Term
| What component of bacteria induces the production of TNF and IL-1? |
|
Definition
| lipoteichoic acid on the cell wall/ cell membrane of gram positives or lipid A on the outer membrane of gram negatives |
|
|
Term
| Where are the beta lactamases located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has a capsule that is not made up of polysaccharides? |
|
Definition
| bacillus anthracis= D glutamate |
|
|
Term
| What type of molecules amke up pilus/fibria and flagellum? |
|
Definition
pilus= glycoprotein
flagellum= protein |
|
|
Term
| What compounds is a spore made out of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the gram positive rods. |
|
Definition
| clostridium, corynebacterium, bacillus, listeria, mycobacterium |
|
|
Term
| Name the bacteria that are gram positive with branching filaments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the pleomorphic gram negative bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| leptospira, borrelia, treponema |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the cell membrane/wall of mycoplasma? |
|
Definition
| contains sterols and have no cell wall |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the cell wall of mycobacteria? |
|
Definition
| contain mycolic acid and have a high lipid content |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria do not stain well with gram stain. |
|
Definition
| treponema, rickettsia, chlamydia, mycobacteria, mycoplasma, and legionella pneumophila |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about the cell wall of chlamydia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria stain well with Giemsa stain? |
|
Definition
| borrelia, plasmodium, trypanosomes, chlamydia |
|
|
Term
| What organism stains well with teh periodic acid-Schiff which stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides? |
|
Definition
| Whipple's disease= tropheryma whippelii |
|
|
Term
| What stain is used for acid fast organisms? |
|
Definition
| Ziehl Neelsen (carbol fuchsin) |
|
|
Term
| What two stains work for cryptococcus neoformans? |
|
Definition
| mucicarmine (stains capsule red) and india ink |
|
|
Term
| What is a silver stain used for? |
|
Definition
| fungi (PCP), and legionella |
|
|
Term
| What media is used to isolate H. influenzae? |
|
Definition
| chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin) |
|
|
Term
| What agar is used to culture N. gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
| thayer martin (or VPN) media= vancomycin (to inhibit gram positives), polymyxin (gram negatives), and nystatin (inhibits fungi) |
|
|
Term
| What agar is needed to culture B. Pertussis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What agar is needed to culture C. diphtheriae. |
|
Definition
| tellurite plate; loffler's media |
|
|
Term
| What iagar is used for M TB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the culture used to culture M. pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What media is used for lactose fermenting enterics? |
|
Definition
| MacConkey's agar (fermentation produces acid, turning plate pink) |
|
|
Term
| What special culture is used for the lactose-fermenting enteric, E. Coli? |
|
Definition
| eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar as blue black colonies with metallic sheen |
|
|
Term
| What special culture is used for legionella? |
|
Definition
| charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron |
|
|
Term
| Name some obligate aerobes. |
|
Definition
| M tuberculosis, pseudomonas aerugenosa, bacillus, nocardia |
|
|
Term
| Name some obligate anaerobes. |
|
Definition
| clostridium, bacteroides, and actinomyces= lack catalase and/or superoxide dismutase so susceptible to oxidative damage |
|
|
Term
| What are the features of anaerobic infections? |
|
Definition
| foul smelling (short chain fatty acids), difficult to culture, and produce gas in tissue (CO2 and H) |
|
|
Term
| Name some facultative intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
| neisseria, salmonella, legionella, mycobacterium, brucella, francisella, yersinia pestis, listeria |
|
|
Term
| Name the bacteria with capsules. |
|
Definition
| strep pneumo, H influenzae type B, neisseria meningitidis, salmonella, klebsiella pneumoniae, group B strep |
|
|
Term
| Name organisms that people with CGD are susceptible. |
|
Definition
| catalase positive= S. aureus, Serratia, Pseudomonas, Actinomyces, Candida, E. coli |
|
|
Term
| If a vaccine against a polysaccharide capsule is not conjugated to a protein then what event of the immune system is impaired? |
|
Definition
| class switching; causing increased amounts of IgM |
|
|
Term
| What are the urease positive bacteria? |
|
Definition
| proteus, ureaplasma, H. pylori, klebsiella, nocardia, cryptococcus |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria produce yellow pigments? |
|
Definition
| actinomyces and S. aureus |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria produces a red pigment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has the virulence factor protein A? |
|
Definition
| S. aureus (binds F3 portion of Ig) |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria produce an IgA protease? |
|
Definition
