Term
| What could cause weight loss? |
|
Definition
-Anorexia
-Dysphagia
-Vomiting or Diarrhea
-Inability to absorb nutrients from GI tract
-Increased metabolic needs
-Food allergies
-Problems chewing
-Peer pressure |
|
|
Term
| What do you ask about during a nutritional ROS? |
|
Definition
| Ask about weight changes, fatigue, allergies, or problems in GI |
|
|
Term
| What should you ask about regarding health patterns and nutrition? |
|
Definition
| Ask about nutrition and exercise patterns |
|
|
Term
| What are some common or concerning symptoms related to nutrition? |
|
Definition
-Changes in weight (unintended)
-Anorexia
-Changes in sense of taste or smell
-Difficulty chewing and swallowing |
|
|
Term
| A detailed nutrition history includes: |
|
Definition
1. Food pattern
2. Personal food preferences
3. Food preparation
4. Finances
5. Accessibility
6. Patient health
7. Exercise Pattern
8. Body Image
9. Family health
10. Family dietary problems |
|
|
Term
| What are some ways you can do a nutrition screening? |
|
Definition
-Admission nutrition screening tool
-24-hour diet recall
-Food frequency questionnaire
-Food diaries
-Direct observation |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of equipment you need to for a nutrition-related physical exam? |
|
Definition
-Skinfold calipers
-Measurement tape
-Nutrition assessment form |
|
|
Term
| What is skinfold thickness exam? |
|
Definition
| Technique of measurement in which you repeat three measurements and then take an average |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Body mass index = weight in kg divided by height (m)2 or weight in lbs divided by height (in)2 x 703 |
|
|
Term
| What are some signs of dehydration? |
|
Definition
-Tachychardia
-Weak pulse
-Turgor on abdomen |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular exam r/t nutrition? |
|
Definition
-Measure pulse rate and amplitude
-Inspect arms and legs for edema (protein deficiency)
-Petechiae and ecchymoses (lack of vitamin A) |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for during HEENT exam r/t nutrition? |
|
Definition
-Note dark circles under eyes
-Inspect mucus membranes for dryness, color, and intactness
-Enlarged thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for during GI exam r/t nutrition? |
|
Definition
-Distension and ascites (protein deficiency)
-Turgor on abdomen (dehydration)
-Measure waist circumference (measure of central body fat) |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for during MSK exam r/t nutrition? |
|
Definition
-Muscle wasting and flaccidity (protein deficiency)
-Bone pain and bowing of legs (lack of vitamin D) |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for during Neurologic exam r/t nutrition? |
|
Definition
| -Changes in mental status, irritability, inability to concentrate, paresthesias (dehydration and lack of vitamins) |
|
|
Term
| What are some signs of protein deficiency? |
|
Definition
-Edema in arms and legs
-Distension/ascites of abdomen
-Muscle wasting and flaccidity |
|
|
Term
| What are the measurements of BMI? |
|
Definition
Underweight: <18.5
Normal: 18.5-24.9
Overweight: 25.0-29.9
Obesity I: 30.0-34.9
Obesity II: 35.0-39.9
Extreme Obesity III: >40 |
|
|
Term
| What laboratory studies are important in nutritional assessment? |
|
Definition
-Hemoglobin
-Hematocrit
-Cholesterol
-Triglycerides
-Total Lymphocyte count
-Skin Testing
-Serum Proteins
-Nitrogen balance
-Creatinine-height index |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Protein-calorie malnutrition |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormal findings caused by nutritional deficiencies |
|
Definition
-Scorbutic gum: Vit C deficiency
-Follicular hyperkeratosis: Vit A deficiency
-Bitot's Spots: Vit A deficiency
-Rickets - Vit D, Calcium deficient |
|
|
Term
| How would you write a chief complaint for an Adult Health History? |
|
Definition
| Make every attempt to quote the patient's own words |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between signs and symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Signs = Objective; Symptoms = Subjective |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 components of a Comprehensive Adult Health History? |
|
Definition
1. Identifying data and source of history
2. Chief Complaints
3. Past History
4. Family History
5. Review of Systems
6. Health Patterns
7. History of present illness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cutting down, Annoyance if criticized, Guilty feelings, Eye-openers (2 or more of these suggest misuse) |
|
|
Term
| What are ways to approach sensitive topics that call for specific approaches? |
|
Definition
1. Be nonjudgemental
2. Explain why you need to know certain info
3. Find opening questions
4. Consciously acknowledge whatever discomfort you're feeling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Unexplained abuse
-Delayed getting treatment for trauma
-Past history of repeated injuries or "accidents"
-Person close to pt. has history of alcohol and drug abuse
-Partner tries to dominate interview or will not leave room |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 critical attributes for symptom analysis? |
|
Definition
OLDCART
Onset
Location
Duration
Characteristic Symptoms
Associated Manisfestations
Relieving/Aggravating factors
Treatments tried |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pictorial display of a person's family relations and medical history |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Address each body system, from head to toe
-Most questions pertain to symptoms
-May uncover problems patient has overlooked
-Do not use medical terms, use plain English |
|
|
Term
| What do you ask about when discussing Health Patterns? |
|
Definition
Self-perception/self-concept
Value-Belief
Activity-exercise
Sleep-rest
Nutrition
Role-relationship
Coping-stress-tolerance |
|
|
Term
| How should you discuss a patient's mental health history? |
|
Definition
-Be aware of cultural constructs
-Be sensitive to mood changes or symptoms of possible depression
-Aks open-ended questions initially, then move to more specific
-If patient seems depressed, ask about thoughts of suicide |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of skin? |
|
Definition
1. Protection
2. Temperature Regulation
3. Perception
4. Absorption and excretion
5. Synthesizes vitamin D
6. Identification |
|
|
Term
| Why do we do a skin assessment? |
|
Definition
| Look for lesions and underlying systemic disease or disorders |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 kinds of cyanosis? |
|
Definition
1. Central: oxygen level in arterial blood is low
2. Peripheral: Oxygen level is normal, cutaneous blood flow decreases and slows and tissues extract more oxygen than usual from blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of hair? |
|
Definition
1. Vellus hair: short, fine, inconspicuous, relatively unpigmented
2. Terminal hair: coarser, thicker, more conspicuous, pigmented |
|
|
Term
| What are we trying to identify when taking an integumentary history? |
|
Definition
1. Diseases of the skin
2. Systemic diseases that have skin manisfestations
3. Physical abuse
4. Risk for pressure ulcer formation
5. Risk for skin cancer
6. Need for health promotion education regarding skin |
|
|
Term
| What are common or concerning symptoms when taking an integumentary history? |
|
Definition
-Rash
-Nonhealing lesions
-Moles
-Lesions
-Bruising (ecchymosis)
-Hair loss |
|
|
Term
| What are some external variables that can influence skin color? |
|
Definition
-Emotional states
-Temperature
-Cigarette smoking
-Prolonged elevation/dependent position of extremities
-Prolonged inactivity |
|
|
Term
| What do we look at when doing a physical examination of the skin? |
|
Definition
1. Color
2. Moisture
3. Vascularity
4. Temperature
5. Texture
6. Mobility or turgor
7. Lesions
8. Nails
9. Hair |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of edema? |
|
Definition
1. Pitting: interstitial fluid mobile
- pitting edema scale 1-4
2. Nonpitting: local infection or trauma; brawny edema |
|
|
Term
| What should you note when you examine a skin lesion? |
|
Definition
1. Color
2. Elevation or flat; and texture
3. Pattern or shape
4. Size
5. Location and distribution on body (generalized v. localized)
6. Exudate (wet or dry, color, consistency)
7. Bleeding from lesion |
|
|
Term
| What are the different lesion patterns of arrangement? |
|
Definition
-Discrete
-Annular or circular
-Grouped or clustered
-Linear
-Gyrate or snakelike
-Confluent or run together
-Target or Iris
-Nerve root distribution or dermatomal |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 degrees of a burn? |
|
Definition
1st Degree: red, painful, blanches with pressure, no blistering
2nd Degree: blisters, redness, pain, raw surfaces (partial thickness or to dermis layer)
3rd degree: skin white or charred, not painful (full thickness, all skin elements destroyed) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| small flat spot, up to 1.0cm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| flat spot 1.0cm or larger |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| elevated superficial lesion 1.0cm or larger |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| elevated spot, up to 1.0cm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| marble-like lesion larger the 0.5cm, often deeper and firmer than papule |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nodule filled with expressible material, either liquid or semisolid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Somewhat irregular, relatively transcient, superficial area of localized skin edema |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Up to 1.0cm, filled with serous fluid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1.0cm or larger, filled with serous fluid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Thin flake of dead exfoliated epidermis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dried residue of skin exudates such as serum, pus, or blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| visible and palpable thickening of the epidermis and roughening of the skin wih tincreased visibility of normal skin furrows |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Nonscarring loss of superficial epidermis, surface is moist but does not bleed |
|
|
Term
| What are the factors that influence how an individual experiences pain? |
|
Definition
-Age
-Previous pain experience
-Cultural norms
-Unknown expectations
-History of drug abuse
-Perception of pain |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of pain? |
|
Definition
-Nociceptive: pain r/t tissue damage; responsive to inflammatory mediators
-Neuropathic: Direct or indirect injury to peripheral or CNS
-Idiopathic: without etiology |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of nociceptive pain? |
|
Definition
Visceral: large or deep interior organs
Deep somatic: blood vessels, muscle, joints, tendons, bone
Cutaneous: skin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A way to assess pain in patients who cannot talk. Stands for Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability |
