Term
| Down syndrome pts are at increased risk for which hematologic cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two cancer are pts with Paget's disease of bone at increased risk for developing? |
|
Definition
| secondary osteosarcoma & fibrosarcoma |
|
|
Term
| Pts who develop acanthosis nigricans are at increased risk for developing which kinds of cancers? |
|
Definition
| visceral (stomach, lung, breast, uterus) |
|
|
Term
| What is the clinical definition of neutropenia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can a sputum gram stain be determined to be an "adequate" sample? |
|
Definition
many neutrophilsn (greater than 25/hpf)
few epithelial cells (less than 25/hpf) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common causes of pneumonia in COPD pts? |
|
Definition
H. influenzae Moraxella catarrhalis S. pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| Any pt with suspected TB should have what two tests performed? |
|
Definition
| PPD and acid-fast stain of sputum |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria is responsible for strep throat? |
|
Definition
| Group A (beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes) |
|
|
Term
| T or F: Cough is typical of strep throat (due to Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common causes bacterial sinusitis? |
|
Definition
Strep. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
M. catarrhalis |
|
|
Term
| What time frames separate acute and chronic sinusitis? |
|
Definition
Acute – less than 1 mo
Chronic – more than 3 mo. |
|
|
Term
| Which two "signs" are classic for meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What IV fluid can be used to treat cerebral edema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common causes of meningitis in neonates? |
|
Definition
Group B streptococcous (Strep. agalactiae)
E. oli
Listeria |
|
|
Term
| What re the four major causes of meningitis in children 6mo-6yr? |
|
Definition
S. pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
H. influenzae (B)
Enteroviruses |
|
|
Term
| What are the four major causes of meningitis in pts 6-60ys? |
|
Definition
Neisseria meningitidis
Enteroviruses
S. pneumoniae
HSV |
|
|
Term
| What are the major causes of meningitis for elderly pts? |
|
Definition
S. pneumoniae
Listeria
Neisseria meningitidis |
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial agents are used in neonates under 1 mo? |
|
Definition
| Ampicillin + cefotaxime or gentamicin |
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial agents are used in neonates 1-3 mo with meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Vancomycin + ceftriaxone or cefotaxime |
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial agents are used in 3mo-adulthood pts with meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Vancomycin + ceftriaxone or cefotaxime |
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial agents are used in elderly pts with meningitis? |
|
Definition
| Ampicillin + vancomycin + ceftriaxone or cefotaxime |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common pathogens of encephalitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are encephalitis due to HSV and CMV treated differently? |
|
Definition
HSV-IV acyclovir
CMV-ganciclovir +/- foscarnet |
|
|
Term
| Which two tests are utilized in the diagnoses of HIV? |
|
Definition
ELISA (sensitivity)
Western blot (confirmatory b/c of specificity) |
|
|
Term
| Once HIV diagnosis is confirmed what other baseline tests should be run? |
|
Definition
HIV RNA PCR (viral load)
CD4 cell count
CXR
PPD
Pap smear
VDRL/RPR
CMV, hepatitis, toxoplasmosis, VZV |
|
|
Term
| How is Cryptococcal meningitis usually diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is histoplasmosis generally diagnosed in AIDS pts? |
|
Definition
serum or urine antibody
or
silver stain on biopsy (yeast form) |
|
|
Term
| Pneumocystis carinni pneumonia is commonly seen in AIDS pts with what description of their CXR? |
|
Definition
| diffuse, bilaterrral interstitial infiltrates w/ ground-glass appearance |
|
|
Term
| Which organism is the most common BACTERIAL STD in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by what bacterial agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antibacterial agent is first-line treatment for Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
| Doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days |
|
|
Term
| Condylomata lata lesions are caused by what? |
|
Definition
| syphilis (Treponema pallidum) |
|
|
Term
| What is the sensitivity of VDRL/RPR tests? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which test for syphilis is both sensitive and specific? |
|
Definition
| FTA-ABS should be used in cases when clinical presentation of syphilis is suspected w/ neg. VDRL/RPR |
|
|
Term
| Which organism causes cancroids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of adenopathy is common in pts with a cancroid? |
|
Definition
| inguinal lymphadenopathy (caused by Haemophilus ducreyi) |
|
|
Term
| The gnumonic SEEKS PP is used to recall causes of UTIs. What does each letter stand for? |
|
Definition
Serratia
E. coli
Enterobacter
Klebsiella
S. saprophyticus
Pseudomonas
Proteus mirabilis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IV drug users are most likely to have ostemyeltitis cause from which two organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Osteomyelitis following a foot puncture wound should make a physician suspicious for what pathogen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For what duration should pts w/ osteomyelitis be treated on antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which aspect of a complete physical exam should be avoided in pts w/ neutropenic pts? |