| S. pneumoniae, H influenzae type B, and Neisseria |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has the virulence factor, M protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of molecules are exotoxins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is more potent, exotoxin or endotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are exotoxins stable to heat? |
|
Definition
| destroyed rapidly at 60 C (except for staphlococcal enterotoxin) |
|
|
Term
| How stable are endotoxins? |
|
Definition
| stable at 100C for 1 hour |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of diphtheria toxin? |
|
Definition
| inactivates elongation factor (EF 2) |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of exotoxin A? |
|
Definition
| inactivates elongation factor (EF2) |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxin of psuedomonas aueruginosa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of shiga toxin and shiga-like toxin? |
|
Definition
| inactivate 60S ribosome by cleaving rRNA |
|
|
Term
| What's the difference b etween manifestations caused by shiga toxin versus shiga-like toxins? |
|
Definition
shiga= GI mucosal damage leading to dysentery; ST also enhances cytokine release, causing HUS
shiga-like= enhances cytokine release, causing HUS; unlike shigella, EHEC does not invade host cell |
|
|
Term
| Name the bacteria that makes shiga-like toxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of heat labile toxin produced by ETEC? |
|
Definition
| overactivates adenylate cyclase leading to increase chloride secretion in gut and H2O efflux |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of heat stable toxin of enterotoxigenic ecoli? |
|
Definition
| overactivates guanylate cyclase increasing cGMP which causes decreased reabsorption of NaCl and H2O in gut |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of yersinia enterocolitica exotoxin? |
|
Definition
| heat stable toxin that activates guanylate cyclase decreasing absorption of NaCl and H2O in the gut; this leads to bloody diarrhea and dysentery (Y. enterocolitica invades cells) |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxins likely responsible for the characteristic edematous borders of black eschar in cutaneous anthrax? |
|
Definition
| edema factor (mimics the adenylate cyclase enzyme which increases cAMP) |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of cholera toxin? |
|
Definition
| overactivates adenylate cyclase by permanently activating Gs causing increased Cl- secretion in gut and H2O efflux |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of pertussis toxin? |
|
Definition
| overactivates adnylate cyclase (increasing cAMP) by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbe |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of both tetanospasmin and botulinum toxin? |
|
Definition
| cleave SNARE protein required for neurotransmitter release |
|
|
Term
| Tetanospasmin prevents the release of what neurotrnsmitters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is teh anem fo the toxin produced by clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
| alpha toxins: phospholipase that degrades tissue, cell membranes |
|
|
Term
| What are the manifestations of clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
| degradation of phospholipids causing myonecrosis (gas angrene) and hemolysis (double zone of hemolysis on blood agar) |
|
|
Term
| What is the toxin of strep pyogenes that degrades cell membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the superantigen of strep pyogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the superantigen of Staphyloccocus aureus? |
|
Definition
| toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1) |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of superantigens? |
|
Definition
| bring MHC II and TCR in proximity to cause overwhelming release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 leading to shock |
|
|
Term
| What disease is exfoliative toxin responsible for? |
|
Definition
| staph scalded skin syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Name the toxins tha trae ADP ribosylating A-B toxins? |
|
Definition
| diphtheria toxin, exotoxin A, heat labile toxin of ETEC, cholera toxin, pertussis toxin |
|
|
Term
| What two bacteria produce superantigens? |
|
Definition
| streptococcus pyogenes, and staphylococcus aureus |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the function of C3a and C5a? |
|
Definition
C3a= hypotension and edema
C5a= neutrophil chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
| What GAS toxins are responsible for scarlet fever? |
|
Definition
| erythrogenic and pyogenic toxins |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to say a bacteria is "competent? |
|
Definition
| able to undergo transformation |
|
|
Term
| Name some competent bacteria? |
|
Definition
| S. pneumo, H influenza type B and Neisseria |
|
|
Term
| What is Hfr X F- conjugation? |
|
Definition
| F+ plasmid can become incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA, termed Hfr cell; replication of incorporated plasmid DNA may include some flanking chromosomal DNA; transfer of plasmid and chromosomal genes |
|
|
Term