|
|
Term
| When do you use numeric faces? |
|
Definition
| When the patient can speak, but has trouble verbalizing pain, usually a small child. |
|
|
Term
| What are common acute pain behaviors? |
|
Definition
-Guarding
-Grimacing
-Vocalizations
-Agitation
-Stillness
-Diaphoresis
-Change in vital signs |
|
|
Term
| What are common chronic pain behaviors? |
|
Definition
-Bracing
-Rubbing
-Diminished activity
-Sighing
-Change in apetite
-Movement
-Exercise
-Praying
-Sleeping
-Agitation |
|
|
Term
| What are types of joints? |
|
Definition
Immovable joint (ex: skull sutures)
Slightly movable (pivot and gliding)
Freely movable (synovial) |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of synovial joints? |
|
Definition
-Hinge: flat or planar: moves on one plane (flexion and extension only)
-Condylar: convex or concave (knee or TMJ)
-Ball and socket: (hip) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation |
|
|
Term
| What is the most active joint in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you do for a screening MSK exam? |
|
Definition
-Inspect
-Palpate
-ROM
-Strength
Check for symmetry |
|
|
Term
| What is passive exercise? |
|
Definition
-Carried out by the nurse, without assistance from patient
-Will not preserve muscle mass or bone mineralization because there is no voluntary contraction, lengthening of muscle, or tension on bones |
|
|
Term
| What is active assistive exercise? |
|
Definition
-These exercises are performed by the patient with assistance from the nurse
-Exercises encourage normal muscle function while the nurse supports the distal joint |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Performed by patient without assistance, to increase muscle strength |
|
|
Term
| What is resistive exercise? |
|
Definition
| Active exercises performed by the patient by pulling or pushing against an opposing force |
|
|
Term
| What is an isometric exercise? |
|
Definition
-Performed by the patient by contracting and relaxing muscle while keeping the part in a fixed position
-Done to maintain muscle strength when a joint is immobilized
-Full patient cooperation is required |
|
|
Term
| What is the order of the MSK physical examination? |
|
Definition
1. TMJ
2. Neck (cervical spine)
3. Upper Extremities:
-shoulders
-elbows
-hands, wrists, fingers
4. Lower Extremities
-Hips
-Knees
-Ankles, feet, toes
5. Spine |
|
|
Term
| What should you do when examining the TMJ? |
|
Definition
-Observe lateral motion and protrusion forward
-Palpate while opening and closing the jaw |
|
|
Term
| What should you do when examining the cervical spine? |
|
Definition
-Palpate spinous processes and paravertebral muscles
-Flexion/Extension/Hyperextension
-Lateral bending or abduction and adduction
-Rotation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Test for carpal tunnel, have patient put hands in praying upside down, if they feel numbness before 1 min it is positive |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ask patient to fully abduct the arm to shoulder level; if cannot hold arm fully abducted, test is positive indicating rotator cuff tear |
|
|
Term
| What should you think if you notice joint(s) that is/are hot, red, or swollen? |
|
Definition
| Injury, Immune, Infected, Inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of ROM exercises? |
|
Definition
-Maintain joint mobility
-Stimulate circulation, preventing thrombus and embolus formation
-Improve coordination
-Increase tolerance for more activity
-Maintain and build muscle strength
-Prevent contracture and atrophy of muscles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Abnormal, usually permanent condition of a joint, characterized by flexion and fixation
-Possibly caused by atrophy and shortening of muscle fibers resulting from immobilization
-Can be from loss of the normal elasticity of connective tissues or the skin, as from the formation of extensive scar tissue over a joint |
|
|
Term
| Which side of the lungs has 3 lobes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of preventable death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two reference lines you would use on the anterior thorax? |
|
Definition
Midsternal line (MSL)
Midclavicular line (MCL) |
|
|
Term
| What are two reference lines you would use on the posterior thorax? |
|
Definition
Vertebral line
Midscapular line |
|
|
Term
| What are the two reference lines you would use on the lateral thorax? |
|
Definition
Anterior axillary line (AAL)
Midaxillary line (MAL)
Posterior axillary line (PAL) |
|
|
Term
| What anterior rib do the lower lungs rest near? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Inspiration is primarily facilitated by which muscles? |
|
Definition
| Diaphragm and intercostal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| difficulty breathing while recumbent |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea |
|
Definition
| difficulty breathing that awakens patient |
|
|
Term
| What should you ask about during the respiratory history? |
|
Definition
Vaccinations
Environmental Factors
Exposure History: inhalants, carcinogens
Past respiratory illnesses |
|
|
Term
| What should you ask children during a respiratory history? |
|
Definition
History of prematurity
History of vent support
Recurrent hospitalizations for pulmonary infection |
|
|
Term
| What should you ask about during family history? |
|
Definition
TB
Allergies
Asthma
Genetic disorders: cystic fibrosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Use of accessory respiratory muscles |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when fremitus is decreased during palpation? |
|
Definition
| When anything obstructs transmission of vibrations (e.g. obstructed bronchus, pleural effusion, pneumothorax, or emphysema) |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when fremitus is increased during palpation? |
|
Definition
| Occurs with compression or consolidation of lung tissure (e.g. lobar pneumonia, tumor, Atelectasis, pulmonary fibrosis) |
|
|
Term
| Name the different types of percussion notes. |
|
Definition
Resonance: over normal lung
Hyperresonance: over hyperinflated lung
Flatness/Dullness: over dense tissue or bone
Tympany: thing "tight drum" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sounds are louder and clearer over airless tissue (pleural effusions, thickening, areas of consolidation) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "ee" changes to "aa" over areas of consolidation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Whispered words sound clearer over areas of consolidation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gook in big airways; like snoring or clearing mucous |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| low grating noise in peripheral and lateral chest; cough does not clear, noticed on inspiration/expiration; Plurisy |
|
|
Term
| A patient coughing at night signifies what respiratory disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does coughing up "grayish-black" mucous signify? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What coud cause hoarseness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of TB? |
|
Definition
| Weight loss, night sweats, bloody sputum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Collapsed alveoli that open back up after person has been shallow breathing and then takes a deep breath |
|
|
Term
| What would breath and voice sounds sound like when listening to an airless lung (ex: lobar pneumonia)? |
|
Definition
-Spoken words would sound louder and clearer
-Spoken "ee" would change to "aa"
-whispered words would be louder and clearer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| High-pitched harsh sound that is entirely or predominately inspiratory |
|
|
Term
| What are the anatomical landmarks for the lungs on the anterior chest? |
|
Definition
-Lung apices (apex) is 3-4cm about clavicle
-Lower lungs rest on diaphragm at 6th rib, midclavicular line |
|
|
Term
| What are the anatomical landmarks for the lungs on the posterior chest? |
|
Definition
-Apices near C7
-Lower lungs near T10
-Trachea bifurcates at T4 |
|
|
Term
| How would you evaluate respiratory excursion? |
|
Definition
-place hands on each side near 10th rib
-have pt. take deep breath
-measure distance between thumbs and expiration |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds in early left sided HF. |
|
Definition
1. Resonant
2. Late inspiratory crackles in dependent portion of lungs, possibly wheezes
3. Normal |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds, and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds in consolidation. |
|
Definition
1. Dull over the airless area
2. Late inspiratory crackles over involved area
3. Increased over area with bronchophony, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds, and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds for atelectasis (Lobar obstruction). |
|
Definition
1. Dull over airless area
2. None
3. Usually absent when bronchial plug persists |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds, and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds in pleural effusion. |
|
Definition
1. Dull to flat over fluid
2. None, except possible pleural rub
3. Decreased to absent, but may be increased toward top of effusion |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds, and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds in pneumothorax. |
|
Definition
1. Hyperresonant or tympanic over pleural air
2. None except possible pleural rub
3. Decreased to absent over pleural air |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds, and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds in COPD. |
|
Definition
1. Diffusely hyperresonant
2. None, or crackles, wheezes, and rhonchi of associated chronic bronchitis
3. Decreased |
|
|
Term
| List the percussion note, adventitious sounds, and tactile fremitus/transmitted voice sounds in asthma. |
|
Definition
1. Resonant to diffusely hyperresonant
2. Wheezes, possibly crackles
3. Decreased |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Alveoli fill with fluid or blood cells, as in pneumonia, pulmonary edema, or pulmonary hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fluid accumulates in the pleural space and separates air-filled lung from the chest wall, blocking the transmission of sound |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When air leaks into the pleural space, usually unilaterally, the lung recoils from the chest wall. Pleural air blocks transmission of sound |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Slowly progressive disorder in which the distal air spaces enlarge and lungs become hyperinflated. Chronic bronchitis also associated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Widespread narrowing of the tracheobronchial tree diminishes air flow to a fluctuating degree. During attacks, air flow decreases further, and lungs hyperinflate |
|
|
Term
| What should you ask about during cardiac history? |
|
Definition
Chest pain
Palpitations
Dizzy
Syncope
Dyspnea
Orthopnea - How many pillows?
