cellulitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main virulence factor of H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium causes whooping cough? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does B. pertussis have a capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What secondary diseases can result from B. pertussis? |
|
Definition
| Convulsions, apnea, encephalopathy. |
|
|
Term
| What does pertussis toxin do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria grow on Bordet-Gengou medium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is B. pertussis aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is B. pertussis treated? |
|
Definition
| Antibiotics early to prevent brain damage. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause a mild pertussis-like illness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of Legionella? |
|
Definition
| They grow in amebae in water. |
|
|
Term
| How is Legionnaire's disease prevented? |
|
Definition
| Decontamination of water systems. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause Pontiac fever in healthy individuals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Legionnaire's disease spread person-to-person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of Legionnaire's disease? |
|
Definition
| Legionella multiply in lung macrophages. |
|
|
Term
| List 3 ways that Legionnaire's disease is diagnosed. |
|
Definition
| Chest X-ray, urine antigen test, and culturing. |
|
|
Term
| Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa Lac+ or Lac-? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the source of P. aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
| Ubiquitous in the environment. |
|
|
Term
| How is P. aeruginosa spread? |
|
Definition
| It is a nosocomial pathogen and person-to-person spread is rare. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are CF patients vulnerable to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria undergo mucoid conversion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with chronic lung disease, keratitis, external otitis, and hot tub vasculitis (skin rash)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause ecthyma gangrenosum (black necrotic ulcers) in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria produce toxic blue-green pigments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virulence factor gives P. aeruginosa high antibiotic resistance? |
|
Definition
| Multidrug efflux complex. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have quorum sensing mechanisms to control virulence genes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Brucella transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Transmitted to humans by contact with infected animals. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 virulence factors of Brucella? |
|
Definition
| Ability to multiply in host phagocytes and LPS. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main symptom of Brucellosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause Rabbit Fever/Deerfly Fever/Tularemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium is associated with rabbits and arthropod bites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is tularemia most common? |
|
Definition
| South central United States. |
|
|
Term
| List the three types of tularemia. |
|
Definition
| Ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, and pneumonic. |
|
|
Term
| Where does Francisella tularensis multiply in hosts? |
|
Definition
| Phagocytes, especially macrophages. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause a small abscess at the site of a cat scratch or bite, followed by fever and lymphadenopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause trench fever (fever with maculopapular rash)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the reservoir for Bartonella quintana? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Bartonella quintana transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause cellulitis following a cat scratch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 virulence factors of Pasteurella multocida? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria has caused 3 major plague pandemics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Yersinia pestis get into the lymphatic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does Yersinia pestis multiply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with buboes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause hemorrhagic necrosis of lymph nodes and hemorrhagic lesions throughout the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 4 virulence factors of Yersinia pestis. |
|
Definition
Complex interaction with flea.
Pla protease which prevents blood from clotting.
Yop proteins which are antiphagocytic.
