Term
|
Definition
| The maintenance and control of a constant internal environment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The failure to maintain homeostasis |
|
|
Term
| Outline the simple response pathway? |
|
Definition
| Stimulus -> Sensor -> Controller -> Effector -> Response |
|
|
Term
| What is negative feedback? |
|
Definition
| The production of a particular reponse decreases the initial stimulus so no further response can occur |
|
|
Term
| Which three systems are involved in homeostatic control? |
|
Definition
| Nervous, Endocrine and Paracrine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three control centres for the ANS? |
|
Definition
| Hypothalamus, Brain Stem and the Spinal Cord |
|
|
Term
| What are the two branches of the ANS? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Systems |
|
|
Term
| What does the Sympathetic Nervous System control? |
|
Definition
| Defense mechanisms 'Fight/Flight Response' |
|
|
Term
| What does the Parasympathetic Nervous System control? |
|
Definition
| Relaxation mechanisms 'Rest/Digest Response' |
|
|
Term
| How many types of neurons are involved in the Sympathetic Nervous System? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many types of neurons are involved in the Parasympathetic Nervous System? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do Preganglionic neurons originate in the ANS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where do postganglionic originate in the ANS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two areas that parasympathetic pathways begin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the relative length of the preganglionic nerve in the parasympathetic pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the relative length of the postganglionic nerve in the parasympathetic pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the relative length of the preganglionic nerve in the sympathetic pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the relative length of the postganglionic nerve in the sympathetic pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which area does the parasympathetic pathways begin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain how the adrenal medulla is a unique in its sympathetic pathway? |
|
Definition
| Preganglionic neurone stimulates the adrenal medulla directly to release adrenaline into the blood stream. (There is no postgnglionic neurone) |
|
|
Term
| What are the four neurotransmitters involved in the ANS? |
|
Definition
| Acetylcholine, nradrenaline, arenaline and NANC |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of synapses involved in the ANS? |
|
Definition
| Cholinergic and adrenergic |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of cholinergic synapses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of adrenergic synapses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which PNS pathway/s contain ganglia for nictotinic synapses? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways |
|
|
Term
| What do nictonic synapses stimulate? |
|
Definition
| The neuromuscular junction |
|
|
Term
| What molecule inhibits nictonic synapses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which PNS pathway/s contain ganglia for muscarinic synapses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule inhibits muscarinic synapses? |
|
Definition
| Atropa Belladonna (deadly nightshade) |
|
|
Term
| Which molecule affects alpha1 postsynaptic adrenoreceptors more? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which molecule affects alpha2 presynaptic adrenoreceptors more? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What molecule inhibits alpha adrenoreceptors synapses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do alpha1 postsynaptic adrenoreceptors do? |
|
Definition
| Initiate vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What do alpha2 postsynaptic adrenoreceptors do? |
|
Definition
| Reduce transmission of adrenergic and cholinergic synapses |
|
|
Term
| What molecule inhibits beta adrenoreceptors synapses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do beta1 adrenoreceptors do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do beta2 adrenoreceptors do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which molecule affects beta1 adrenoreceptors more? |
|
Definition
| Both equally affetced by adrenaline and noradrenaline |
|
|
Term
| Which molecule affects beta2 adrenoreceptors more? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the six functions of blood? |
|
Definition
1)Transport
2)Body temperature maintenance
3)Control pH
4)Removal of toxins
5)Regulation of ions
6)Regulation of blood clots |
|
|
Term
| What three cells are present in the blood? |
|
Definition
| Erythrocytes, Leukocytes and Thrombocytes |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of the body is blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The fluid part of blood that carries cells and ions etc. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The fluid part of the blood after all the cells and proteins etc. have been removed |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of blood is plasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of blood are erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of blood are leuokocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a persons haematocrit? |
|
Definition
| The percentage of total blood volume occupied by red blood cells |
|
|
Term
| What is a normal haematocrit for men? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a normal haematocrit for women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After blood has been centrifuged what are the three layers? |
|
Definition
| The plasma, buffy coat and haematocrit |
|
|
Term
| What does the buffy coat contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the five components of plasma? |
|
Definition
| Water, ions, organic moleucles, vitamins and gases |
|
|
Term
| What are the five types of organic molecule in the plasma? |
|
Definition
| Amino acids, proteins, glucose, lipids, wastes |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of plasma proteins? |
|
Definition
| Albumins, globulins and fibrinogen |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of plasma is water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is it good that a large volume of plasma is water? |
|
Definition
| The water is able to hold heat more easily and so body temperature can be maintained |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
| To carry oxygen to the body cells |
|
|
Term
| Name and explain two examples of an erythrocyte? |
|
Definition
Biconcave shape = large surface area
Thin cell membrane = rapid diffusion of oxygen |
|
|
Term
| Why do erythrocytes not respire the oxygen? |
|
Definition
| They have no mitochondria so cannot undergo respiration |
|
|
Term
| What is the life span of an erythrocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which sex has the higher concentration of erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are microcytic erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
| Small red blood cells that are found in iron deficient anaemia |
|
|
Term
| What are macrocytic erythrocytes? |
|
Definition
| Small red blood cells that are found in folate deficient anaemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the composition of haemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| Four chained globin molecules + four haem groups |
|
|
Term