+/- cough
+/- sweats
+/- nausea
Peripheral edema
SMOKING |
|
|
Term
| How would you know that edema is related to cardiac system? |
|
Definition
| If swelling is bilateral and worse in evening |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 major risk factors of heart disease? |
|
Definition
1. Smoking history
2. Diabetes Mellitus
3. Hypertension
4. Obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2)
5. High Cholesterol levels |
|
|
Term
| How do you measure for JVD? |
|
Definition
-Position bed at 30-45 degree angle and look for pulsations and fullness
-A normal reading the vein goes down as the head goes up = not stressed |
|
|
Term
| What would central cyanosis indicate? |
|
Definition
| Poor arterial circulation |
|
|
Term
| What would periperal cyanosis indicate? |
|
Definition
| Peripheral vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What are you hearing during the "Lub (S1)" part of the heart sound? |
|
Definition
| The closure of the tricuspid and mitral vavle (AV valves) |
|
|
Term
| What are you hearing during the "Dub" (S2) part of the heart sound? |
|
Definition
| Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves (SL valves) |
|
|
Term
| What is a Split S2 (physiologic split)? |
|
Definition
| Aortic valve closes earlier than pulmonic valve during inspiration |
|
|
Term
| What is normal for Split S2? |
|
Definition
-It is normal to hear in athletes < 40 y.o.
-Best heard at base of heart (Mitral, Pulmonic)
-Louder on reclining and disappears during slow breathing or holding breath |
|
|
Term
| What is normal for Split S2? |
|
Definition
-It is normal to hear in athletes < 40 y.o.
-Best heard at base of heart (Mitral, Pulmonic)
-Louder on reclining and disappears during slow breathing or holding breath |
|
|
Term
| What is an abnormal split? |
|
Definition
-Occurs in expiration
-Stays when sitting up |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-S3 occurs when ventricles are resistant in early rapid filling phase = protodiastole
-Not varying with respiration; persists when sitting upright, increases with isotonic exercise |
|
|
Term
| Who would you expect to have an S3 sound? |
|
Definition
-Young adults, children
-Increased heart rate
-Late pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What would indicate an abnormal S3 sound? |
|
Definition
-Older adult
-Hypertension
-Volume overload (CHF)
-Mitral Regurg
-High output states (thyroid, anemia) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs from resistance to filling at end of disatole (at prestole) |
|
|
Term
| List the heart murmur grades: |
|
Definition
I - Very hard to hear
II - Quiet but heard with stethoscope
III - Moderately loud, without a thrill
IV - Loud, may have thrill
V - Very loud, definite thrill, can be heard with stethoscope partly off chest
VI - Heard without stethoscope on chest, obvious thrill |
|
|
Term
| What is intermittent claudication? |
|
Definition
| Pain in leg aggravated by walking or activity |
|
|
Term
| What does Homen's test look for? |
|
Definition
| DVT (but is only 35% accurate) |
|
|
Term
| What would be worrisome findings during inspection and palpation of lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
-Prolonged swelling over 1.5 cm
-widespread adenopathy
-multiple positive history points |
|
|
Term
| What does an orthostatic reading show? |
|
Definition
| How the heard accommodates when the patient changes position |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Problem with blood oxygen going to the muscle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Problem with blood going back to the heart |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of PAD? |
|
Definition
-Pain upon limb elevation (arterial blood cannot get to muscle)
-Pain increased with walking (intermittent claudication)
-Can tell how bad PAD is by how far they can walk
-Increase of pain at at night
-Increase of pain with cool temperature |
|
|
Term
| What would hair loss on a patient's legs be indicative of? |
|
Definition
| Loss of oxygen to the area (can happen with PAD or PVD) |
|
|
Term
| What are the anterior landmarks for location of the normal adult heart? |
|
Definition
| From the 2nd to 5th intercostal space and from the right border of the sternum to the left mid-clavicular line |
|
|
Term
| Where is the anatomical location of the apical impulse? |
|
Definition
| 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line |
|
|
Term
| In which of the 4 auscultatory will the S1 sound be loudest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which of the 4 auscultatory areas will the S2 sound be the loudest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the 4 precordial areas for ascultation and their anatomical landmarks. |
|
Definition
1. Aortic: Right 2nd intercostal space
2. Pulmonic: Left 2nd intercostal space
3. Tricuspid: Left 5th intercostal space
4. Mitral (PMI): Left 5th intercostal space at midclavicular line |
|
|
Term
| When checking the different peripheral pulses of the arm, what 3 arteries are we feeling? |
|
Definition
1. Brachial
2. Radial
3. Ulnar |
|
|
Term
| When we are feeling the different peripheral pulses of the leg, which 4 arteries are we feeling? |
|
Definition
1. Femoral
2. Popliteal
3. Dorsalis Pedis
4. Posterior tibial |
|
|
Term
| Which pulse do we feel to check peripheral pulses on the neck? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of the lymphatic system? |
|
Definition
1. Recycle and conserve fluids and plasma proteins
2. Part of immune system pathway: lymph nodes
3. Absorb lipids from the intestinal tract |
|
|
Term
| List the superficial lymph nodes available for direct examination. |
|
Definition
-Cervical
-Axillary
-Inguinal: upper and lower |
|
|
Term
| What would be worrisome findings during a lymphatic assessment? |
|
Definition
-Prolonged swelling over 1.5cm wide
-Widespread adenopathy
-Multiple positive history points |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fatty thickening in walls of arteries |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Alternating force of pulse; almost always indicates severe left-sided heart failure and is usually best felt by applying light pressure on radial or femoral arteries |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Greater than normal drop in systolic pressure during inhalation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
3 factors that set stage for venous thrombosis
1. Venous stasis
2. Hypercoaguability
3. Vessel wall damage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Develops when lymph channes are obstructed by tumor, fibrosis, or inflammation, and in cases of axillary node dissection and radiation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Edema is soft in early stages, then becomes hard and nonpitting. Skin is thickened, ulceration is rare, no pirgmentation and is usually found bilaterally on extremities. |
|
|
Term
| Why might the PMI be felt in the xiphoid process or epigastric area? |
|
Definition
| Results from right ventricular hypertrophy, usually as a result of obstructive pulmonary disease |
|
|
Term
| False high blood pressure |
|
Definition
Cuff too small
Cuff too loose or uneven
Arm below heart
Inflating or deflating too slow
Deflating cuff too quickly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cuff too large
Repeating BP too quickly
Inaccurate level of inflation
Pressing stethoscope too tightly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Normal <120, <80
- Prehypertension: S: 120-139, D: 80-89
- Stage 1: hypertension: S: 140-159, D: 90-99
- Stage 2: hypertension: S: 160+, D: 100+ |
|
|
Term
| What would you ask for a patient for a head and scalp history? |
|
Definition
-Headaches
-Dizziness
-Lumps or masses
-Surgery
-Allergies
-Medications and/or treatments used |
|
|
Term
| What does the patient do during a facial motor exam? |
|
Definition
-Smile
-Puff cheeks
-Show teeth
-Wrinkle brow
-Squeeze eyes shut against resistance |
|
|
Term
| During a neck exam, what are you palpating for when the patient swallows? |
|
Definition
| Isthmus, left and right lobes of thyroid, feel for any nodules, enlargement or tenderness |
|
|
Term
| How do we measure how swollen tonsils are? |
|
Definition
| Look inside mouth, measure from 1+(slightly swollen) to 4+ (swollen to tip of uvula) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| common physical disorder of the nose, involving displacement of the nasal septum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sac-like growths of inflamed tissue lining the nose; people with nasal polyps often complain of having cold-like symptoms that have lasted for months or years |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| URI (Upper Respiratory Infection) symptoms |
|
Definition
-Nasal Congestion
-Feverish
-Sore throat
-Toothache |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between doing an ear exam on an adult and an ear exam on a child? |
|
Definition
| In adults you pull the ear up and back to straighten the ear canal while in children you pull the ear down and back |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the middle ear? |
|
Definition
| Conducts sound, equalizes air pressure and reduces loudness |
|
|
Term
| What are the auditory ossicles? |
|
Definition
| Composed of the malleus, incus, and stapes, it transmits vibration from the TM to the inner ear |
|
|
Term
| What is the eustachian tube and how does it differ in adults v. children? |
|
Definition
| It equalizes aie pressure form middle ear to nasopharynx and is more horizontal in child, more angled in adult |
|
|
Term
| What makes up the inner ear? |
|
Definition