| What's the term for genes that can "jump" to a different location on a chromosome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the difference between generalized and specialized transduction? |
|
Definition
| generalized is when the bacterial DNA is cleaved by phage enzymes and accidently packaged in the virion; specialized is when viral DNA is incorporated in teh the bacterial chromosome and when phage DNA is excised flanking bacterial genes may be excised with it |
|
|
Term
| Whic htoxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage? |
|
Definition
| shiga like toxin, botulinum toxin, cholera toxin, diphtheria toxin, erythrogenic toxin of strep pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| Gram positive cocci that is catalase positive= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gram positive cocci that is catalase + and coagulase neg and Novomiocin sensitive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is gram + cocci, catalse + and novobiocin resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of strep bacteria perform alpha hemolysis? |
|
Definition
| s pneumonia and viridans strep |
|
|
Term
| Which Strep species pefrom beta hemolysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What strep species perform gamma hemolysis? |
|
Definition
| enterococcus (either alpha or gamma hemolytic) and nonenterococcus |
|
|
Term
| How do you differentiate between GAS and GBS? |
|
Definition
| GAS is bacitracin sensitive |
|
|
Term
| How do you tell the difference between S pneumo and viridans strep? |
|
Definition
| S pneumo has a capsule, is bile soluble (but does not grow in bile) and is optochin sensitive; viridans has no capsule, is not soluble in bile, and optochin resistant |
|
|
Term
| Name the beta hemolytic bacteria. |
|
Definition
| staph aureus, strep pyogenes, strep agalactiae, listeria monocytogenes |
|
|
Term
| What foods can you get listeria from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease does listeria cause in newborns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the movement of listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the resistance of MRSA? |
|
Definition
| has an altered penicillin binding protein |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of diseases/problems are caused by staph epidermidis? |
|
Definition
| infects prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters by producing adherent biofilms |
|
|
Term
| Strep pneumo is the most common cuase of... |
|
Definition
| meningitis, otitis media (in children), pneumonia, and sinusitis |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is associated with a rusty sputum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is a common cause of sepsis in sickle cell pateitns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What viridans strep is responsible for subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged valves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| protein produced by GBS that enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus |
|
|
Term
| What are the group D streptococci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kinds of diseases are caused by enterococci? |
|
Definition
| UTI and subacute endocarditis |
|
|
Term
| What is the grouping system that classifies strep as group A, B, D, etc.? |
|
Definition
| Lancefield grouping based on differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall |
|
|
Term
| How ca you differentiate between enterocci and nonenterococci group D strep? |
|
Definition
| enterococci can grow in 6.5% NaCl and bile |
|
|
Term
| What is the significance of Strep bovis? |
|
Definition
| can cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients |
|
|
Term
| Are gram negatives resistant to beta lactam drugs? |
|
Definition
| they are resistant to penicillin but may be susceptible to penicillin derivatives such as ampicillin. Teh gram negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin |
|
|
Term
| Name some important virulence factors of neisseria spp. |
|
Definition
| IgA protease and pilli that vary |
|
|
Term
| Neisseria species that ferments maltose= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What N. meningococci subspecies has not vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kinds of diseases are caused by N. gonococci? |
|
Definition
| gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, and Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat N. meningococci? |
|
Definition
| with ceftriaxone or penicillin G; rifampin prophylaxis in close contacts |
|
|
Term
| What diseases are caused by haemonphilus? |
|
Definition
| epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What does H flu look like on gram stain? |
|
Definition
| small gram negative (coccobacillary) rod |
|
|
Term
| Name some virulence factors of H flu? |
|
Definition
| produces IgA protease and tpye B has a capsule |
|
|
Term
| If you only have blood agar (no chocolate agar) you can grow H. Flu if you... |
|
Definition
| grow it with S aureus which will provide factor V |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| treat meningitis with ceftriaxone; rifampin in close contacts for prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