Capsule which is antiphagocytic. |
|
|
Term
| List the two forms of human plague. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have bipolar staining? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is penicillin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is cephalosporin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug are carbapenems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug are monobactams? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does vancomycin target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does bacitracin target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do sulfonamides target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does trimethoprim target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do quinolones target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does rifampin target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does clindamycin do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does chloramphenicol do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do streptogramins do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do tetracyclines do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do aminoglycosides do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do polymyxins target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does daptomycin target? |
|
Definition
| Inner membrane of Gram-positives. |
|
|
Term
| What is daptomycin rapidly bactericidal for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They act like a cationic detergent on the outer membrane of Gram-negatives. |
|
|
Term
| What is the limitation of polymixin use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Polymixins are used as a drug of last resort for what type of bacteria? |
|
Definition
| Multiresistant Gram-negatives. |
|
|
Term
| What is the prototypical macrolide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are protein synthesis inhibitors bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do aminoglycosides work? |
|
Definition
| They cause mis-reading of mRNA. |
|
|
Term
| What results in resistance to macrolides, lincosamides, and streptogramins? |
|
Definition
| Dimethylation of adenine at the antibiotic binding site. |
|
|
Term
| What causes drug-drug interactions involving macrolides? |
|
Definition
| Blocking of cytochrome P450. |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotics cause QTC prolongation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major side-effect of clindamycin? |
|
Definition
| C. difficile-associated colitis. |
|
|
Term
| Are aminoglycosides bactericidal or bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes aminoglycoside resistance? |
|
Definition
| Reduced ribosomal binding. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main use for aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do aminoglycosides have anaerobic activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A combination of aminoglycoside with what antibiotic is synergistic for Enterococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main organs that aminoglycosides are toxic towards? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How tetracyclines bacteriostatic or bactericidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
| Blocks the association of aminoacyl-tRNA with the 30S ribosome. |
|
|
Term
| Give two mechanisms of resistance to tetracyclines. |
|
Definition
| Efflux and ribosomal protection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of tetracycline activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the adverse drug reactions of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
| Phototoxicity, discoloration of teeth, and inhibition of bone maturation. |
|
|
Term
| What do beta-lactamases do? |
|
Definition
| They provide resistance to beta-lactams by breaking the ring. |
|
|
Term
| How do beta-lactams get through the outer membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the molecule that beta-lactams target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three mechanisms of resistance to beta-lactams? |
|
Definition
| Beta-lactamases, alteration of porin channels, and modification of PBP. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the spectrum of penicillin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two aminopenicillins? |
|
Definition
| Ampicillin and amoxicillin. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the spectrum of aminopenicillins. |
|
Definition
| Enhanced Gram-negative activity. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the spectrum of anti-staphylococcal penicillins. |
|
Definition
| Enhanced Gram-positive activity. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the spectrum of penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the spectrum of carbapenems. |
|
Definition
| Broadest spectrum beta-lactams. |
|
|
Term
| What does penicillin have coverage against? |
|
Definition
| Some Gram-positives and anaerobes. |
|
|
Term
| What do aminopenicillins cover? |
|
Definition
| Gram-positives, Gram-negatives, and some anaerobes. |
|
|
Term
| What do cephalosporins cover? |
|
Definition
| Gram-positives, Gram-negatives, and some anaerobes. |
|
|
Term
| Why don't penicillin-like antibiotics work against Mycoplasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of beta-lactam hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE, urticaria, and anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is vancomycin the workhorse for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of vancomycin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is vancomycin active against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important mechanism of vancomycin resistance? |
|
Definition
| Changing D-ala-D-ala to something else. |
|
|
Term
| What is vancomycin excreted by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug causes red man syndrome due to histamine release? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells carry antigen into the lymph node during local infection? |
|
Definition
| Langerhans (dendritic) cells. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the T-cell zone in the lymph node? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is better at T cell stimulation, macrophages or dendritic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cells are more motile, dendritic cells or macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can dendritic cells present antigen to CD4 or CD8 T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do naive T cells enter the lymph node? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is responsible for preferential interaction of naive T cells with HEVs via GlyCAM1 and CD34? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor do naive T and B cells express that binds CCL21 and CCL19 produced by stromal cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor is expressed on T cells in response to chemokines bound to the extracellular matrix at the lymph node? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does LFA-1 on a T cell form a tight interaction with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T cell entry into lymph nodes is similar to what kind of cells' entry into tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the initial interaction of a T cell with a dendritic cell antigen-specific? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a dendritic cell-specific adhesion molecule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule on T cells does DC-SIGN bind to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the initial transient interaction of a T cell with a dendritic cell? |