Cochlea - converts vibrations and sends through cochlear nerve to the brain
Labyrinth - responsible for balance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Mechanical dysfunction in external or middle ear
-Foreign object in canal, perforated TM, otosclerosis
-Can still hear if sound is loud enough |
|
|
Term
| Sensorineural hearing loss |
|
Definition
-Cochlear, CN VIII or auditory area of cerebral
-Presbycusis
-Inner ear disease, ototoxic drugs |
|
|
Term
| What is pupil accomodation? |
|
Definition
| Pupillary constriction and convergence towards center when looking from far to near |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pupils
Equal
Round
Reacts to Light
Accommodates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Visual accuity chart
-chart is 20 feet away from the patient
-Cover one eye during testing, then switch to other eye, then both eyes
-The larger the denominator, the poorer the vision
-Person is legally blind if vision is 20/200 and cannot be corrected |
|
|
Term
| What are amblyopia, diplopia, myopia, hyperopia, and prebyopia? |
|
Definition
Amblyopia: lazy eye
Diplopia: double vision
Myopia: nearsightedness
Hyperpopia: farsighted
Presbyopia: decreased accommodation with aging |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A condition in which eyes make repetitive uncontrolled movements. It is normal at extremes of gaze but in Labyrinth disorder, it will be present after eye moves back to normal position |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A condition in which the eyes are not properly aligned with each other |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Buildup of fluid inside the skull, "water heads" usually found in children |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one thing you monitor for after a tonsilectomy and what is the sign for that? |
|
Definition
| Bleeding and a sign in constant swallowing is a sign |
|
|
Term
| What should you look for when examining the TM? |
|
Definition
| Color should be pearly gray and you should make you see cone-of-light to be sure the TM is not bulging |
|
|
Term
| What two tests should you perform to test conductive hearing loss? |
|
Definition
Weber: Vibrating fork in middle of client's head
Rinne: Vibrating fork on mastoid bone, then in front of ear (air conduction should be greater than bone conduction) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 types of primary headaches? |
|
Definition
1. Migraines
2. Tension
3. Cluster |
|
|
Term
| What are the processes of Migraines, Tension headaches, and cluster headaches? |
|
Definition
M: Primary neuronal dysfunction
T: Unclear-muscle contraction or vasoconstriction unlikely
C: Unclear-possibly extracranial vasodilation from neural dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| What are the different locations of Migraines, tension headaches, and cluster headaches? |
|
Definition
M: Usually unilateral
T: Usually bilateral; may be generalized or localized
C: Unilateral; usually behind or around eye |
|
|
Term
| What are the different qualities and their severities in migraines, tension headaches, and cluster headaches? |
|
Definition
M: Throbbing or aching, variable in severity
T: Pressing or tightening pain, mild to moderate intensity
C: Deep, continuous, severe |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Timing (onset, duration, course) for migraines, tension headaches, and cluster headaches. |
|
Definition
M: Onset is fairly rapid reaching peak in 1-2 hrs, lasts 4-72 hours and peak incidence is in early to mid adolescence, usually in women, usually monthly
T: Onset is gradual, lasts minutes to days, and is often recurrent or persistent over long periods
C: Onset is abrupt, peaks within minutes, lasts up to 3 hours, and is episodic, clustered in time with several each day for 4-8 wks, then relief for 6-12 mos. More common in men. |
|
|
Term
| What are the different associated factors for migraines, tension headaches, and cluster headaches? |
|
Definition
M: Nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, visual auras, motor auras affecting hand or arm, sensory auras
T: Sometimes photophobia; phonophobia; nausea absent
C: Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, miosis, ptosis, eyelid edema, conjunctival infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the different aggravating/provoking factors for migraines, tension headaches, and cluster headaches? |
|
Definition
M: Alcohol, certain foods, or tension may provoke, more common premenstually, aggravated by noise/bright light
T: Sustained muscle tension, as in driving or typing
C: During attack, sensitivity to alcohol may increase |
|
|
Term
| What are the relieving factors for migaines, tension headaches, and cluster headaches? |
|
Definition
M: Quiet, dark room; sleep; sometimes transient relief from pressure on the involved artery, if early in the course
T: Possibly massage, relaxation
C: ? |
|
|
Term
| What type of headaches are sinusitis headaches and those related to meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the different processes for headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis? |
|
Definition
S: Mucosal inflammation of the paranasal sinuses
M: Infection of the meninges surrounding the brain |
|
|
Term
| Where are the different locations common to headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis? |
|
Definition
S: Usually above the eye or over the maxillary sinus
M: Generalized |
|
|
Term
| Describe the quality and severity of headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis. |
|
Definition
S: Aching or throbbing; variable in severity; consider possible migraine
T: Steady or throbbing, very severe |
|
|
Term
| Describe the Timing (onset, duration, course) for headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis. |
|
Definition
S: Variable onset, often lasts several hours at a time, recurring over days or longer; often recurrent in a repetitive daily pattern
M: Fairly rapid onset, duration is variable, usually days; it is a persistent headache in an acute illness |
|
|
Term
| Describe the associated factors in the headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis. |
|
Definition
S: Local tenderness, nasal congestion, discharge, and fever
M: Fever, stiff neck |
|
|
Term
| Describe the aggravating/provoking factors in headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis. |
|
Definition
S: May be aggravated by coughing, sneezing, or jarring the head
M: none? |
|
|
Term
| Describe the factors that relieve headaches related to sinusitis and meningitis. |
|
Definition
S: Nasal decongestants, antibiotics
M: N/A? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increased adrenal cortisol production produces a round or "moon" face with red cheeks. Excessive hair growth may be present on face. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increased growth hormone produces enlargment of both bone and soft tissue. Head is elongated, with bony prominences fo the forehead, nose, and lower jaw. Facial features appear coarsened. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decreased facial mobility blunts expression. A masklike face may result with decreased blinking and a characteristic stare. Neck and upper trunk flex forward, facial skin becomes oily, and drooling may occur. |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
-Nervousness
-Weight loss despite increased appetite
-Excessive sweating and heat intolerance
-Palpitations
-Frequent bowel movements
-Proximal muscle weakness and tremor |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
-Warm, smooth, moist skin
-Increased systolic and decreased diastolic BP
-Tachycardia or A. Fib
-Hyperdynamic cardiac pulsations with an accentuated S1
-Tremor and proximal muscle weakness
-With Graves disease, eye signs such as stare, lid lag, and exopthalmos |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
-Fatigue, lethargy
-Modest weight gain with anorexia
-Dry, coarse skin and cold intolerance
-Swelling of face, hands, and legs
-Constipation
-Weakness, muscle cramps, arthralgias, paresthesias, impaired memory and hearing |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
-Dry, coarse, cool skin, sometimes yellowish from carotene, with nonpitting edema and loss of hair
-Periorbital puffiness
-Decreased systolic and increased diastolic BP
-Bradycardia and, in late stages, hypothermia
-Intensity of heart sounds sometimes depressed
-Impaired memory, mixed hearing loss, somnolence, peripheral neuropathy, carpal tunnel syndrome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drooping of the upper lid. Causes can include myasthenia, gravis, damage to the oculomotor nerve, and damage to the sympathetic nerve supply. Senile ptosis can occur with age. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The eyeball protrudes forward. When bilateral, can indicate infiltrative ophthalmopathy of Graves hyperthyroidism. Unilateral is seen in Graves disease or a tumor or inflammation of the orbit. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pattern of redness: diffuse dilatation of conjunctival vessels with redness that tends to be maximal perpherally
Pain: mild discomfort
Vision: unaffected except for temporary blurring due to discharge
Discharge: watery, mucoid, or mucopurulent
Pupil: Not affected
Cornea: Clear