| When do you give the H flu vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you dx legionella? |
|
Definition
| presence of antigen in urine |
|
|
Term
| T/F there is person to person transmission of legionella. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for legionella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Black lesions on the skin could indicate sepsis with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases are caused by psuedomonas? |
|
Definition
| pneumonia, sepsis, external otitis, UTI, drug use, diabetic osteomyelitis, hot tub folliculitis, burn infections, malignant otitis externa in diabetics |
|
|
Term
| What is the appearance of Psuedomonas on gram stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria has a grape like odor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is pseudomonas oxidase +/-? lactose fermenting? |
|
Definition
| oxidase +, non lactose fermenting |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
| aminoglycoside plus extended spectrum penicillin (e.g. pipercillin, ticarcillin) |
|
|
Term
| Name the virulence factors of e coli? |
|
Definition
| fimbriae (cystitis and pyelonephritis); K capsule (penumonia and neonatal meningitis), LPS endotoxin- septic shock |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common causes of gram negative sepsis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat e coli infection? |
|
Definition
| flouroquinolones or TMP-SMX |
|
|
Term
| What strain of ecoli has similar symptoms to shigella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the MOA of enteropathogenic e coli? |
|
Definition
| no toxin produced; adheres to apical surface, flattens villi and prevents absorption |
|
|
Term
| How can you distinguish EHEC from other e coli? |
|
Definition
| ehec does not ferment sorbitol |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common serotype of EHEC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of HUS caused by shiga-like toxin? |
|
Definition
| endothelium swells and narrows lumen, leading to mechanical hemolysis and reduced renal blood flow; damaged endothelium consumes platelets |
|
|
Term
| What is the presentation of EPEC? |
|
Definition
| diarrhea usually in children |
|
|
Term
| Describe the gross appearance of klebsiella colonies. |
|
Definition
| very mucoid colonies caused by abudant polysaccharide capsule |
|
|
Term
| What diseases does klebsiella cause? |
|
Definition
| aspiration pneumonia, abscess in lungs and liver (esp in alcoholics and diabetics), and nosocomial UTIs |
|
|
Term
| How can shigella and salmonella be differentiated from ecoli? |
|
Definition
| shigella and salmonella don't ferment lactose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What gas is produced by salmonella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotics do you give to treat salmonella? |
|
Definition
| antibiotics may actually prolong symptoms |
|
|
Term
| Does salmonella have an animal reservoir? |
|
Definition
| most salmonella spp do except for salmonella typhi |
|
|
Term
| What is teh typical immune response to salmonella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are teh features of salmonella typhi? |
|
Definition
| rose spots on abdomen, fever, headache, and diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| Where does salmonella resides in carrier state of salmonella typhi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many organisms are needed for infection with salmonella versus shigella? |
|
Definition
| shigella require 10 organisms; salmonella requires 100,000 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| propels itself with actin polymerization; does not have a flagella |
|
|
Term
| T/F Antibiotics shorten the length of illness with shigella infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the presentation of shigella infection? |
|
Definition
| watery diarrhea that becomes bloody and mucous-y |
|
|
Term
| What is the major cause of blood diarrhea, esp in kids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterial infection is a common antecedent to Guillain-barre syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe unique features of campylobacter jejuni? |
|
Definition
| comma or S shaped, oxidase positive, grows at 42 degrees celcius |
|
|
Term
| Describe teh unique features of vibrio cholerae? |
|
Definition
| comma shaped, oxidase positive, grows in alkaline media |
|
|
Term
| How is yersinia enteroclitica transmitted? |
|
Definition
| pet feces, contaminated milk or pork; outbreaks are common in day care centers |
|
|
Term
| What bacterial infection can mimic crohns or appendicitis? |
|
Definition
| mesenteric adenitis caused by yersenia enterolitica |
|
|
Term
| Infection with H pylori and accompanying duodenal ulcers is a risk factor for what other diseases? |
|
Definition
| peptic ulcer, gastric adenocarcinoma, and lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for H pylori? |
|
Definition
| tripple therapy= 1. proton pump inhibitor 2. clarithromycin, 3. amoxicillin or metronidazole |
|
|
Term
| How can you visualize borellia? |
|
Definition