|
Definition
| To screen the DC for specific peptide in the MHC. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to T cells that do not encounter their antigen in the lymph node? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to T cells that encounter their specific antigen in the lymph node? |
|
Definition
| They proliferate and differentiate into effector cells. They downregulate their S1P receptors and therefore are not pushed away by S1P. |
|
|
Term
| What is the second signal required for activation of naive T cells? |
|
Definition
| B7 on APC binds to CD28 on the T cell. |
|
|
Term
| What cells can activate naive T cells? |
|
Definition
| Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. |
|
|
Term
| What molecule is expressed by professional APCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to a T cell stimulated in the absence of co-stimulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of CTLA4? |
|
Definition
| It replaces CD28 in an activated T cell and gives a negative signal. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Motifs in T cells that have tyrosines that can be phosphorylated, leading to activation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A T cell specific kinase that triggers activation of common signaling pathways. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A kinase that phosphorylates ZAP-70. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the IL-2 receptors expressed in naive and activated T cells? |
|
Definition
| Activated T cells express a higher-affinity receptor. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It is secreted by activated T cells and drives T cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation. |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine drives clonal selection of T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the oligomeric structure of most cytokine receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the structure of chemokine receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a common signaling pathway for cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do common gamma chain cytokines do? |
|
Definition
| Promote lymphocyte survival. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IL2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IL7? |
|
Definition
| Lymphocyte (early) survival. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 functions of IL4? |
|
Definition
| TH2 differentiation, effector function, and isotype switching to IgE. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IL12? |
|
Definition
| Stimulates secretion of IFN-gamma and induces TH1 differentiation. |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 functions of IFN-gamma? |
|
Definition
| Activates macrophages and stimulates isotype switching (IgG subtypes). |
|
|
Term
| What are two functions of TNF-alpha? |
|
Definition
| T cell activation of macrophages and vascular leakage. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of FasL? |
|
Definition
| It is a cytokine that promotes T cell apoptosis and plays a role in killing by CD8 T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of CD40L? |
|
Definition
| T cell activation of macrophages and B cells. |
|
|
Term
| What are three functions of TGF-beta? |
|
Definition
Inhibits T cell proliferation.
Inhibits inflammation.
Treg mediator. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of IL6? |
|
Definition
| Induces TH17 differentiation. |
|
|
Term
| What are two functions of IL10? |
|
Definition
Suppresses macrophage production of IL12.
Inhibits T cell proliferation. |
|
|
Term
| What cytokines are secreted by TH1 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of TH1 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines are secreted by TH2 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of TH2 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells do TH17 cells interact with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transcription factor is active in Treg cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of leprosy involves TH1 cytokines and is therefore less severe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of leprosy involves only TH2 cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two ways that CD8 T cells can be activated? |
|
Definition
| By CDs alone or with CD4 assistance. |
|
|
Term
| Which cells are more easily activated, effector T cells or naive T cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does activation of effector T cells require B7? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to expression of L-selectin in an activated CD4 T cell? |
|
Definition
| L-selectin expression decreases and VLA-4 expression increases, making the T cell less likely to go to a lymph node and more likely to go to a site of inflammation. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to expression of LFA-1 in an activated CD4 T cell, and what is the significance of this? |
|
Definition
| LFA-1 increases, allowing T cells to bind and be activated by non-professional APCs with lower ICAM expression. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to expression of CD44 in an activated CD4 T cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first way of CD8 killing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the second way of CD8 killing? |
|
Definition
| Interaction of FasL with Fas on target cells. This is a minor mechanism for infected cells but is important for unwanted lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
| What causes autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes granuloma formation? |
|
Definition
| Intravesicular pathogen resistance to killing. |
|
|
Term
| Groups at risk for IE include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of IE in patients with a normal valve and no IV drug use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of IE in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of IE in patients who had a valve replacement less than a year ago? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of IE in patients who had a valve replacement more than a year ago? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are conjunctival petechiae associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are splinter hemorrhages associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Janeway lesions associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Osler's nodes associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do Janeway lesions contain the bacteria causing IE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do Osler's nodes contain the bacteria causing IE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are Roth spots associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On what side of the heart does IE often occur in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are septic pulmonary emboli associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most important test in the work-up of endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most frequent causes of IE in oral and dental procedures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the four conditions that necessitate prophylaxis to avoid IE. |
|
Definition
Prosthetic valve replacement or repair.
Previous IE.
Congenital heart defect.