Significance: Bacterial, viral, and other infections; allergy; irritation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Opacities of the lenses visible through the pupil. Most common in old age. Nuclear cataract looks gray when seen by a flashlight. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Unequal pupils. When greater in bright light causes could include blunt trauma to eye, open-angle glaucoma, and impaired parasympathetic nerve supply to iris. When greater in dim light caused by interruption of sympathetic nerve supply. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A painful, tender red infection in a gland at the margin of the eyelid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Spinning sensation accompanied by nystagmus and ataxia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a near faint from feeling faint or lightheaded |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| unsteadiness or imbalance when walking, especially in older patients |
|
|
Term
| What would be the results of a Weber and Rinne test for an ear that has conductive hearing loss? |
|
Definition
W: Sound lateralizes to impaired ear-room noise not well heard, so detection of vibrations improves
R: Bone conduction longer than or equal to air conduction |
|
|
Term
| What would be the results of a Weber and Rinne test for an ear with sensorineural hearing loss? |
|
Definition
W: Sound lateralizes to good ear-inner ear or cochlear nerve damage impairs transmission to affected ear
R: Air conduction longer than bone conduction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Produces recurrent and painful vesicular eruptions of the lips and surrounding skin. A small cluster of vesicles first develops. As these break, yellow-brown crusts form, and healing ensues within 10-14 days. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A diffuse, nonpitting, tense swelling of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It develops rapidly, and typically disappears over subsequent hours or days. Although usually allergic in nature and sometimes associated with hives, it does not itch. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Yeast infection in the mouth. Thick, white plaques are somewhat adherent to the underlying mucosa. Predisposing factors include: prolonged treatment with corticosteroid or antibiotics; AIDS. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Common in teenagers and young adults. Gingival margins are reddened and swollen, adn the interdental papillae are blunted, swollen and red. Brushing teeth often makes the gums bleed. Plaque is not readily visible. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Benign. Dorsum of tongue shows scattered smooth red areas denuded of papillae. Gives a maplike pattern that changes over time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hairy yellowish to brown or black elongated papillae on tongue's dorsum. Benign condition may follow antibiotic therapy or occur spontaneously. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fissures appear with age. Food debris may accumulate in crevices and irritate, but condition is benign |
|
|
Term
| Smooth tongue (atrophic glossitis) |
|
Definition
| Smooth and often sore tongue that has lost it's papillae. Suggest deficiency in riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, vitamin B12, pyridoxine, or iron, or tx with chemo |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Candida albicans infection of the tongue that is seen in immunosuppressed conditions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| These whitish raised areas with a feathery or corrugated pattern most often affect the sides of the tongue. Unlike candidiasis, these areas cannot be scraped off. They are seen in HIV and AIDS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| early symptom (or set of symptoms) that might indicate the start of a disease before specific symptoms occur |
|
|
Term
| Name the physical borders for the anterior triangle of the neck |
|
Definition
1. Mandible above
2. Sternomastoid laterally
3. Midline of the neck medially |
|
|
Term
| What are the anatomical borders for the posterior triangle of the neck? |
|
Definition
1. Sternomastoid muscle
2. Trapezius muscle
3. The clavicle |
|
|
Term
| What does the thyroid feel like in Grave's Disease, Hashimoto Thyroidectomy, malignancy, and thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
| Soft in Grave's Disease; Firm in Hashimotos; Firm in malignancy; tenderness in thryroiditis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tests near vision and helps identify the need for reading glasses or bifocals in patients older than 45 |
|
|
Term
| What area of the male anatomy is a potential hernia site? |
|
Definition
| Juncture of lower abdomen wall and thigh is a potential hernia site in which a loop of bowel (colon) portrudes though a weak spot in musculature |
|
|
Term
| What do the lymphatics of the penis and scrotal surfaces drain into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the lymphatics of the testes drain into? |
|
Definition
| The abdominal lymph nodes (which aren't accessible to exam) |
|
|
Term
| What are the anatomical borders of the inguinal area? |
|
Definition
| The anterior superior iliac spine and symphysis pubis |
|
|
Term
| How long is the inguinal canal and what are the openings called? |
|
Definition
| 4-6 cm in an adult and the two openings are called the internal ring and the external ring |
|
|
Term
| What are 6 important components of a reproductive health history in men? |
|
Definition
1. What may have brought the patient in
2. Sexual preference and sexual response
3. Penile discharge or lesions
4. Scrotal pain or swelling
5. Inguinal pain or swelling
6. Problems with urination |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 main topics to include in reproductive health promotion for men during visit? |
|
Definition
1. Prevention of HIV/STI's
2. Testicular Cancer Screening
3. Prostate Cancer Screening |
|
|
Term
| What do you ask about when taking male fertility history? |
|
Definition
-Number of children
-Infertility evaluation |
|
|
Term
| What should you ask about when assessing male sexual activity history? |
|
Definition
-Erection and ejaculation history (impotence, dysfuction)
-Partners
-Practices, Protection, Past history of STD/STI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Tanner scale? |
|
Definition
| Scale of physical development in children, adolescents, and adults |
|
|
Term
| List the Tanner scale stages of pubic hair |
|
Definition
Tanner I: no pubic hair at all
Tanner II: small amount of long down pubic hair with slight pigment
Tanner III: Hair becomes more coarse and curly
Tanner IV: adult-like hair quality, extending across pubis but sparing medial thighs
Tanner V: hair extends to medial surface of the thighs |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if you notice a mass during a scrotal examination? |
|
Definition
| Transilluminate it: By holding a light behind the scrotum one can easily determine whether the mass is cystic (light shines through) or solid (light blocked by the mass) |
|
|
Term
| What is the concern if abnormalities are noted in the epididymis and spermatic cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pathological accumulation of serous fluid in the scrotum. The main symptom is a painless swollen testicle which feels like water balloon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the testes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The involuntary contraction of the cremaster muscle when the inner thigh is lightly stroked. It can be overactive during adolescence but it's absence in adulthood can indicate health problems (such as testicular torsion or spinal injury) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal location of the urethral opening |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of testicular cancer? |
|
Definition
| unilateral, hard, painless mass |
|
|
Term
| Self exams for testicular and breast cancer are now a Class D recommendation. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
| There is moderate to high certainty that the service has no benefit or that harm outweighs the benefit |
|
|
Term
| What positions can the patient be in during an anal and colorectal exam? |
|
Definition
-L lateral recumbent (left side lying)
-Lithotomy
-Standing |
|
|
Term
| During a prostate exam, what would be considered abnormal findings? |
|
Definition
-greater than 2.5cm
- irregular
-"boggy"/very mushy
-very hard
-tender |
|
|
Term
| Fecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT) |
|
Definition
| This at home test detects blood in the stool by placing a small sample of stool on a chemically treated card, pad, or wipe. Two separate BMs are tested since cancerous tumors can bleed intermittently. |
|
|
Term
How frequently should a patient get:
1. FOBT
2. Flex Sig
3. Colonoscopy |
|
Definition
1. Once a year (unless done in combo with Flex Sig, then every 3 years)
2. Every 5 years
3. Every 10 years |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Doctor looks for polyps/cancer in rectum and lower third of colon with a small, thin, lighted tube inserted into rectum. Pt. must take enema/laxative night before procedure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Similar to flex sig, except the doctor uses longer lighted tube, checks for polyps/cancer in rectum and entire colon, and during test doctor can find and remove most polyps and some cancers. Pt. is slight sedated during test. |
|
|
Term
| A young man feels a sharp pain in his testicle. At what point does he go to a doctor? How long does he have before serious damage occurs? How much time is too long? |
|
Definition
1. If the pain lasts for more than one hour
2. If he does not see a doctor within 6 hours, chances that his testicle will have permanent damage rise
3. If he does not go to a doctor within 24 hours |
|
|
Term