| Which ion is present in the haem group of haemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of globin protein chains? |
|
Definition
| Alpha, beta, gamma and delta |
|
|
Term
| What is a porphyrin ring? |
|
Definition
| The group that holds the iron ion in the haem group |
|
|
Term
| Which globin chains are found in normal humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which globin chains are found in foetuses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What colour is haemoglobin when oxygenated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What colour is haemoglobin when deoxygenated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many molecules of oxygen can be carried by each iron atom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two factors affect haemoglobins ability to bind oxygen? |
|
Definition
| Partial pressure of oxygen and the number of free binding sites for oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What is the name given to haemoglobin when oxygen is bound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is haemoglobin at 100% saturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is haemoglobin at 25% saturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will the haemoglobin saturation fall below 25% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the relative strength of oxyhaemoglobin stronger or weaker than that of carboxyhaemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of venous blood is CO2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does haemoglobin resist changes to pH during high levels of CO2? |
|
Definition
| Acts as a buffer by absorbing the excess H+ ions from carbonic acid |
|
|
Term
| Is the relative strength of oxyhaemoglobin stronger or weaker than that of carbomonoxyhaemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two abnormalities is haemoglobin production? |
|
Definition
| Haemoglobinopathies and Thalassaemias |
|
|
Term
| What causes haemoglobinopathies? |
|
Definition
| Abnormal haemoglobin chains |
|
|
Term
| What causes thalassaemias? |
|
Definition
| Decreased production of haemoglobin chains |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of haemoglobinopathies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of thalassaemias? |
|
Definition
| Alpha-thalassaemias and Beta-thalassemia |
|
|
Term
| What causes sickle cell anemia? |
|
Definition
| A mutation in a beta chain from glutamic acid to valine |
|
|
Term
| How do sickle celled erythrocytes destroy the malaria parasite? |
|
Definition
| By producing high levels of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide which is very toxic |
|
|
Term
| What are the two possible causes of thalassemia |
|
Definition
| Deletion of globin genes or a mutation in gene expression |
|
|
Term
| What happens in alpha-thalassemia? |
|
Definition
| Production of alpha-globulin is defective |
|
|
Term
| What happens in beta-thalassemia? |
|
Definition
| Production of beta-globulin is defective |
|
|
Term
| What defines a blood group? |
|
Definition
| The antigens (glycolipids/proteins) on the surface of the erythrocyte |
|
|
Term
| What is a complete blood group? |
|
Definition
| The 29 antigens on the surface of an individuals erthrocyte |
|
|
Term
| What are the four alleles in the ABO blood group system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the dominant allele in the ABO blood group system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the H allele code for? |
|
Definition
| A transferase that converts a precursor substance into H substance |
|
|
Term
| What does an individual with a HH genotype produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an individual with a Hh genotype produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an individual with a hh genotype produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Bombay phenotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Bombay phenotype mean? |
|
Definition
| Despite the possession of an A or B allele the erythrocyte will not have ABO blood grouping because no substance H is present |
|
|
Term
| What does the A allele code for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the B allele code for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the AB genotype mean? |
|
Definition
| They posses both the A and the B antigens |
|
|
Term
| What does the O allele code for? |
|
Definition
| Nothing (The individual would just have substance H) |
|
|
Term
| What is the relationship between blood group and location? |
|
Definition
| Patches of the earth tend to have similar blood groups e.g UK is mainly O |
|
|
Term
| An individual that produces A substance will produce which antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An individual that produces B substance will produce which antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An individual that produces just H substance will produce which antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An individual that produces both A and B substance will produce which antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Another name for the blood group antigens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Another name for the antibodies against the blood group antigens |
|
|
Term
| Which blood group is the universal donor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which blood group is the universal recipient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antigen in the Rhesus group is the most common/important |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is an individual has the genotype DD they are said to be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is an individual has the genotype dd they are said to be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is an individual has the genotype Dd they are said to be what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Rhesus antigen problem? |
|
Definition
| If the mother of a baby is Rh- and the baby is Rh+ the mother will produce antibodies against the baby. This will not kill the first child but may kill a subsequent child due to the presence of her antibodies |
|
|
Term
| How do we clinically get round the Rhesus antigen problem? |
|
Definition
| Rh- mothers are given an injection of Anti-D immunoglobulin hat will remove the babies Rh+ blood before she can make anti-D antibodies |
|
|
Term
| How does a mother react to a different ABO blood group? |
|
Definition
| The mother makes IgM's but they do not cross the placenta so the baby is unaffected |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fragments of megakaryocytes used to clot blood |
|
|
Term
| Which organelle does a platelet lack? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two important properties do platelets have to aid clotting? |
|
Definition
| It can secrete products and contract |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The arrest of bleeding from a broken blood vessel |
|
|
Term
| What are the three steps of haemostasis? |
|
Definition
| Vascular spasm, formation of the platelet plug and blood coagulation |
|
|
Term
| What happens during the vascular spasm stage of haemostasis? |
|
Definition
| Platelets/damaged cells release vasoconstrictors that cause the smooth muscle of the vessel to constrict to stopping blood flow. Due to the vasoconstriction the endothelial layers adhere to eachother |
|
|
Term
| Name the two vasoconstrictors released by platelets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens during the formation of the platelet plug during haemostasis? |