Cardiac transplant with valvulopathy. |
|
|
Term
| Are sulfonamides bactericidal or bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides? |
|
Definition
| PABA analogues that are competitive inhibitors of dihydropteroate synthetase. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of diaminopyrimidines like trimethoprim? |
|
Definition
| Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase to block folic acid synthesis. Often used synergistically with sulfonamides. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to sulfonamides and trimethoprim? |
|
Definition
| Acquisition of new target enzymes (DHPS and DHFR). |
|
|
Term
| What type of drug causes erythema multiforme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of drug causes Stevens Johnson syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drugs end in floxacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two mechanisms of quinolone resistance? |
|
Definition
| Mutations in DNA gyrase and active efflux. |
|
|
Term
| Are quinolones bacteriostatic or bactericidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of quinolones? |
|
Definition
| Gram-negatives and Strep pneumoniae. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of rifampin? |
|
Definition
| It inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance towards rifampin? |
|
Definition
| Modification of the b-subunit of RNA polymerase. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of rifampin? |
|
Definition
| Active against many Gram-positives, some Gram-negatives, mycobacteria, and fungi. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria often infect prosthetic devices? |
|
Definition
| Coagulase-negative Staph. |
|
|
Term
| List two adverse effects of rifampin. |
|
Definition
| Hepatic toxicity and induction of P450s. |
|
|
Term
| What is the spectrum of metronidazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole? |
|
Definition
| It is a prodrug that is converted by oxidation to a compound that reacts with DNA. |
|
|
Term
| Is metronidazole bacteriostatic or bactericidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to metronidazole? |
|
Definition
| Failure to convert prodrug to active/toxic compound. |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen preferentially infects neutrophils? |
|
Definition
| Anaplasma phagocytophilum. |
|
|
Term
| Where do Rickettsia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia, Orientia, and Coxiella burnetii live inside hosts? |
|
Definition
| All are obligate intracellular bacteria. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of the Rickettsiales and C. burnetii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organisms are typically visualized with Giemsa stain because they Gram-stain poorly? |
|
Definition
| Rickettsiales and C. burnetii. |
|
|
Term
| What infection can be acquired by inhaling dessicated bacteria in a barnyard? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rickettsia species infect what human cell type? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two virulence factors does Rickettsia use to move within and between cells? |
|
Definition
Phosopholipase C to break out of vacuoles.
Ability to use host actin. |
|
|
Term
| What happens if Rickettsia infection is left unchecked? |
|
Definition
| Systemic vascular collapse. |
|
|
Term
| What causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What transmits Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by a rash first on the extremities and then spreading to other body areas? |
|
Definition
| Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the greatest number of cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
| Southeast and South Central United States. |
|
|
Term
| What type of lesion at the site of a tick bite occurs as a result of R. parkeri infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Rickettsia prowazekii transmitted to humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium causes epidemic typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the geographic distribution of epidemic typhus? |
|
Definition
| Africa and places with overcrowding and poor sanitation; rarely in Eastern U.S., associated with flying squirrels. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause a macular or maculopapular rash that occurs on trunk first and spreads to the extremities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium causes murine typhus, a disease with symptoms very similar to epidemic typhus, but milder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What spreads murine typhus? |
|
Definition
| Fleas carried on urban rodents. |
|
|
Term
| What is the geographic distribution of scrub typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What spreads scrub typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is associated with rice fields? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the causative agent of scrub typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the rash pattern in scrub typhus? |
|
Definition
| Trunk first, then extremities. |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector for human granulocytic anaplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells do Ehrlichia chaffeensis invade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have a mulberry appearance? |
|
Definition
| Ehrlichia chaffeensis and Anaplasma phagocytophilum. |
|
|
Term
| What is the geographic distribution of human granulocytic anaplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| Northeast and upper midwest. |
|
|
Term
| What spreads human monocytic ehrlichiosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What symptom distinguishes HME from HGA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the geographic distribution of human monocytic ehrlichiosis? |
|
Definition
| Southeast and South Central United States. |
|
|
Term
| What organism causes Q fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic symptom of Q fever? |
|
Definition
| Interstitial pneumonitis. |
|
|
Term
| What cells do Coxiella burnetii infect? |
|
Definition
| Alveolar macrophages and monocytes. |
|
|
Term
| Can you wait until a definitive diagnosis before treating Rickettsial infections and Q fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is doxycycline the drug of choice for Rickettsial infections? |
|
Definition
| It crosses eukaryotic cell membranes. |
|
|
Term
| How does memory affect the B cell response time? |
|
Definition
| Development of memory leads to rapid response. |
|
|
Term
| What is B cell activation initiated by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do the signal transduction cascades initiated by different isotypes of Ig differ from each other? |
|
Definition
| They all initiate the same cascade. |
|
|
Term
| What allows receptor-associated kinases to phosphorylate ITAMs during B cell activation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of blk, lyn, and fyn? |
|
Definition