|
Definition
rectal exam
increased risk for bleeding |
|
|
Term
| Which disease of North America is the most common vector-borne disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism causes lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of tick carries Borrelia burgdorfei? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cutaneous lesion is associated with Lyme disease and described as "bull's eye"? |
|
Definition
| erythema migrans (usually gets larger after initial manifestation) |
|
|
Term
| Which two tests are diagnostic for Lyme's disease? |
|
Definition
| ELISA followed by confirmatory Western Blot |
|
|
Term
| What RXs are used in early and late Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
Early-doxycyline
late-ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
| Describe the spread of the rash in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
starts at ankles and wrists
then migrates to trunk/centrally |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
Rickettsia rickettsii
transported by Dermacentor variabilis (dog tick) |
|
|
Term
| How is a diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever confirmed? |
|
Definition
| indirect immunofluorescence of rash biopsy |
|
|
Term
| What common and inexpensive antibiotic is frequently used in the treatment of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which virus is the most common congenital infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the number one cause of endocarditis (more than 80% of cases) in pts with IV drug use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which three organisms are the most common pathogens of acute endocarditis? |
|
Definition
Staph aureus
Step. pneumoniae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
|
Term
| In what timeframe after the halo lesion of anthrax does the black eschar normally form within? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of cauda equina syndrome? |
|
Definition
bowel/bladder dysfunction
impotence
saddle-area anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| Which lower extremity muscular action is reduced w/ compression of L5 nerve root? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reiter's syndrome (AKA reactive arthritis) commonly follows infections of what organisms? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter
Shigella
Salmonella
Chlamydia
Ureaplasma |
|
|
Term
| What is the inheritence pattern for Duchenne muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
X-linked recessive
presents most commonly in 3-5 yr lds |
|
|
Term
| Which physical sign is frequently present in young children with Duchenne Muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
| Gower's maneuver (using hands to push off thights when rising from floor) |
|
|
Term
| Hypertrophy of which lower extremity muscle is commonly seen in young children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic description of a pt with either polymyositis or dermatomyositis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Shawl sign (rash of shoulder, upper chest, and back) and Gottoron's papules are classic for which disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Both polymyositis and dermatomyositis require biopsy of what for diagnosis? |
|
Definition
muscle tissue
(will demonstrate inflammation) |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of Felty's syndrome? |
|
Definition
RA
splenomegaly
neutropenia |
|
|
Term
| T or F: The vast majority of juvenile RA pts have spontaneous resolution by puberty? |
|
Definition
true
95% resolve at puberty |
|
|
Term
| Which type of juvenile RA has an asymmetric presentation of weight-bearing joints? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T or F: In both Juvenile RA and RA most pts are RF positive. |
|
Definition
False
more than 75% in adults
only 15% in juvenile RA |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common symptomatic presentation of scleroderma? |
|
Definition
CREST syndrome
Calcinosis
Raynaud's phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility
sclerodactyly
Telangiectasias |
|
|
Term
| What are the roles of CCBs and ACEI's in scleroderma? |
|
Definition
CCBs manage Raynaud's
ACEIs maintain renal perfusion |
|
|
Term
| What is the most sensitive test for SLE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aside from Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) what other antibodies are highly specific for SLE but less sensitive? |
|
Definition
anti-dsDNA
anti-Smith
Antiphospholipid antibodies |
|
|
Term
| In what position is the upper extremity maintained in pts with an anterior dislocation of the shoulder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which carpal bone is the msot commonly fractured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which metacarpal bone is damaged in a boxer's fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two bones are the most common sites for osteosarcomas? |
|
Definition
distal femur