| aniline dyes (wright's or geimsa) in light microscopy |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is shaped like a question mark? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you get leptospira? |
|
Definition
| water contaminated with animal urine |
|
|
Term
| Waht are the symptoms of leptospira? |
|
Definition
| flulike symptoms, jaundice, and photophobia with conjunctivitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis= severe form with jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction; fever, hemorrhage, and anemia |
|
|
Term
| Ixodes tick is a vector for which diseases? |
|
Definition
| borrelia burgdorferi and babesia |
|
|
Term
| What are the features of stage 1 lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| flu like illness with erythema chronicum migrans |
|
|
Term
| What are the features of stage 2 lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| neurologic (bell's palsy) and cardiac (AV block) manifestations (meningitis) |
|
|
Term
| What are the manifestations of stage 3 lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| chronic monoarthritis and migratory polyarthritis; subacute encephalitis |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat lyme disease? |
|
Definition
| doxycycline and ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
| What is treponema pertenue? |
|
Definition
| causes teh yaws (an infection of the skin and joints that heals with keloids) can cause facial disfigurement and will cause a positive VDRL |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis? |
|
Definition
| disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash (palms and soles), condyloma lata |
|
|
Term
| From where might you isolate treponemes in patients with syphilis? |
|
Definition
| many treponemes are present in chancres of primary syphilis and condyloma lata of secondary syphilis |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of tertiary syphilis? |
|
Definition
| gummas (chronic granulomas), aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), argyl robertson pupil |
|
|
Term
| In what diseases can you get a charcot joint? |
|
Definition
| tertiary syphilis (tabes dorsalis) and diabetes |
|
|
Term
| A patient with a stroke who has no history of HTN might be infected with... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose syphilis? |
|
Definition
| screen with VDRL and confirm with FTA-ABS |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and symptoms of congenital syphilis? |
|
Definition
early manifestations= "snuffles"- blood tinged nasal secretions
later= saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII deafness, Hutchinson's teeth, mulberry molars, frontal bosing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| detects nonsepcific antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin |
|
|
Term
| What can cause false positive VDRL? |
|
Definition
| viruses (mononucleosis, hepatitis), drugs, rheumatic fever, SLE, leprosy |
|
|
Term
| What causes recurrent fever and what is the vector? |
|
Definition
| borrelia recurrentis, carried by the louse |
|
|
Term
| Where do you get undullant fever from? |
|
Definition
| brucella spp. from unpasteurized dairy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| coxiella burnetii from spores from tick feces and cattle placenta |
|
|
Term
| What causes ehrlichiosis and what is teh fector? |
|
Definition
| ehrlichiosis chaffeensis from teh lone star tick |
|
|
Term
| What do you get francisella tularensis from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes epidemic typus? |
|
Definition
| rickettsia prowazekii from lice |
|
|
Term
| Where do you get rocky mountain spotted fever from? |
|
Definition
| caused by the bacteria rickettsia rickettsii from dermacentor tick bites |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes endemic typhus and what is the vector? |
|
Definition
| ricketsia typhus; from fleas |
|
|
Term
| What vectors can give you yersinia pestis? |
|
Definition
| flea bites, rodents, prairie dogs |
|
|
Term
| Describe the appearance of gardnerella vaginalis on gram stain? |
|
Definition
| pelomorphic, gram-variable rod |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are associated with bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
| gardnerella vaginalis and mobiluncus (an anaerobe) |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever? |
|
Definition
| headache, fever, rash (vasculitis) that starts on palms and soles |
|
|
Term
| Describe the symptoms of epidemic/endemic typhus? |
|
Definition
| headache, fever, rash (vasculitis) that starts centrally and spreads outward without involving the palms or soles |
|
|
Term
| What ricketsial disease do not cause rash? |
|
Definition
| ehrlichiosis and coxiella burnetii |
|
|
Term
| Describe the appearance of ehrlichiosis on peripheral blood smear. |
|
Definition
| granulocytes with bery cluster organisms |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for all ricketsial diseases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Q fever different from other ricketsial diseases/ |
|
Definition
| has no rash, has no vector and has a negative Weil-Felix and tis causative organism can survive outside for a long time and does not have rickettsia as its genus name |
|
|
Term
| What is the Weil felix test? |
