Term
| What are the DNA repair mechanisms? |
|
Definition
1. Directsion Repair 2. Mismatch Repair 3. Excision Repair |
|
|
Term
| What is direct repair mechanism? |
|
Definition
1. DNA ligase: Ionizing radiation (repairs nicks in DNA) 2. Photolyase: UVB damge in bacteria --> repairs UVB damage |
|
|
Term
| What do mismatched repair mechanisms do? |
|
Definition
| Fix errors of replication through DNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
| What is DNA polymerase role in mismatch repair mechanisms |
|
Definition
| Proofreading: Repairs mismatch base pairing |
|
|
Term
| What sequences are prone to mismatches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Base Excision Repair? |
|
Definition
| Repair that works to correct errors in lesions of DNA. |
|
|
Term
| In base excision how many bases are repaired at a time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What damages does Base excision repair fix? |
|
Definition
| Oxidation damage and spontaneous hydrolysis or chemical agents (Deamination) |
|
|
Term
| What does Nucleotide Excision repair fix? |
|
Definition
1.repairs lesions in DNA that destort the helix shape 2. repairs 30 babes |
|
|
Term
| What are the types of repairs of Nucloetide Excision Repair? |
|
Definition
1. UVB damage in humans 2. chemically modified bases 3.missing bases |
|
|
Term
| What disease occurs from the loss of NER? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| rare autlsomal recessive disorder, multiple genes are involved |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of XP? |
|
Definition
-Skin cancer and extreme photo sensitivity -people who have this have this are predisposed to cancer |
|
|
Term
| What distinguishes chromosomes? |
|
Definition
| the placement of the centromere |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of chromosomes? |
|
Definition
1. Telocentric 2. Acrocentric 3. Submetacentric 4. Metacentric
[image] |
|
|
Term
| in which two chromosomes do the p and q arm appear? |
|
Definition
| submetacentric and metacentric |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1. Thredlike, linear structure that is composed of DNA and proteins and is visible during cell division |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. study of chromosomes and heredity 2. discipline of genetics that matches phenotypes to detectable chromosomal abnormalities |
|
|
Term
| What are the three criterion for a chromosome to be considered a human chromosome? |
|
Definition
1. It has to have centromeres 2. it has to have telomeres 3. it has to be able to replicate |
|
|
Term
| What is a telomere? and what are the repeating sequences that make up a telomere? |
|
Definition
| ends of chromosome that consist of many repeating TTAGGG and shorten with each mitotic division |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the chromosomal complement of a cell of an individual arranged in a sequence |
|
|
Term
| How is a karyotype arranged? |
|
Definition
| by size, length, and placement of centromere |
|
|
Term
| What are the steps of preparing a karytpe? |
|
Definition
1. Isolate cells 2. Culture Cells 3. Stain 4. Align and Analyze chromosomes |
|
|
Term
| what occurs when a cell is being cultured in karyotype? |
|
Definition
1. mitosis is stimulated: phytohemagglutinin protein 2. mitosis is then blocked at metaphase |
|
|
Term
| What does the notation 7q31.2 mean? |
|
Definition
-long arm (q) of chromosome 7 -region 3 -band 1 -subband 2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A schamatic map of a chromosome |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between and ideogram and a karyotype? |
|
Definition
| A kayrotype shows a complete set of chromosomes while ideograms shows a "map" of a single chromosome |
|
|
Term
| How are chromosomes arranged? |
|
Definition
1. size (smallest to laregest) 2. centromere placement 3. cytogenetic placement/gene location |
|
|
Term
| What are the criterion used to analyze chromosomes? |
|
Definition
1. X/Y chromosome 2. ploidy (# of chromosomes) 3.deletions, duplications, translocations, inversions |
|
|
Term
| What does FISH stand for? |
|
Definition
| Flourescent in situ Hybridization |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. a labelled DNA probe is hydridized to a ssDNA on a slide
2. The hybridization occurs at a specific site on the DNA
|
|
|
Term
| What are the applications of FISH? |
|
Definition
1. used to determine the # of copies of a specific segement of DNA present in a cell 2. used to identify structural abormailites |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of FISH? |
|
Definition
1. metaphase or interphase cells may be ued 2. cell cultures NOT necessary 3. High resolution which enables detection of a single gene within an entire set of chromosome |