proximal tibia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common primary turmor of bone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic radiologic finding on a pt with an osteosarcoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic radiologic finding on a pt with Ewing's sarcoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which artery is affected in stroke pts with aphasia or neglect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which artery is affected in stroke pts with homonymous hemianopsia and memory deficits? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt with a history of head trauma has a negative CT (w/o contrast of course) but a SAH is still clinically suspect, which test should then be performed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which artery is the cause of an epidural hematoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of headaches are the most common in adultes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do pts with myasthenia gravis have CXR performed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to chlinesterase inhibitors which vitamin may also slow progression of cognitive decline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four signs of Parkinson disease? |
|
Definition
resting tremor
rigidity
bradykinesia
postural instability |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common primary tumors in adults? |
|
Definition
glioblastoma multiforme
meningioma |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one most common primary brain tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cafe-au-lait spots are associated with which disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition causes bilateral acoustic neuromas? |
|
Definition
| neurofibromatosis type II |
|
|
Term
| Which condition presents with infantile spasms and ash-leaf hypopigmented lesions of trunk and extremities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which medications are most often used for the treatment of acute closed-angle glaucoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the classic ophthamalogic finding with open-angle glaucoma? |
|
Definition
cupping of optic disks
(bilateral involvement) |
|
|
Term
| At approximately which week is the uterus palpable above the pelvic symphysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Between which weeks of pregnancy should maternal AFP be determined? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During which week should RhoGAM be administered to Rh negative women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During which weeks of pregnancy does quickening usully start? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What genetic syndrome is at significantly increased risk with a mother's tripple screen revealing decreased AFP, decreased estriol, and decreased beta-hCG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a mother's tripple screen test demonstrates decreased AFP, decreased estriol, and decreased beta-hCG what genetic disorder of the fetus is likely? |
|
Definition
| Edward syndrome (trisomy 18) |
|
|
Term
| What does hyperglycemia in the first trimester suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two classes of anti-HTN medications should be avoided in pregnant pts with hypertension? |
|
Definition
| ACIEs and diuretics (both may cause uterine ischemia) |
|
|
Term
| What type of pregnancy moles result from a sperm firtilizing an empty ovum and are 46 XX? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an incomplete (or partial) mole? |
|
Definition
| normal ovum fertilized by two sperm resutling in a 69 chromosome XXY |
|
|
Term
| Which type of mole has fetal tissue present? |
|
Definition
| incomplete (partial) mole |
|
|
Term
| What type of appearance is classic for a molar pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hormone is markedly elevated in molar pregnancies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the follow-up for a pt with hydatidiform mole? |
|
Definition
close monitoring of beta-hCG
prevent pregnancies for at least one year |
|
|
Term
| Malignant gestational trophoblastic disease (mole pregnancies) are highly sensitive to what forms of oncologic treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common causes of third-trimester bleeding? |
|
Definition
placental abruption
placental previa |
|
|
Term
| What is placental abruption? |
|
Definition
| premature separation of normally implanted placenta |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| some portion of placenta covers cervical os |
|
|
Term
| Which color of blood is more concerning in a third-trimester bleed, bright red or dark? |
|
Definition
bright red
more likely to be a placenta previa |
|
|
Term
| How is premature rupture of membranes defined? |
|
Definition
| rupture or membranes before the onset of contractions |
|
|
Term
| What type of gynecologic exam should NOT be performed on pts less than 34 weeks with premature rupture of membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Preterm labor occurs in what time frames of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the number one cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the criteria for postpartum hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
more than 500 mL w/ vaginal deliver
1.0 L for C-section |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Sheehan's syndrome? |
|
Definition
aka Postpartum Pituitary Necrosis
pituitary ischemia/necrosis secondary to hemorhage |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common manifestation of Sheehan's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| failure lactate postpartum (due to decreased prolactin levels) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of mastitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of clinically recognized pregnancies terminate in spontaneous abortions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Women of what age group are at most risk for fibrocystic breast disease? |
|
Definition
30-50
rarely present in postmenopausal women |
|
|
Term
| Despite fibrocystic breast disease being a benign condition, what concomitant finding increases the pt's risk for breast cancer? |