|
Definition
| antirickettsial antibodies cross-react to Proteus O antigens and agglutinate (Weil-felix is negative in coxiella infection) |
|
|
Term
| What test has replaced the Weil felix test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What infectious agents cause rash on the palms and soles? |
|
Definition
| coxsackie A infection, Rocky mountain spotted fever, and syphilis |
|
|
Term
| What are the two forms chlamydiae bacteria can take? |
|
Definition
| elementary body (small and dense) is infections and enters cells via endocytosis; reticulate body replicates in the cell by fission and is the form seen on tissue culture |
|
|
Term
| What lab can diagnose chlamydiae infection? |
|
Definition
| cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or flourescent antibody stained smear |
|
|
Term
| What diseases are caused by chlamydia trachomatis? |
|
Definition
| reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis, nongonococcal urethritis and pelvic inflammatory disease |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat chlamydiae? |
|
Definition
| one time dose of azithromycin or doxycycline |
|
|
Term
| What causes lymphogranuloma venereum? |
|
Definition
| chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1, L2, and L3 |
|
|
Term
| What neonatal disease are caused by chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K? |
|
Definition
| neonatal pneumonia (staccato cough) or neonatal conjunctivitis |
|
|
Term
| A rectal infection of what bacteria can mimic ulcerative colitis? |
|
Definition
| chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1 L2 and L3 |
|
|
Term
| Patient with flu like symptoms has an xray that looks too severe for their symptoms= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacterial infection can cause a high titer of cold agglutinins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
| tetracycline or erythromycin |
|
|
Term
| What is the only systemic mycosis that is not caused by a dimorphic fungi that is a mold when its cold and a yeast when its hot? |
|
Definition
| coccidiodomycosis (it is a spherule, not a yeast, in tissue) |
|
|
Term
| T/F Systemic mycoses are infectious from person to person. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat local vs. systemic fungal infections? |
|
Definition
| local= ketoconazole or fluconazole; systemic= amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| Bird or bat droppings can give you= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is blastomycosis endemic? |
|
Definition
| states east of the MS river and central america |
|
|
Term
| What can cause an increase in incidence of coccidiomycosis? |
|
Definition
| earthquakes; spores in dust are thrown up in the air and becoem spherules in lungs |
|
|
Term
| What systemic mycosis has a yeast form that is the same size as red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe teh appearance of coccidiodomycosis? |
|
Definition
| spherule filled with endospores (much larger than RBC) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the appearance of para-coccidiodomycosis. |
|
Definition
| budding yeast with "captain's wheel" formation; much larger than RBC |
|
|
Term
| What systemic mycosis has yeasts tat are smaller than RBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes tinea versicolor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of malasezia furfur? |
|
Definition
| degradation of lipids produces acids that damage melanocytes and cause hypopigmented and/or hyperpigmented patches |
|
|
Term
| What can predispose you to getting tinea versicolor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat tinea versicolor? |
|
Definition
| topical miconazole, selenium sulfide |
|
|
Term
| How can you definitively diagnose tinea versicolor? |
|
Definition
| "spaghetti and meatball" appearance on KOH prep |
|
|
Term
| Which fungi cause the tinea infections? |
|
Definition
| dermatophytes (microsporum, trichophyton, and epidermophyton) |
|
|
Term
| How do you definitively diagnose tinea infections? |
|
Definition
| see mold hyphae in KOH prep, not dimorphic |
|
|
Term
| What fungi can cause endocarditis in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat vaginal candida albicans infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat oral/esophageal candida albicans infection? |
|
Definition
| fluconazole or caspofungin |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat systemic candida albicans infection? |
|
Definition
| amphotericin B, fluconazole, or caspofungin for systemic |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of diseases are caused by aspergillus fumigatus? |
|
Definition
| allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis with asthma or CF; aspergillomas in lung cavities especially after TB infection; some species of aspergillus produce aflatoxins which are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma; invasive and/or disseminated disease in immunocompromised pateints especially in lungs |
|
|
Term
| T/f Aspergillus fumigatus is dimorphic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of fungi produces a conidiophore with fruiting bodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the appearance of aspergillus. |