|
Definition
1. Platelets adhere to the exposed collagen of the damaged lining.
2. vWF is released by the platelets to aid the adhesion of platelets together 3. Thromboxane A2 is secreted to cause nearby platelets to adhere
4.Prostacyclin is released to limit the size of the platelet plug |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four functions of the platelet plug? |
|
Definition
| Seal the break, strength of the wall, vasoconstriction and secretion of chemicals to aid cloting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two pathways involved in blood clotting? |
|
Definition
| The intrinsic and the extrinsic pathway |
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the intrinsic pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulates the extrinsic pathway? |
|
Definition
| The blood contact with damaged external blood tissue causing the release of tissue factor |
|
|
Term
| Outline the intrinsic pathway? |
|
Definition
1. Exposure of collagen converts Factor XII into active Factor XII
2. Production of active Factor XII produces Ca2+ ions that converts Factor XI into active Factor XI
3. Production of active Factor XI produces Ca2+ ions that convert Factor IX into active Factor IX
4. Active factor IX combines with Factor VIII to produce Ca"+ ions and PL which converts Factor X into active Factor X |
|
|
Term
| Outline the extrinsic pathway? |
|
Definition
1. Damage of external tissue causes the conversion of Factor VII which creates Tissue Factor (Factor III) and Active Factor VII
2. Tissue factor and Active Factor VII then activate step 3 of the intrinsic pathways and releases Ca2+ and PL to convert Factor X into active Factor X |
|
|
Term
| Outline the positive feedback of the extrinsic pathway? |
|
Definition
| Production of Factor X restarts the extrinsic pathway at step 1 |
|
|
Term
| Outline the positive feedback of the intrinsic pathway? |
|
Definition
| Production of thrombin restarts the intrinsic pathways at step 2 |
|
|
Term
| Outline the common pathway? |
|
Definition
1. Production of active Factor X releases Ca2+ ions, Factor V and PL to convert Prothrombin into thrombin
2. Prothrombin converts Fibrinogen into Fibrin and converts Factor XIII into active Factor XIII
3. The presence of active Factor XIII and Ca2+ converts fibrin into cross-linked fibrin |
|
|
Term
| What are the two anticlotting processes? |
|
Definition
| Production of Anti-thrombin and the producion of Thrombomodulin, protein C and S |
|
|
Term
| What does the production of anti-thrombin do? |
|
Definition
| Inhibits the clotting factors, including thrombin |
|
|
Term
| Which molecule enhances the work of anti-thrombin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the production of Thrombomodulin and protein C and S do? |
|
Definition
| Thrombomodulin bind to thrombin to inhibit its effects and activate proteins C and S. protein S then binds to protein C to inhibit Factors Va and VIIIa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Form scar tissue to heal the wound |
|
|
Term
| What recruits fibroblasts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which enzyme dissolves the healing clot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The blockage of a blood vessel due to an un-removed clot |
|
|
Term
| Outline the mechanism of Fibrinolysis? |
|
Definition
1. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by plasminogen activators
2. Plasmin converts fibrin into soluble fibrin fragments |
|
|
Term
| What secretes the plasminogen activators? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bleeding under the skin causing clots in the tissue |
|
|
Term
| How is contusion stopped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What four things can cause thromboembolism? |
|
Definition
| Athersclerosis, imbalances in the clotting system, slow moving blood and the release of thromboplastin from traumatized tissue |
|
|
Term
| What happens when 75% of the lumen vessel is blocked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when 90% of the lumen vessel is blocked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four inherited disorders of haemostasis? |
|
Definition
| Structural defects, quantity/quality of the platelets, deficiency of coagulation factors and thrombotic disorders |
|
|
Term
| What is the most noticeable sympton of a platlet disorder? |
|
Definition
| Petechiae (pin point red spots) |
|
|
Term
| What causes thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? |
|
Definition
| Low platelets numbers in area of lots of small clots |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? |
|
Definition
| Dark red/black blotch bruising |
|
|
Term
| What causes is von Willebrand's Disease? |
|
Definition
| Deficiency of vWF so easily bleeding |
|
|
Term
| What causes Haemophilia A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes Haemophilia B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four acquired disorders of haemostasis? |
|
Definition
| Hepatic disease, Vitamin K deficiency, renal disease and Drug induced disorders |
|
|
Term
| What are the main two anticoagulants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is an patient prescribed Warfarin? |
|
Definition
| When they are deficient in vitamin K |
|
|
Term
| When is a patient prescribed Heparin? |
|
Definition
| When they have serious internal blood clotting |
|
|