|
Definition
| ductal epithelial hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common breast lesion in women under 30 years of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which portion of the breast are breast cancers most commonly located? |
|
Definition
| upper outer quadrant (45%) |
|
|
Term
| Breast cancer localized to the breast has what chance for cure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If metastatic breast cancer is found in axillary disection what is the five-year survival rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a pt with secondary amenorrhea and elevated FSH levels what is the most likely cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is menometrorrhagia? |
|
Definition
| excessive and irregular bleeding |
|
|
Term
| Testosterone levels above 200 ng/dL in a female with hirustism and/or virilization is most suspicious for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormones demonstrate a greater than 2:1 ratio in PCOS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ultrasound founding of the ovaries helps with a diagnsis of PCOS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average age of menopause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hormone levels are elevated in menopause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 40% of infertility issues are due to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the most common site of an ectopic pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What life-threatening condition must be ruled out in pregnant pts presenting with sharp abd pain, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and perhaps rebound tenderness? |
|
Definition
rupture ectopic pregnancy
also suspect in pts with secondary amenorrhea |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| empty uterine cavity on U/S w/ beta-hCG of 6500 mIU/mL or greater |
|
|
Term
| 66% of PID cases are due to what two pathogens? |
|
Definition
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| extreme cervical tenderness with palpation |
|
|
Term
| What is concerning when chandelier sign is evident? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of bacterial vaginosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pts population composes 90% of pts with toxich shock syndrome? |
|
Definition
| women of child-bearing age |
|
|
Term
| What tumor marker can be measured for recurrence of ovarian cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common BENIGN neoplasm of the female genital tract? |
|
Definition
| uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) |
|
|
Term
| What releasing hormone can be used to suppress growth of firoids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infection with which strains of HPV increase risk for cervical cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts with one relative w/ a history of ovarian tumors are at what percentage increased risk for developing an ovarian tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BRCA1 and BRCA2 carry what lifetime risk for developing ovarian cancer? |
|
Definition
BRCA1 – 45%
BRCA2 – 25% |
|
|
Term
| How does OCP use affect risk for ovarian cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should pts with known BRCA1 mutation be managed for ovarian cancer? |
|
Definition
annual US & CA-125 screening
prophylactic oophorectomy is recommended by age 35 |
|
|
Term
| If a child appears to have been either neglected or abused what findings on ophthalmologic exam might be evident? |
|
Definition
retinal hemorrhages
also order CT (subdural hemorrhages) & MRI (white matter changes) |
|
|
Term
| How can neonates with congenital heart disease be distinguished from having a right-to-left shunt vs a left-to-right shunt based solely on physical exam? |
|
Definition
left-to-right are noncyanotic
right-to-left produce cyanosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the three causes of left-to-right shunts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common conenital heart defect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What heart sounds are evident in a child with a left-to-right shunt? |
|
Definition
| pansystolic murmurloud pulmonic S2 |
|
|
Term
| What test is diagnostic for a VSD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the firstline treatment for a VSD of a neonate? |
|
Definition
| Nothing, most spontaneously close |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic heart sound of an ASD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a right-axis deviation seen on an EKG in a pt with an ASD? |
|
Definition
| B/c the R heart has lower filling pressure than the L causes a L-to-R shunt and R-sided atrial dilation |
|
|
Term
| What infection of the mother's first-trimester increases the risk for a neonate to have a PDA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any any neonate with recurrent respiratory infections, in addition to perhaps a primary lung disorder what other condition should be suspected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Children with HTN should have what aortic anomaly investigated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four characteristics of Tetralogy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
pulmonary stenosis
RVH
overriding aorta
VSD |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common CYANOTIC heart disease of INFANCY? |
|
Definition