|
|
Term
| What are the different types of prenatal Genetic Screening? |
|
Definition
1. Ultrasounds 2. Amniocentesis 3. Chronic Villus Sampling (CVS) 4. Fetoscopy 5. Alpha Fetoprotein 6. Fetal Cell Sorting |
|
|
Term
| What is a chromosome mutation? |
|
Definition
| a variation in chromosome number and arrangement, changes in the genetic material within or among chromosomes |
|
|
Term
| What are the shorthand notations of chromosomes? |
|
Definition
1. total number of chrom. 2. Sex chrom 3. autosomal abnormalitites |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a somatic cell containing the normal number of chromosomes 2n=diploidy |
|
|
Term
| What type of chromosomal abberations are there? |
|
Definition
1. Abnormal number 2. chromosomal rearrangments |
|
|
Term
| What are the three categories of mutations caused by abnormal number of chromosomes? |
|
Definition
1. polyploidy 2. anueploidy 3. amplification |
|
|
Term
| What is polyploidy? and how is it caused? |
|
Definition
| cell containing one or more complete extra sets of chromosomes. Caused by errors in cell division (chromatid pairs don't seperate during anaphase) |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of polyploidy? |
|
Definition
3n-triploidy 4n-tetraploidy |
|
|
Term
| What is anueploidy and how is it caused? |
|
Definition
| gain or loss of one or more individual chromosome. Caused by non-disjunction during meiosis |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of aneuploidy? |
|
Definition
monosomy : 2n-1-->45 chromosomes trisomoy: 2n+1--> 46 chromosomes -trisomy of smaller chromosomes is slightly more tolerated than that of a large chromosome |
|
|
Term
| What is ampliflication? and what are two examples disease caused by amplification? |
|
Definition
-trinucleotide expansion/repeat ->Huntington Disease ->Fragile X syndrome (# 1 cause of mental retardation in males) |
|
|
Term
| What disease are caused by sex chromosome aneuploidy? |
|
Definition
1. Turner Syndrome: 45, X 2. Klinfelter Syndrome: 47XXY |
|
|
Term
| What is the chromosomal notation for Turner Syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| notation for klinefelter Syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diseases are caused by autosomal anueploidy? |
|
Definition
1. Patau Syndrome : 47, +13 2. Edward's Syndrome : 47, |
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by autosomal deletion? what is the chromosomal notation for it? |
|
Definition
| Cri-du-chat syndrome : 46, del(5p) or 46, (-5p) |
|
|
Term
| Klinefelter Syndrome? notation? is it sex or non sex? |
|
Definition
| disease that causes males to be sterile. notation: 47,XXY--> sex chromosome abnoramlity |
|
|
Term
| Turner syndrome? Notation? sex or non-sex abnormality? |
|
Definition
| disease that causes females to be sterile. Notation: 45,X-->sex |
|
|
Term
| Diseases due to sex chromosome abnormalities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 2n+1, addition of one chromosome to a dipliod gamete |
|
|
Term
| diseases caused by trisomy? trisomy of each is? |
|
Definition
1.Down syndrome-->trisomy 21 2.Patau syndrome-->trisomy 13 3. Edwards Syndrome-->trisomy 18 |
|
|
Term
| What are the chromosomal notation for Down, Patau, and Edwards syndrome? are they sex or non-sex chromosomal abnormalities? |
|
Definition
Down Syndrome: 47, +21 Patau Syndrome:47, +13 Edwars Syndrome: 47, +18 -All non-sex abnormalities, they are due to an abnormal number of chromosomes |
|
|
Term
| Monosomy? Notation? what category does it fall under? |
|
Definition
-total deletion or segmented deletion of a chromosome. 2n-1 -chromosomal anueploidy |
|
|
Term
| diseases caused by monosomy? and what is the notation of this disease? Why was this disease given its name? |
|
Definition
1.Cri-du-chat syndrome 2. 46, del (5p) or 46,(-5p) 3. Those affected by the cri-du-chat make a high pitched cat-like cry due to the abnormal dev of their larynx |
|
|
Term
| Translocation is? types of translocation are? |
|
Definition
| the movement of a chromosomal segment to a new location in the genome TYPES: reciprical and non reciprical |
|
|
Term
| What is reciprical translocation? |
|
Definition
the exchange of chromosomal segments between two non-homologous chromosomes
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chronic Myelogenou Leukemia |
|
|
Term
| What is CML and what is it caused by? |
|
Definition
| A type of leukemia that ic caused by reciprical translocation of chromosome # 9 and chromosome # 22 |
|
|
Term
| Explain what occurs between chrom 9 and chrom 22 of CML |
|
Definition
1. Chrom 9 has the C-ABL gene
2. Chrom 22 has the BCR gene
3. Translocation occurs and the C-ABL gene on chrom 9 is moved below the BCR gene of chrom 22