| What is the most current US Preventative Services Task Force stance on prostate-specific antigen (PSA) based screening for prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
| It recommends against it, stating the potential benefit does not outweigh the risk. Only 1 out of 1000 men every 10 years are thought to be helped by PSA screeening, yet 120 out of every 1000 men receive a false-positive test, thereby leading to overdiagnoses and overtreatment. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cancer in men? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the prostate do? |
|
Definition
| Produces fluid that makes up a part of the semen |
|
|
Term
| How does the prostate change as men age? How does this relate to urination? |
|
Definition
| It enlarges and causes the urethra to narrow, thereby decreasing urine flow |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the symptoms of prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
-Difficulty starting urination
-Weak or interrupted urine flow
-Frequent urination, especially at night
-Difficulty emptying the bladder completely
-Pain or burning during urination or ejaculation
-Pain in the back, hips, or pelvis that doesn't resolve |
|
|
Term
| What are risk factors for prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
1. Age: the older the man, the higher the risk
2. Family History
3. Race: more common in African Americans |
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms of colon cancer? |
|
Definition
There may not be any, but if there are:
1. Blood in or on stool
2. Stomach pains, aches, or cramps that don't resolve
3. Unexplained weight loss |
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors associated with colon cancer? |
|
Definition
1. Age: 90% cases occur in 50 yrs of age or older
2. Inflammatory Bowel Diseaes
3. Family History
4. Lifestyle Factors: low fiber/high fat intake, low physical activity; alcohol/tobacco use |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to prevent colorectal (colon) cancer? |
|
Definition
| Screening. Precancerous polyps can be present in the colon for years before they turn into cancer, and we can find these polyps and destroy them before that during a screening. |
|
|
Term
| How would you set a comfortable environment while taking a female reproductive history? |
|
Definition
1. Collect history while patient is dressed
2. Understand anxieties, discomfort, embarrassments
3. Treat patient with respect and patience |
|
|
Term
| What structural and functional changes occur in a woman's body during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
1. Breast enlargement and milk production
2. Uterine size increases
3. Changes in vaginal secretions, mucosa, and color |
|
|
Term
| What structural and functional changes occur in an elderly woman druing/after menopause? |
|
Definition
1. Pubic hair gradually decreases
2. Skin is thinner and fat deposits decrease, leaving mons pubis smaller, and labia flatter
3. Clitoris size also decreases after age 60
4. Uterus reduces in size |
|
|
Term
| Who should be screened for cervical cancer and how often should screening be done? |
|
Definition
| Women 21 to 65 years old with Pap smear every 3 years; For women 30-65 who want to lengthen screening time, they can get a combination HPV test/Pap smear every 5 years |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs when the wall between a woman's bladder and her vagina weakens and allows the bladder to droop into the vagina |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs when the end of the large intestine (rectum) pushes through the back wall of the vagina |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Falling or sliding of the womb (uterus) from its normal position into the vaginal area. Symptoms: Feeling like you are sitting on a small ball; Difficult or painful sexual intercourse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gravida: total number of pregnancies
Para: total number of deliveries after 20 wks gestational age
Abortus: Number of pregnancy losses (elective, spontaneous before 20 weeks gest. age, induced) |
|
|
Term
| Benign Breast Disease (formerly Fibrocystic Breast Disease) |
|
Definition
-Multiple tender masses
-Cyclic discomfort
-Lympiness |
|
|
Term
| Concerning signs that may indicate breast cancer? |
|
Definition
-Signs of retraction
-Abnormal contours
-Skin dimpling
-Nipple retraction/deviation
-Edema of the skin
-Paget disease of the nipple |
|
|
Term
| Paget's disease of the nipple |
|
Definition
| Rare form of breast cancer in which the nipple and areola become scaly, red, itchy, and irritated |
|
|
Term
| What are the anatomical borders of the average female breast? |
|
Definition
| Extends from clavicle down to the 6th rib and from the sternum to the midaxillary line |
|
|
Term
| Which axillary lymph nodes are most palpable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is nipple retraction concerning? |
|
Definition
| When it is a recent change because it could indicate breast cancer or adhesions below the surface |
|
|
Term
| While doing a breast exam, you notice a nodule. What characteristics do you document? |
|
Definition
Location (which breast, quadrant or clock site, cm from nipple)
Size (in centimeters)
Shape
Consistency
Delineation (well circumscribed or not)
Tenderness
Mobility |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 most common kinds of breast masses? |
|
Definition
1. Fibroadenoma
2. Cysts
3. Breast Cancer |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual age for a woman to have a fibroadenoma, cyst, and breast cancer? |
|
Definition
F: 15-25; usually puberty and young adulthood, but up to 55
Cyst: 30-50, regress after menopause except with estrogen therapy
Cancer: 30-90; most common over age 50 |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual number of fibroadenomas, cysts, or cancerous lumps found at one time? |
|
Definition
F: Usually single, may be multiple
Cyst: Single or multiple
Cancer: Usually single |
|
|
Term
| What is the common shape of fibroadenomas, cysts, or cancerous masses found in the breast? |
|
Definition
F: Round, disc-like, or lobular
Cyst: Round
Cancer: Irregular or stelate |
|
|
Term
| What is the usual consistency of fibroadenoma, cyst, or cancerous mass found in the breast? |
|
Definition
F: May be soft, usually firm
Cyst: Soft to firm, usually elastic
Cancer: Firm or hard |
|
|
Term
| Of the 3 most common breast masses (fibroadenoma, cyst, and cancerous) which one is not clearly delineated upon examination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the 3 most common breast masses (fibroadenoma, cyst, and cancerous) which one is usually immobile and fixed to underlying tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the 3 most common breast masses (fibroadenoma, cyst, and cancerous) which one is often tender? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of the 3 most common breast masses (fibroadenoma, cyst, and cancerous) which one may show signs of retraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are indications for a pelvic examination during adolescence? |
|
Definition
-Amenorrhea
-Excessive bleeding
-dysmenorrhea
-Unexplained abdominal pain
-Bacteriologic and cytologic studies in sexually active girl
-prescription of contraceptives
-Patient's own desire for assessment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pain or discomfort during intercourse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 phases of a women's reproductive health? |
|
Definition
1. Prepuberty (premenstruation)
2. Puberty (menarche)
3. Childbearing (menstruation)
4. Perimenopausal
5. Menopausal |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of hernias during reproductive examination? |
|
Definition
1. Indirect inguinal hernia (most common)
2. Direct inguinal hernia
3. Femoral hernia (more common in women) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Membrane lining the walls of the abdominal and pelvic cavities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to the space near the posterior abdominal wall and the peritoneum |
|
|
Term
| List the 3 abdominal quadrants. |
|
Definition
1. Epigastric
2. Umbilical
3. Hypogastric/Suprapubic |
|
|
Term
| Organs by Quadrant: Right Upper Quadrant |
|
Definition
Ascending colon
Duodenum
Gallbladder
Right kidney
Liver
Pancreas (head)
Transverse colon
Ureter (right) |
|
|
Term
| Organs by quadrant: Left Upper Quadrant |
|
Definition
Descending Colon
Left kidney
Pancreas (body and tail)
Spleen
Stomach
Transverse colon
Ureter (left) |
|
|
Term
| Organs by quadrant: Right Lower Quadrant |
|
Definition
Appendix
Ascending Colon
Bladder
Cecum
Rectum
Ovary, uterus and fallopian tube (female)
Prostate and spermatic cord (male)
Small intestine
Ureter (right) |
|
|
Term
| Organs by quadrant: Left Lower Quadrant |
|
Definition
Bladder
Descending Colon
Ovary, uterus, fallopian tube (female)
Prostate and spermatic cord (male)
Small intestine
Sigmoid colon
Ureter (left) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bright red blood in stool |
|
|
Term
| What is the "normal" range for bowel elimination frequency? |
|
Definition
| 2-3 times a day to 3 times a week |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the GI tract (mouth, esophagus, stomach, and intestines) |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes and symptoms of gastroenteritis? |
|
Definition
-Multiple causes such as: virus, bacteria, parasite, medications, food intolerances
-Symptoms include:
Nausea and/or vomiting
Diarrhea
Abdominal cramping
Fever |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
These are organs that maintain a characteristic shape.