| transposition of the great arteries |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common CYANOTIC heart disease of CHILDHOOD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What radiographic finding is seen in pts with tetralogy of fallot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What prostaglanind is used to maintain a PDA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What vaccination should be given to neonates at birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are four vaccines which should ideally be givein at 2, 4, and 6 months. What are they? |
|
Definition
DTaP
Hib
IPV (inactivated polio vaccine)
PPV |
|
|
Term
| What is the diagnostic criteria for failure to thrive? |
|
Definition
| below the third to fifth percentile on growth curve |
|
|
Term
| What genetic disorder presents with mental retardation, rocker-bottom feet, low-set ears, and micorgnathia? |
|
Definition
| Edward syndrome (trisomy 18) |
|
|
Term
| What is Patau's syndrome? |
|
Definition
Trisomy 13
mental retardation, microophthalmia, microcephaly, cleft deformities, poludactyly |
|
|
Term
| What genetic condition is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
alpha-galactosidase A deficiency
leads to renal failure
x-linked recessive |
|
|
Term
| What is Krabbe's disease? |
|
Definition
galactosylceramide beta-galactoside is not produced
optic atrophy, spasticity, death
autosomal recessive |
|
|
Term
| What is Niemann-Pick disease? |
|
Definition
sphingomyelinase deficiency
death by age 3 |
|
|
Term
| Which enzyme is deficient in Tay-Sachs disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ocular manifestation is characteristic of tay-Sachs disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is the most common cause of bowel obstruction within the first two years of life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What procedure is diagnostic and often curative of intussusception? |
|
Definition
| air-contrast barium enema |
|
|
Term
| The gnumonic CATCH-22 is used to remember the characteristics of DiGeorge Syndrome. What does each letter/number stand for? |
|
Definition
Congenital heart disease
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
22q deletion |
|
|
Term
| What is Bruton's agammaglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
| x-link B-cell deficiency seen only in boys |
|
|
Term
| What are the two key characteristics to ataxia-telangiectasia? |
|
Definition
| oculocutaneous telangiectasis & cerebellar ataxia |
|
|
Term
| What type types of cancers are pts w/ ataxia-telangiectasia at increased risk for developing? |
|
Definition
non-Hodgkin lymphoma
gastric carcinoma |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of ataxia-telangiectasias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital conditions leaves a pt w/ severe lack of both B and T cells? |
|
Definition
| Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) |
|
|
Term
| What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome? |
|
Definition
| X-linked immune system impairment of both B and T cells. |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic physical findings of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (x-linked immune impairment of B & T cells)? |
|
Definition
| eczema, bleeding, recurrent otitis media and other infections |
|
|
Term
| What disease is X-linked or autosomal recessive and is characterized by impairment of superoxide production? |
|
Definition
| Chronic granulomatous disease |
|
|
Term
| What test is diagnostic for chronic granulomatous disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibacterial agent should pts w/ chronic granulomatous disease receive daily for prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Chediak-Higashi syndrome? |
|
Definition
| An autosomal recessive disorder with defunct neutrophil chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic physical manifestations for Chediak-Higashi syndrome (autosomal recessive disorder of neutrophil chemotaxis)? |
|
Definition
| oculocutaneous albinism, neuropathy, neutropenia |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for pts wth Chediak-Higashi syndrome (autosomal recessive impairment of neutrophil chemotaxis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital, autosomal dominant disorder is characterized by episodes of angioedema lasting 2-72 hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for C1 esterase deficiency? |
|
Definition
daily danazol
purified C1 esterase & FFP before surgery |
|
|
Term
| Kawasaki disease primarily affects what age group? |
|
Definition
children
80% are less than 5 years old |
|
|
Term
| The CRASH AND BURN symptoms of Kawasaki disease are what? |
|
Definition
| Conjuctivitis, Rash, Adenopathy, Strawberry tongue, Hands and feed, and BURN-fever over 40 C for at least 5 days |
|
|
Term
| How is Kawasaki disease treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major complications of untreated Kawasaki disease? |
|
Definition
coronary artery aneurysm (40%)
MI |
|
|
Term
| What age group is primarily affected by bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
| infants and children under 2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is bronchiolitis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| CXR w/ hyperinflation, interstitial infiltrates, atelectasis |
|
|
Term
| What radiographic finding on an AP film is classic for croup? |
|
Definition
| subglottic narrowing (steeple sign) |
|
|
Term
| What pediatric infection of the upper airway is most common in 3-7 year orlds, presents with a muffled voice, drooling, high grade fever, and a "thumbprint sign" on lateral film? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should a pt with epiglottis me managed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drooling in a 5 year old pt with a muffled voice and high fever is most concerning for what emergent condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| I say "thumbprint sign" on a lateral film of a pediatric pt. You say...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary causes of otitis media? |