|
Definition
| septate hyphae that branch at acute angles; sometimes you'll see conidiophores |
|
|
Term
| Where is cryptococcus neoformans found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Besides staining with india ink, what can you use that is more specific to dx cryptococcus infection? |
|
Definition
| latex agglutination test detects polysaccharide capsular antigen and is more specific |
|
|
Term
| "soap bubble lesions in the brain"= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F Most infections with Pneumocystits jiroveci are asymptomatic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you dx pneumocystis jiroveci? |
|
Definition
| diagnosed by lung biopsy or lavage; disk shaped yeast forms on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci? |
|
Definition
| TMP-SMX, pentamidine, dapsone |
|
|
Term
| When do you start pneumocystis jiroveci prophylaxis in AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
| when CD4 is less than 200 |
|
|
Term
| What is the appearance of sporothrix schenckii? |
|
Definition
| dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast that lives on vegetation |
|
|
Term
| T/F Sporothrix schenckii can cause systemic disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat sporothrix schenckii? |
|
Definition
| itraconazole or potassium iodide |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose giardia? |
|
Definition
| trophozoites or cysts in stool |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose entamoeba histolytica? |
|
Definition
| serology and/or trophozoites (with RBCs in teh cytoplasm) or cysts (with multiple nuclei) in stool |
|
|
Term
| Flask shaped ulcers in colon= |
|
Definition
| entamoeba histolytica due to rupture of submucosal abscess |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for entamoeba histolytica? |
|
Definition
| metronidazole and iodoquinol |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for cryptosporidium? |
|
Definition
| prevention (by filtering city water supplies); no treatment |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose cryptosporidium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of chongenital toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
| chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat toxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
| sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine |
|
|
Term
| How does naegleria get to your brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose naegleria fowleri? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat naegleria fowleri? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes african sleeping sickness? |
|
Definition
| Trypanosoma brucei (T. gambiense, T. rhodesiense) |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Trypanosome brucei infection? |
|
Definition
| african sleeping sickness-> enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever (due to antigenic variation), somnolence, coma |
|
|
Term
| What is the vector for trypanosoma brucei? |
|
Definition
| Tsetse fly (a painful bite) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose trypanosoma brucei infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat trypanosoma brucei infection? |
|
Definition
| suramin for blood borne disease or melarsoprol for CNS penetration |
|
|
Term
| What malaria type typically has a 48 hr cycle? |
|
Definition
| P. vivax/ovale (tertian)What |
|
|
Term
| What type of malaria has a dormant form in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cerebral malaria? |
|
Definition
| when RBCs parasitized by P. falciparum occlude capillaries in teh brain (can also occlude capillaries in teh kidney and lung) |
|
|
Term
| What type of malaria has a 72 hour cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for the ring form of malaria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for malaria? |
|
Definition
| begin with chloroquine which blocks plasmodium heme polymerase; if resistant use mefloquine. For vivax/ovale, add primaquine for dormant form in liver |
|
|
Term
| Name the dormant form of malaria organisms in the liver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What increases your risk of severe disease from babesiosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat babesiosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What areas of the world get trypanosoma cruzi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is trypanosoma cruzi transmitted? |
|
Definition
| reduviid bug ("kissing bug") a painless bit (much like a kiss) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose trypanosoma cruzi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for trypanosoma cruzi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of visceral leishmania donovani infection? |
|
Definition
| visceral= spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia |
|
|
Term
| How is leishmania transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose leishmania donovani? |
|
Definition
| macrophages containing amastogotes (the form lacking a flagella) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for leishmania donovani? |
|
Definition
cutaneous= sodium stibogluconate