4. creating the BCR-ABL oncogene on chrom 22 (also known as the philadelphia chromosome)
[image] |
|
|
Term
| What is the chromosomal notation for CML? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an oncogene? Example? |
|
Definition
1. a gene that normally controls cell cycle but contributes to cancer when over expressed
2. A gain of function mutation that contribute to the production of cancer
EX: BCR-ABL oncogene |
|
|
Term
| What does an oncogene produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is non-reciprical translocation? or Robertsonian? |
|
Definition
| breaks at the end of the short arm of two non-homologous acrocentric chromosomes |
|
|
Term
| what is an example of a disease caused by non-reciprical translocation? and what is the chrom notation of it? |
|
Definition
Familial down syndrome
46, t(14;21)
[image] |
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between paracentric and pericentric inversions? |
|
Definition
paracentric: does not include centromere, all changes are done on one side of the centromere
Pericentric: includes centromere, changes the arm ration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the study genes that code for functional components |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the use of biological molecules for specific applications (i.e medicine, agriculture, and forensics) |
|
|
Term
| what are the steps of molecular genetics? |
|
Definition
1. isolate gene 2. amplify DNA 3. Analyze 4. manipulate DNA |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to amplify DNA, what are the two ways of amplification? |
|
Definition
Amplify=clone=making many different genetically identical copies of an original sequence of DNA through: 1. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 2. Recombinant DNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a rapid, in vitro method for cloning without a host cell
[image] |
|
|
Term
| What are the component of PCR? |
|
Definition
1. Target DNA: living or existing
2. Primers
3. DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase)
4. Buffer system (MgCl2)
5. Deoxynucleotide Triphosphates (dNTPs) |
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure for PCR? |
|
Definition
1. Denature target DNA by heating at 90-95C
-dsDNA to ssDNA
2. Annealing by heating at 50-70C
-hybridization of primers of ssDNA
3. Extention/Polymerization by heat at 70-75 C
-Taq polymerase adds complimentary bases
[image] |
|
|
Term
| what i taq polymerase and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
a type of DNA polymerase used in PCR to add complimentary bases to ssDNA
-stands fo thermus Aquaticus |
|
|
Term
| What machine is needed for PCR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a series of reactions called in PCR? and what is its formula |
|
Definition
series of reactions in PCR is called a cycle
Formula: 2^n-->n = # of cycles
-so if one molecule undergoes 25 cycles, then 3.4X10^7 copies will be made
[image] |
|
|
Term
| What is reverse transcriptase PCR? what is an example that RT-PCR is used to test for? |
|
Definition
reverse transcriptase PCR uses RNA as template to synthesize cDNA
-used to test for i.e HIV |
|
|
Term
| What is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism? (RFLP) |
|
Definition
a technique used in DNA fingerprinting
-individuals have unique fragment sizes |
|
|
Term
| what does polymorphism mean? |
|
Definition
| refers to the DNA sequence variation between individuals of a species |
|
|
Term
| RFLP and Sickle Cell disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a method of seperating molecules based on charge and size in an electrical feild
-used to determine best pair length
[image] |
|
|
Term
| What is Agarose/Gel Electrophoresis used for? |
|
Definition
used for large nucleic acids (i.e genomic DNA)
[image] |
|
|
Term
| what is polyacrylamide Electrophoresis used for? |
|
Definition
-used to seperated proteins and small molecules
[image] |
|
|
Term
| what is the pulse filled electrophoresis used for? |
|
Definition
-used to seperate extremel large fragments of DNA
|
|
|
Term
| What are the blotting techniques? and what are the three tyes? |
|
Definition
material of interest is transferred from gel to membrane
1. Southern blot
2. Northern blot
3.WEstern blot |
|
|
Term
| What are three different types of blotting techniques? |
|
Definition
1. Southern: DNA sample
2. Northern: RNA smaple
3.Western: protein sample
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a combinantion of DNA molecules from differerent biological species not naturally found in nature |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic procedure of Recombinant DNA? |
|
Definition
1. target DNA is purified from cell