|
Definition
| Strep. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis |
|
|
Term
| What three findings sould be manifest for a diagnosis of otitis media? |
|
Definition
| TM erythema, bulging, and decreased mobility |
|
|
Term
| What Apgar scale defines a normal, healthy infant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of neonatal juandice is ALWAYS pathologic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| irreversible deposition of unconjugated bilirubinin the basal ganglia, pons, and cerebellum which can be fatal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| herniation of uncovered intestines through the abdominal wall next to the umbilicus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| herniation of intestinal contents through the umbilicus covered with peritoneum and an amniotic membrane |
|
|
Term
| What radiographic sign is seen with congenital duodenal atresia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common congenital GI tract anomaly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| I say congenital megacolon. You say...? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of respiratory failure in PRETERM infants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary cause of RDS in preterm infants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. |
|
Definition
| Rapid ventilatory rate (over 60 resps/min), nasal flaring, cyanosis, intercostal retractions, expiratory grunting |
|
|
Term
| What radiographic sign is evident in neonates of RDS? |
|
Definition
| ground-glass appearance and airbronchograms |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common movement disorder in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stimulatory metabolites are often elevated in the urine of pediatric pts with neuroblastoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common renal tumor of childhood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOST COMMON finding in Wilm's tumor? |
|
Definition
| painless abdominal mass which does not cross the midline |
|
|
Term
| What is the average duration of major depresive episodes in major depressive disorder? |
|
Definition
| at least 4 months when untreated |
|
|
Term
| what are the primary concerning side effects with atypical antipsychotics? |
|
Definition
wt gain
insulin resistance
somnolence
agranulocytosis with clozapine |
|
|
Term
| What are the cluster C personality disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
blank affect
emotional soticism
inhibited speech |
|
|
Term
| How should ADHD be evaluated? |
|
Definition
| at least six months w/ symptoms in to different environements |
|
|
Term
| Akathisia, a symptoms of extrapyramidal syptoms, is what? |
|
Definition
| a subjective (or objective) sense of restlessness |
|
|
Term
| What are the four progressive stages of EPS? |
|
Definition
acute dystonia
akathisia
dyskinesia
tardive dyskinesia |
|
|
Term
| What is meant by dyskinesia (an EPS)? |
|
Definition
| pseudoparkinsonism (shuffling gait, cogwheel rigidity) |
|
|
Term
| Autism should be evident before what age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Asperger's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| form of autism without marked language or cognitive delays |
|
|
Term
| What are the three leading causes of death in pts 15-24 years of age? |
|
Definition
1. homicide
2. accidents
3. suicide |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristic "lesions" of systemic sarcoidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pulmonary conditions are pneimoconioses? |
|
Definition
Asbestosis
Coal miner's lung
Silicosis
Berylliosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| disease caused by cycles of infection and inflammation in the bronchi/bronchioles leading to permanent fibrosis/remodeling/dilatation of bronchi |
|
|
Term
| What radiographic finding on CXR should you assocaite with bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two major causes of emphysema? |
|
Definition
smoking
alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What measurement of pulmonary blood pressure is needed for a diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What EKG finding is classic for a PE? |
|
Definition
S1Q3T3
S wave in lead 1
Q wave in lead 3
inverted T wave in lead 3 |
|
|
Term
| which type of non-small cell lung cancer has the worst prognosis? |
|
Definition
| Large cell (neuroendocrine carcinomas) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of cancer is the MOST COMMON primary lung cancer? |
|
Definition
| adenocarcinoma (peripheral location) |
|
|
Term
| Why is the treatment of small cell lung cancer and non-Small cell lung cancers differentiated? |
|
Definition
| b/c small cell lung cancer has a tendency to metastasize early while non-Small cell lung cancers don't |
|
|
Term
| The acronym CHIMPANZEES can be used to recall common causes of hypercalcemia. What does each letter stand for? |
|
Definition
| Calcium, Hyperparathyroidism, Iatrogenia, Milk-alkali syndrome, Paget's disease, Addison's disease (and Acromegaly), Neoplasm, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Is muscle weakness associated with HYPER- or HYPO-kalemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are muscle cramps and ileus associated with HYPER- or HYPO-kalemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major cardiac concern with hypokalemia? |
|
Definition