Liver
Pancreas
Kidney
Adrenal glands
Spleen
Ovaries and Uterus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Organs whose shape depends on their contents.
Stomach
Gallbladder
Colon
Small intestine
Bladder |
|
|
Term
| What is the order of an abdominal assessment exam? |
|
Definition
Inspect
Auscultate
Percuss
Palpate |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 contours of the abdomen? |
|
Definition
1. Flat
2. Scaphoid
3. Rounded
4. Protuberant |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 F's of a protuberant abdomen? |
|
Definition
1. Fat
2. Fluid
3. Flatus
4. Fetus
5. Feces
6. Fatal growths |
|
|
Term
| What kind of sound would you hear upon percussion of a protuberants abdomen due to ascitic fluid? |
|
Definition
| With the patient in a supine position, you would hear tympany in the center of the abdomen and dullness along the sides (where the fluid is). |
|
|
Term
| What are abnormal bowel sound classifications? |
|
Definition
-Absent (obstruction): listen for full 4-5 min
-Hypoactive (decreased motility): Low gurgling <4 in 1 min
-Hyperactive (increased motility): High pitched, loud |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Turbulent flow or stenosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal span of the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Push on LLQ then quickly remove hand
-Rebound tenderness in RLQ or pain in RLQ durring LLQ pressure (appendicitis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pt. lays supine and examiner pushes down on patient's right thigh and asks pt. to raise leg. Pt. has pain in RLQ (appendicitis) |
|
|
Term
| Murphy's sign/Inspiratory arrest |
|
Definition
| Sharp pain upon inspiration when examiner's hand is palpating the liver (cholecystitis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If ascites is present, the push will generate a fluid wave through the abdomen and you will feel a positive fluid wave. Distention is due to gas or adipose tissue, you will feel no change. |
|
|
Term
| What are classes physical findings of alcohol abuse? |
|
Definition
1. Hepatosplenomegaly (HSM)
2. Ascites
3. Caput medusa
4. Spider angiomas
5. Peripheral edema
6. Palmar erythema
7. Erythematic or bulbous nose |
|
|
Term
| What should you teach someone at risk for Hep A? |
|
Definition
-Transmission via fecal-oral
-Children often asymptomatic
-Vaccine available
-Prophylaxis: serum globulin
-Stess good handwashing techniques |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 risk categories for Hep B? |
|
Definition
1. Sexual contacts
2. People with percutaneous or mucosal exposure to blood
3. Others: travelers, patients with chronic liver disease or HIV infection |
|
|
Term
| Who does the CDC recommend get Hep B vaccine? |
|
Definition
1. All adults in high-risk settings
2. In primary care or specialty settings
3. Adults in occupations involving exposure to blood or other potentially infectious body fluids
4. All pregnant women at first prenatal visit |
|
|
Term
| What are risk factors for Hep C? |
|
Definition
-Repeated percutaneous exposure
-IV drug users
-Transfusion with clotting factors before 1987
-Hemodialysis
-Sex partners using IV drugs
-Blood transfusion or organ transplant before 1992
-Occupational exposure
-Multiple or infected sex partner |
|
|
Term
| Risk factors for colorectal cancer |
|
Definition
-Past colorectal cancer or adenomatous polyp
-History of inflammatory bowel disease
-Family history of colorectal cancer or adenomatous polyp |
|
|
Term
| Screening for colorectal cancer |
|
Definition
-Fecal occult blood test annually
-Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years
-Colonoscopy every 10 years |
|
|
Term
| Prevention of urinary incontinence |
|
Definition
-Pelvic muscle training
-Pelvic muscle exercises
-Biofeedback
-Incontinence is not normal |
|
|
Term
| Peptic Ulcer and Dyspepsia process |
|
Definition
| Peptic ulcer refers to a demonstrable ulcer, usually in the duodenum or stomach. Dyspepsia causes similar symptoms but no ulceration. Infection by H. Pylori is often present. |
|
|
Term
| Peptic Ulcer and Dyspepsia (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: Epigastric, may radiate to back
Q: Variable: gnawing, burning, pressing or hunger-like
T: Intermittent. Duodenal ulcer more likely to cause pain that 1) wakes at night, 2) occurs intermittently over a few weeks, then disappears for months, then recurs.
AF: Variable
RF: Food and antacids may bring relief
AS&S: N&V, Belching, bloating; Heartburn, weight loss. Dyspepsia is more common in the young (20-29), and gastric ulcer in those over 50, and duodenal ulcer in those 30-60. |
|
|
Term
| The processes of acute and chronic pancreatitis |
|
Definition
Acute: An acute inflammation of the pancreas
Chronic: Fibrosis of the pancreas secondary to recurrent inflammation |
|
|
Term
| Acute pancreatitis (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: Epigastric, may radiate to the back or other parts of the abdomen; may be poorly localized
Q: Usually steady
T: Acute onset, persistent pain
AF: Lying supine
RF: Leaning foward with trunk flexed
AS&S: N&V, abdominal distention, fever. Often a history of previous attacks and alcohol abuse or gallstones. |
|
|
Term
| Chronic pancreatitis (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: Epigastric, radiating through to the back
Q: Steady, deep
T: Chronic or recurrent course
AF: Alcohol, heavy or fatty meals
RF: Possibly leaning forward with trunk flexed; often intractable
AS&S: Symptoms of decreased pancreatic function may appear: diarrhea with fatty stools (steatorrhea) and diabetes mellitus |
|
|
Term
| Acute cholecystitis process |
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the gallbladder, usually from obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone |
|
|
Term
| Acute cholecystitis (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: RUQ or upper abd; may radiate to the right scapular area
Q: Steady, aching
T: Gradual onset
AF: Jarring, deep breathing
AS&S: Anorexia, N&V, fever |
|
|
Term
| Acute diverticulitis process |
|
Definition
| Acute inflammation of a colonic diverticulum, a sac-like mucosal outpouching through the colonic muscle |
|
|
Term
| Acute diverticulitis (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: LLQ
Q: May be cramping at first, but becomes steady
T: Often gradual onset
AS&S: Fever, constipation. There may be initial brief diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acute inflammation of the appendix with distention or obstruction |
|
|
Term
| Acute appendicitis (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: Poorly localized periumbilical pain, followed by RLQ pain
Q: Mild but increasing, possibly cramping; becomes steady and more severe
T: Lasts roughly 4-6 hours; then when it moves to RLQ it depends on intervention
AF: Movement or cough
RF: If it subsides temporarily, suspect perforation of the appendix
AS&S: Anorexia, nausea, possibly vomiting, which typically follows onset of pain, low fever |
|
|
Term
| Acute Mechanical Intestinal Obstruction process |
|
Definition
| Obstruction of the bowel lumen, most commonly caused by 1) adhesions or hernias (small bowel) or 2) cancer or diverticulitis (colon) |
|
|
Term
| Acute Mechanical Intestinal Obstruction (Location, quality, timing, aggravating factors, relieving factors, and associated symptoms and setting) |
|
Definition
L: Small bowel: periumbilical or upper abdominal; Colon: lower abdominal or generalized
Q: Cramping
T: Paroxysmal
AS&S: Small bowel: Vomiting of bile and mucus or fecal material. Obstipation develops; Colon: Obstipation early. Vomiting later ir at all. Prior symptoms of underlying cause. |
|
|
Term
| What are some problems that cause constipation? |
|
Definition
1. Lifestyle Activities and Habits
2. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
3. Mechanical Obstruction
4. Painful Anal Lesions
5. Drugs
6. Depression
7. Neurologic Disorders
8. Metabolic Conditions |
|
|
Term
| Acute diarrhea (2 processes) |
|
Definition
1. Secretory Infection: Infection by viruses, preformed bacterial toxins, cryptosporidium
2. Inflammatory Infection: Colonization or invasion of intestinal mucosa |
|
|
Term
| Acute Diarrhea: Secretory Infection (Characteristics of Stool, Timing, Associated Symptoms, Setting/Persons at Risk) |
|
Definition
CoS: Watery, without blood, pus, or mucus
T: Duration of a few days, possibly longer. Lactase deficiency may lead to a longer course.