| Phosphorylate ITAM on Ig-beta and Ig-alpha. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of Syk? |
|
Definition
| It is the B-cell equivalent of ZAP-70. It binds to phosphorylated ITAMs and sets off the cascade. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three components of the B-cell co-receptor? |
|
Definition
| CD19, CD21 (CR2), and CD81. |
|
|
Term
| What component of the B-cell co-receptor is a complement receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What interaction causes the BCR and co-receptor to be juxtaposed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens as a result of juxtaposition of BCR and co-receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What co-BCR signaling component amplifies BCR signaling more than 100x? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many signals do B cells require for activation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of receptors do TI1 antigens use to give the second signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What TLR is activated by bacterial DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does T-cell-independent activation of B cells produce a memory response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do T-dependent responses occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After a B cell has been activated by a dendritic cell in the B cell area, where does it go? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule on the surface of T cells forms an interaction with a molecule with a similar name on the surface of B cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is recognized by the T cell and B cell in a cognate interaction? |
|
Definition
| Same antigen, but not the same epitope. |
|
|
Term
| How does close T-B contact contribute to specificity? |
|
Definition
| It prevents IL-4 from assisting irrelevant B cells. |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine stimulates B cell proliferation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokines stimulate B cell differentiation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the primary focus for expansion of antigen-activated B cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the secondary focus for expansion of activated B cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two fates of B cells in the primary focus? |
|
Definition
| Become plasma cells or form a secondary focus at the germinal center. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rapidly dividing B cells in the dark zone of a germinal center. |
|
|
Term
| Where does somatic hypermutation occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-dividing progeny of centroblasts that move to the light zone. |
|
|
Term
| Which centrocytes are rescued? |
|
Definition
| Those with high affinity BCRs. |
|
|
Term
| When does isotype switching occur? |
|
Definition
| Germinal center reaction. |
|
|
Term
| What does TGF-beta stimulate isotype switching to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the influence of IL5 on isotype switching? |
|
Definition
| Augments switching to IgA. |
|
|
Term
| What does IL4 cause isotype switching to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cell direct isotype switching via cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What interaction is essential for isotype switching? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells are essential for formation of germinal centers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What directs the fate of centrocytes? |
|
Definition
| T cell derived cytokines. |
|
|
Term
| What cytokine drives the development of centrocytes into memory cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cytokine drives the development of centrocytes into plasma cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do infants start to make Ig? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What determines the anatomical location and function of Ig isotypes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulins predominate in plasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin is associated with epithelial surfaces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin predominates in mucosal secretions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Unidirectional transport of macromolecules through a cell. |
|
|
Term
| What can IgM be transported across? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of antibodies block viral infection? |
|
Definition
| Neutralizing (IgM, IgG, IgA). |
|
|
Term
| What types of antibodies block bacteria infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of antibodies block toxin binding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells remove immune complexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor on RBCs plays a role in the clearance of immune complexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are immune complexes destroyed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of FCR-gamma? |
|
Definition
| It allows activation of monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells by IgG and also facilitates pathogen clearance |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of ITIMs on FcRs? |
|
Definition
| Allows inhibitory signaling through FcRs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of FcR on NK cells? |
|
Definition
| It binds to IgG1 on target cells and signals the NK cell to kill the target. |
|
|
Term
| What immunoglobulin binds to the Fc-epsilon receptor on mast cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do most Fc receptors recognize? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What chain mediates the activating signal in Fc receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 cell types are most types of Fc receptor expressed on? |
|
Definition
| Macrophages and neutrophils. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it hard to fight Streptococcus and Haemophilus without an antibody response? |
|
Definition
| They have capsules which prevent complement activation. You need an antibody response to get complement activation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of mycobacteria and actinomycetes? |
|
Definition
| Long, slender rods that look like fungi. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria stain acid-fast? |
|
Definition
| Mycobacteria and actinomycetes. |
|
|
Term
| What molecule is responsible for acid-fast staining of mycobacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is M. tuberculosis aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is M. tuberculosis motile? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is M. tuberculosis spore-forming? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is M. tuberculosis slow-growing or fast-growing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is M. tuberculosis catalase-positive or catalase-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 4 virulence factors of M. tuberculosis. |
|
Definition
Resistance to killing by macrophage.