| AV node conduction block w/ progression to cardiac arrest |
|
|
Term
| What type of diuretics should be employed in the treatment of hypercalcemia? |
|
Definition
loop diuretics
thiazide diuretics may precepitate hypercalcemic symptoms as they increase calcium resorption |
|
|
Term
| What is the value of proteinuria in niphritic syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diuretic agents increase hydrogen ion retention and also block sodium resorption? |
|
Definition
| carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What acid-base disturbnce must be monitored when using loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What K-sparing diuretic is concerning for gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
| spironolactone (as well as other anti-androgen effects) |
|
|
Term
| What acid-base disturbance is concerning with K-sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should niphritic syndrome be managed/treated? |
|
Definition
| balance electrolyte and acid-base disturbances; corticosteroids may be useful in some cases |
|
|
Term
| What are the four characteristics of nephrotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
proteinuria (3.5g/day)
generalized edema
hypoalbuminemia
hyperlipidemia |
|
|
Term
| What finding might a pt present to a physician upon questioning about the pt's urine with a case of nephrotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy) |
|
|
Term
| What cause of nephritic syndrome is hereditary and present primarily in boys 5-20 years of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is minimal change disease treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is membranous nephropathy? |
|
Definition
| a nephrotic syndrome due to immune complex disease freq. associated w/ HBV, syphilis, malaria, and gold toxicity |
|
|
Term
| Is diabetic nephropathy a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is nephrotic syndrome due to diabetes managed? |
|
Definition
| tight control of blood glucose and HTN |
|
|
Term
| What type of nephropathy does Lupus nephritis present with? |
|
Definition
| may either be nephritic or nephrotic |
|
|
Term
| Renal amyloidosis causes what type of renal syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What special stain is used in the diagnosis of amyloidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A "tram-track" appearance on renal biopsy of the basement membrane is seen in what renal disease? |
|
Definition
| membranoproliferative nephropathy (may be either nephrotic or nephritic) |
|
|
Term
| What kidney stones are the most common? |
|
Definition
| calcium oxalate/calcium phosphate |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic inheritance pattern of polycystic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
| autosomal dominant or recessive |
|
|
Term
| What cerebral vascular anomaly is frequently associated with polycystic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What physiologic parameters describe renal tubular acidosis? |
|
Definition
| non-anion gap metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common form of renal tubular acidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is renal tubular acidosis? |
|
Definition
| metabolic acidosis due to failure of the kidneys to properly manage either H+ secretion or HCO3- resorption |
|
|
Term
| What test is used to diagnose ureteral reflux? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of central diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
| failure of pituitary to secrete proper amounts of ADH |
|
|
Term
| How can central diabetes insipidus be tested? |
|
Definition
desmopressin acete challenge
(ADH analog) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cancer in men? |
|
Definition
prostatic
(second leading cause of cancer death in men) |
|
|
Term
| What is the recommendation for annual screening for prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common MALIGNANT tumor of the urinary tract? |
|
Definition
bladder cancer
(most commonly a transitional cell carcinoma) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common presenting symptom of bladder cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is McBurney's point located? |
|
Definition
| 2/3 the ditance from the ASIS to the umbilicus< |
|
|
Term
| What diagnostic modality is the most sensitive for appendicitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What histories are associated with most cases of aortic disruptions? |
|
Definition
rapid deceleration injuries
(as in MVAs) |
|
|
Term
| What is the second leading cause of death in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two ACLS meds are used in asystole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the management of stable atrial fibrillation/flutter different w/in the first 48 hours or after the first 48 hours? |
|
Definition
w/in 48h: cardiovert
outside 48h: anticoagulate first (or perform transesophageal echocardiogram) then cardiovert |
|
|
Term
| Which abdominal organ is the most commonly damanged in blunt trauma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two side effects of primary importance for chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
gray baby syndrome
aplastic anemia |
|
|
Term
| What are the three primary side effects of importance with vancomycin? |
|
Definition
red man syndrome (histamine release)
nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity |
|
|
Term
| What vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness and dry skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| genetic condition characterized by glomerulonephritis, end stage renal disease, and hearing loss. |
|
|