visceral= liposomal amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of trichomonas vaginalis? |
|
Definition
| vaginitis: foul smelling greenish discharge; itching and burning |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose trichomonas vaginalis? |
|
Definition
| trophozoites on wet mount |
|
|
Term
| bannana shaped gametocytes= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat enterobius vermicularis? |
|
Definition
| bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat ascaris lumbricoides? |
|
Definition
| bedazoles or pyrantel pamoate |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose ascaris lumbricoides? |
|
Definition
| eggs are visible in feces |
|
|
Term
| What is a pumonary complication of ascaris lumbricoides? |
|
Definition
| Loffler's eosinophilic pneumonitis |
|
|
Term
| What are teh symptoms of trichinella spiralis? |
|
Definition
| inflammation of muscle; periorbital edema |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat trichinella spiralis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat strongyloides stercoralis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat ancylostoma duodenale or necator americanus? |
|
Definition
| bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate |
|
|
Term
| What intestinal worms can cause anemia? |
|
Definition
| ancylostoma duodenale and necator americanus (suck blood from intestinal walls) |
|
|
Term
| What is the transmission/disease of dracunculus medinensis? |
|
Definition
| in drinking water; skin inflammation and ulceration |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat dracunculus medinensis? |
|
Definition
| niridazole (prolonged extraction) |
|
|
Term
| What is the transmission/disease caused by onchocerca voluvlus? |
|
Definition
| transmitted by female blackflies; causes hyperpigmented skin and river blindness; can have allergic reaction to microfilaria |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for onchocerca volvulus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the transmission/disease of loa loa? |
|
Definition
| transmitted by deer fly, horse fly, and mango fly; causes swelling in skin (can see worm crawling in conjunctiva) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of loa loa. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the transmission/disease caused by wuchereria bancrofti? |
|
Definition
| female mosquito; causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephatniasis); takes 9 months to 1 year after bit to get elephantiasis symptoms |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for quchereria bancrofti? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is transmission/disease of toxocara canis? |
|
Definition
| food contaminated with eggs: causes granulomas (if in retina --> blindness); and visceral larva migrans |
|
|
Term
| How is taenia solium transmitted? |
|
Definition
| ingestion of larvae encysted in undercooked pork leads to intestinal tapeworms |
|
|
Term
| What is the disease caused by taenia solium? |
|
Definition
| ingestion of eggs causes cysticercosis and neurocysticercosis, mass lesions in brain ("swiss cheese" appearance) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for taenia solium? |
|
Definition
| praziquantel (use bendazoels for neurocysticercosis) |
|
|
Term
| How do you get diphyllobothrium latum? |
|
Definition
| ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater fish |
|
|
Term
| What organism leads to vitamin B12 deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for diphyllobothrium latum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you get echinococcus granulosus? |
|
Definition
| eggs in dog feces are ingested |
|
|
Term
| What is the disease caused by echinococcus granulosus? |
|
Definition
| cysts in liver; causes anaphylaxis if echinococcal antigens are released from cysts (surgeons inject ethanol before removal to kill daughter cysts) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for echinoccocus granulosus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the cestodes (tapeworms). |
|
Definition
| taenia solium, diphyllobothrium latum; echinococcus granulosus |
|
|
Term
| Name teh trematodes (flukes). |
|
Definition
| schistosoma, clonorchis sinensis, paragonimus westermani |
|
|
Term
| What is the disease caused by schistosoma? |
|
Definition
| swimmer's itch; granulomas, fibrosis and inflammation of the spleen and liver; can lead to portal hypertension from eggs stuck in portal vein or squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder |
|
|
Term
| How do you get clonorchis sinensis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the disease caused by clonorchis sinensis? |
|
Definition
| inflammation of the biliary tract leading to pigmented gallstones and cholangiocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
| How is clonorchis sinensis infection treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the disease caused by paragonimus westermani? |
|
Definition
| inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung; causing hemoptysis |
|
|
Term
| Where do you get paragonimus westermani from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat paragonimus westermani? |
|
Definition
|
|