Catalase.
Mycolic acid.
Cord factor. |
|
|
Term
| What gives M. tuberculosis its resistance to drying and disinfectants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It M. tuberculosis heat-resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the target of isoniazid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of immunity works on M. tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the symptoms of M. tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
| The immune response. IL1 causes fever. TNF-alpha decreases lipid metabolism and leads to weight loss. Proteases cause tissue destruction. |
|
|
Term
| How is M. tuberculosis spread? |
|
Definition
| Person-to-person via aerosol. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is characterized by tiny granulomas all throughout the lung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does secondary Tb usually occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of tuberculosis is cavitary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease has an initial presentation of anorexia, weight loss, and cough? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does primary tuberculosis usually occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are mycobacteria other than TB sensitive to INH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Mycobacteria other than TB communicable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is non-cultivatable mycobacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of leprosy has a brisk TH1 response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the natural reservoir of all NTM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is NTM spread person-to-person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does M. kansasii cause? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary disease resembling M. tb. Seen in AIDS patients in endemic areas. |
|
|
Term
| What causes swimmin pool granuloma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What population is susceptible to M. avium complex? |
|
Definition
| AIDS patients with low CD4 counts. |
|
|
Term
| How is M. avium transmitted? |
|
Definition
| Ingestion or inhalation of contaminated water. |
|
|
Term
| What causes non-painful Buruli ulcers in the tropics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Actinomycetes Gram-positive or Gram-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Actinomycetes aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium is associated with destructive abscesses of the jaw, lung, and viscera; sulfur granules; and minigitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do thermophilic actinomycetes cause? |
|
Definition
| Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (fever, cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath). |
|
|
Term
| What causes farmer's lung? |
|
Definition
| Thermophilic actinomycetes. |
|
|
Term
| Where do thermophilic actinomycetes grow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main limitation for INH use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drug in the standard TB therapy penetrates well into cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of ethambutol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to INH? |
|
Definition
| Altered mycolic acid and reduced conversion of the drug to the active form. |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxicity of ethambutol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is ethambutol bactericidal or bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of ethambutol in TB treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of action of pyrizinamide? |
|
Definition
| Inactivates RpsA and interferes with trans-translation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the mechanism of resistance to pyrizinamide? |
|
Definition
| Mutation of the gene required to convert the prodrug to the active form. |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard group of drugs used to treat TB? |
|
Definition
| INH, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrizinamide. |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of mycoplasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are mycoplasma sensitive to cell wall-targetting drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of mycoplasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stabilizes the membranes of mycoplasma and is required for their growth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the oxygen requirements of mycoplasma. |
|
Definition
| Microaerophilic except for M. pneumoniae, which is an aerobe. |
|
|
Term
| Are mycoplasma fast-growers or slow-growers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do mycoplasma have peptidoglycan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What often causes community acquired atypical "walking" pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a symptom that can distinguish Mycoplasma pneumoniae from Streptococcus pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterium discussed in class causes a patchy, diffuse bronchopneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virulence factor of M. pneumoniae leads to hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred method of diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two diseases does Ureaplasma cause? |
|
Definition
| Urethritis and endometritis. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause PID, postpartum fever, and pregnancy complications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the four conditions caused by the Trachoma biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis. |
|
Definition
Non-gonococcal urethritis.