AS: N&V, periumbilical cramping pain. Temperature normal or slightly elevated.
S/PaR: Often travel, a common food source, or an epidemic |
|
|
Term
| Acute Diarrhea: Inflammatory Infection (Characteristics of Stool, Timing, Associated Symptoms, Setting/Persons at Risk) |
|
Definition
CoS: Loose to watery, often with blood, pus, or mucus
T: An acute illness of varying duration
AS: Lower abdominal cramping pain and often rectal urgency, tenesmus; fever
S/PaR: Travel, contaminated food or water. Men and women who have had frequent anal intercourse |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 components for a neurological physical examination? |
|
Definition
1. Mental Status: Cerebral Cortex
2. Cranial Nerves: Brainstem
3. Cerebellum and Motor system: Cerebellum, cerebral cortex, corticospinal and extrapyramidal tracts
4. Sensory system: Cerebral cortex, spinal cord/spinothalamic tract and posterior columns
5. Reflexes |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major divisions to the nervous system? |
|
Definition
1. Central Nervous system: brain and spinal cord
2. Peripheral Nervous system: 12 pairs cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves |
|
|
Term
| What are the central components of the CNS? |
|
Definition
1. Brain and brainstem
2. Cerebellum
3. Spinal cord |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bundle of fibers outside the CNS |
|
|
Term
| 2 types of peripheral nerve fibers are: |
|
Definition
1. Efferent: motor messages from the CNS out to muscles, organs, and glands
2. Afferent: sensory messages to the CNS from sensory receptors |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 main functions of the peripheral nervous system? |
|
Definition
1. Somatic: skeletal muscles (voluntary movement)
2. Autonomic: smooth muscles (involuntary movement) |
|
|
Term
| List the 12 cranial nerves. |
|
Definition
CNI-Olfactory
CNII-Optic
CNIII-Oculomotor
CNIV-Trochlear
CNV-Trigeminal
CNVI-Abducens
CNVII-Facial
CNVIII-Acoustic
CNIX-Glossopharyngeal
CNX-Vagus
CNXI-Spinal-Accessory
CNXII-Hypoglossal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Autonomic nervous system reacts causing bradycardia AND allows vasodilation in the extremity vessels - decrease blood - decrease O2 - on floor |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of expressive dysphagia? |
|
Definition
-Can understand what others are saying
-Words are slow and laborious, but meaningful
-Often gets frustrated |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of receptive dysphagia? |
|
Definition
-Little or no comprehension of words
-Spoken words are fluent and nonsensical
-No idea the words and language are wrong |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A neurological scale that aims to give a reliable, objective way of recording the conscious state of a person. The score ranges between 3 (deeply unconscious) and 15 |
|
|
Term
| What part of the nervous system does each vital sign correlate to? |
|
Definition
HR = Vagus
Respiratory = Medulla, pons
BP=Medulla
Temp = Hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
| How do you test each of the cranial nerves? |
|
Definition
1. Olfactory: smell
2. Optic: snellen
3, 4, and 6. Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens: PERRLA, EOM
5. Trigeminal: clench teeth, light touch on face
7. Facial: Smile, frown, puff cheeks out
8. Acoustic: Whisper test, Rinne, Weber
9, 10. Say "Ahh," Gag reflex, taste
11. Spinal accessory - turn head and shrug shoulders against resistance
12. Hypoglossal - stick out tongue, speaking |
|
|
Term
| What would an abnormal finding during rapid rhythmic alternating movements be indicative of? |
|
Definition
| Possible cerebral disease . . . or drunk. Either one. |
|
|
Term
| What would an inability to walk straight be indicative of? |
|
Definition
| Cerebral Disease (MS) . . . or he's drunk. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stand upright, place feet together, then close eyes for 20 sec
Positive test menas loss of balance - cerebellar disorder (MS, drunk) altered proprioreception |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pt holds a "pizza box" at chest level - with supinated palms, close eyes and holds for 20 sec. |
|
|
Term
| What would abnormal muscle tones indicate? |
|
Definition
-Flaccid: polio, Guillan-Barre
-Spastic: cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury
-Rigid: tetanus
-Cogwheel rigidity: parkinonism |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Familiar item in hand. If unable to ID, it means sensory cortex lesion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "Write" number in palm and ID. If unable to ID, it indicates sensory cortex lesion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Involuntary
2. Helps maintain muscle tone
3. Permits quick response to bad stimuli |
|
|
Term
| 5 components needed for DTR response (IMPORTANT TO KNOW HINT HINT!) |
|
Definition
1. Intact sensory nerve (afferent)
2. A functional synapse in the cord
3. An intact motor nerve fiber (efferent)
4. Neuromuscular joint
5. A competent muscle |
|
|
Term
| Charting deep tendon reflexes |
|
Definition
| Rated from 0 (no response) and 4+ (very brisk - clonus present) |
|
|
Term
| If reflexes are hyperactice, what should you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If assessing a comatose patient for deterioration, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| Check for Babinski response |
|
|
Term
| Order of the deterioration of LOC |
|
Definition
1. A&O alters
2. Lose ability obey simple commands
3. Then responses deteriorate from purposeless responses to pain
4. Then absence of response to pain
5. Then loss of corneal and gag reflexes |
|
|
Term
| What would cause sudden pupillary dilation and nonreactive pupil? |
|
Definition
| Pressure on the brainstem |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Involuntary extension of the upper extremities as a response to external stimuli |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Arms are flexed toward chest, fists are clenched, legs are extended, feet turned inward. A person decorticating in response to pain gets a 3 on the Glasgow Coma Scale |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Positive if hips and knees flex as you flex pt.'s neck, is meningeal sign |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Flex pt.'s leg at hip and knee, then try to straighten (neck adn back pain & resistance occurs). Positive Kernig's bilateral suggests meningeal irritation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sudden neurologic deficit caused by ischemia or hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) |
|
Definition
| Focal neurologic deficit lasting <1hr without underlying structural defects, highest risk of stroke within next 30 days |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or lef
-Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or understanding
-Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of balance
-Sudden trouble with vision in one or both eyes
-Sudden severe headache |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Loss of voice that accompanies disease affecting the larynx or its nerve supply |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to less severe impairment in the volume, quality, or pitch of the voice. For example, a person may be hoarse or only able to speak in a whisper. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Words may be nasal, slurred, or indistinct, but central symbolic aspect of language remains intact. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to a disorders in producing or understanding language. It is often caused by lesions in the dominant cerebral hemisphere, usually the left. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Start with focal manifestations. Divided into simple partial seizures, which do not impair consciousness, and complex partial seizures, which do. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Begin with bilateral body movements, impairment of consciousness, or both. They suggest widespread, bilateral cortical disturbance that may be either hereditary or acquired. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| May mimic seizures but are due to a conversion reaction (a psychological disorder) |
|
|
Term
| Aortic stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|
Definition
| Vascular resistance falls with exercise, but cardiac output cannot rise |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal slowness of movement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to a lack of coordination of movement typified by the undershoot or overshoot of intended position with the hand |
|
|
Term
| What is often the first sense lost in peripheral neuropathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Responsible for hearing, taste, and smell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Numbness, tingling, burning, crawling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Dysphasia: Partial or complete impairment of the ability to communicate resulting from a brain injury
Dysphagia: difficulty swallowing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Eye twitching because you're tired |
|
|
Term
| Acute care neuro assessment (Glasgow coma) |
|
Definition
-LOC
-Motor function
-Pupillary response
-Vital sets
-Add score for each thing, gives you an objective level of deterioration
-If you want neuro checks q15, this is what you would do |
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Term
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Definition
L1 or below: paraplegic
T6 and below: paraplegic
C6 and above: tetraplegia
C4 and above: tetraplegia, ventilator |
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Term
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Definition
| Difficult to arouse (loud noise, vigorous shaking or pain), sleeps most of the time, speech affected |
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Term
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Definition
| Not fully alert, drifts off when not stimulated |
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Term
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Definition
| Need persistent, loud noise or pain for arousal, may respond to stimuli with a groan |
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