Cervicitis.
Conjunctivitis.
Trachoma. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pneumonia is caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes psittacosis or parrot fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are Chlamydiae Gram-positive or Gram-negative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the elementary body? |
|
Definition
| Infectious but not replicative form of Chlamydia. |
|
|
Term
| What is the reticulate body? |
|
Definition
| Fragile but replicative form of Chlamydia. |
|
|
Term
| List 5 virulence factors of Chlamydia. |
|
Definition
Type III secretion system.
Invasion and actin recruitment.
Inhibition of phagolysosomal fusion.
Modulation of host cell apoptosis.
Subversion of host cell trafficking - nutrients. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria cause mucoid, watery discharge from the urethra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List two bacteria that cause an atypical pneumonia similar to that caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae. |
|
Definition
| M. pneumoniae and L. pneumophila. |
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria have corkscrew motility and an endoflagella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Gram-stain of Spirochetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do most spirochetes have LPS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Leptospira have LPS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What genus causes syphilis and periodontal disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What genus causes Lyme disease and relapsing fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What genus causes leptospirosis and Weil's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a host-dependent treponeme. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a free-living treponeme. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism causes syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the 3 stages of syphilis. |
|
Definition
Stage 1: Primary chancre.
Stage 2: Disseminated syphilitic rash, with lesions loaded with bacteria.
Tertiary syphilis: 10-20 years later, granulomatous lesions (gumma) on organs and tissue, neurological complications and dementia. |
|
|
Term
| What organism discussed in class causes periodontal disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are T. denticola aerobic or anaerobic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism causes lyme disease in North America? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Ixodes ticks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease involves erythema migrans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease has neurologic complications that include Bell's palsy, peripheral neuropathy, and meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease often causes monoarticular arthritis after tick bites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test is used to confirm the diagnosis of Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| Two-tiered serological test. |
|
|
Term
| Where does Lyme disease primarily occur in the U.S.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by Borrelia hermsii and B. turicatae in North America and by B. crocidurae in other countries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is bacteremia seen in endemic relapsing fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the molecular basis of relapsing fever? |
|
Definition
| Genetic recombination of Vmp genes allows antigenic variation. |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria have a long morphology with hooks at the end of cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common zoonotic disease worldwide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the incidence of L. interrogans high? |
|
Definition
| Hawaii and tropical areas. Associated with flooding and carried by livestock or rodents. |
|
|
Term
| Is S. aureus food poisoning a toxinosis or infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What a rigors a sign of, in general? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes painful bullae and is associated with raw oysters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes mucosal injury in C. diff infection? |
|
Definition
| Release of toxins A and B. |
|
|
Term
| What does toxin A of C. diff do? |
|
Definition
| Causes fluid accumulation in the bowel. |
|
|
Term
| What does toxin B do in C. diff infection? |
|
Definition
| Promotes cell lysis and death. |
|
|
Term
| What organism can cause toxic megacolon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be used as a stand-alone test to diagnose C. diff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a patient has gonorrhea, what disease must you also treat them for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What age group most frequently gets hematogenous osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What age group is most susceptible to long bone osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What group of people is susceptible to direct inoculation (contiguous-focus) osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What age group most commonly gets spinal osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria commonly cause diabetic foot ulcers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of bacteria commonly cause prosthetic joint infections? |
|
Definition
| Coagulase-negative Staphylococci. |
|
|
Term
| If a person has a prosthetic joint infection, should you give antibiotics before or after arthrocentesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give an example of an antibiotic that should never be administered alone. |
|
Definition
| Rifampin, due to resistance. |
|
|