2. restriction enzymes are used to cut specific fragments of DNA
3. Vectors are used to carry DNA to host cell
4. Cloning occurs in host cell
5. isolate cloned DNA from the host cell |
|
|
Term
| What are restriction enzymes? |
|
Definition
- enzymes that recognize and cut DNA at specific sites..can leave a sticky or blunt end
- they restrict and prevent viral infectionin bacteria by degrading viral DNA
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
carrier molecules/DNA sequences that can enter living cells
-Capable of replicating both itself and the inserted DNA fragment
|
|
|
Term
| What is a plasmid vector? |
|
Definition
-a type of vector that carry small inserts up to 15 kb of inserted DNA
-contains a large number of recognition sequences |
|
|
Term
| what does recombinant DNA equal? what makes it easy to ID recombinant DNA in a host cell? |
|
Definition
1. Vector and DNA fragment
2. R-DNA has selectable markers i.e Lac-Z gene |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between PCR and Recombinant DNA |
|
Definition
PCR: in vitro, rapid method of cloning DNA w/ out host cell
VS
Recombinant: requires a host cell for cloning, take more time |
|
|
Term
| What is the structure of healthy hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
[image]
-4 globin chains, in each globin portion there's a heme pocket which contains iron(4 globin, 4 hemes, 4 iron)
-made up of 2a and 2B |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of Hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
heme(non-protein section, iron is held in)
globin (protein section-made up of polypeptide chains) |
|
|
Term
| Which chromsomes code for hemoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two gene clusters of chrom 11 and 16? which is located on each chrom? |
|
Definition
alpha gene cluster (chrom 16)
beta gene cluster (chrom 11) |
|
|
Term
| what are the three function genes of alpha gene cluster on chrom 16? |
|
Definition
- a1, a2 and zeta
- contains 3 pseudogenes
|
|
|
Term
| what are the five beta gene clusters on chrom 11. How many seudogenes does it have? |
|
Definition
1. B(beta)
2.delta (δ)
3.G γ
4. Aγ
5.ε(episolin)
-contains one pseudogene |
|
|
Term
| Chronology of globin synthesis |
|
Definition
- ζ(Zeta) and ε(epsilon) chains-->0-3 months
- α(alpha) chains are always present
- γ(gamma) chains-->3 months gestation-1 year
- β(beta) chains-->1 month gestation and through life
|
|
|
Term
| What are the three levels of hemoglobin maturation? |
|
Definition
1. Embryonic Hemoglobin (Yolk Sac)
2. Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)
3. Adult Hemoglobin (HbA) |
|
|
Term
| What are the different forms of Embryonic hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
- Gower 1-->ζ2ε2, the most primitive form: 5-6 weeks gestation
- Gower 2-->a2ε2, first hemoglobin to require alpha chains: 4-12 weeks gestation
- Portland-->ζ2γ2
|
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of Fetal Hemoglobin? what is it notation? |
|
Definition
- (a2 δ2)
- contains two forms of gamma: G form and A form
- G form of gamma: 136, Glycine
- A form of gamma: 136, Alanine
|
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of adult hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
HbA2-->a2δ2
-appears late in fetal development
HbA1-->a2B2
-most mature type of hemoglobin, major component of postnatal life |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of adult hemoglobin: HbA (a2B2) |
|
Definition
- chromosome 16 produces a(alpha) chains
- Chromosome 11 produces B(beta) chains
- a and B chains are made in equal amounts: one a chains combines with one B chain to form a dimer
- two dimers form a tetramer
- Hemoglobin is a quatenary structure
|
|
|
Term
| What is the structure of hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of Hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| to pick up oxygen in the lungs and release it in the tissues and pick up carbon dioxide and release it in the lungs |
|
|
Term
| What is oxygen affinity? and what is oxyhemogloin? |
|
Definition
1. ability of hemoglobin to take up 02 in the lungs and deliver it to sites of low oxygen tension
2. a major form of hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
| What is Hemoglobinopathies? |
|
Definition
-inherited disorders/diseases affecting homoglobin -mutation in or near globin genes |
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobinopathies causes mutation on what part of hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| mutation in near or globin gene(s)-->so it effects globin chain |
|
|
Term
| What is the mutation notation of hemoglobin? and what type of mutation is it? |
|
Definition
a2B26 Glu-Val
POINT MUTATION ON THE BETA GENE ON AMINO ACID 6. GLUCINE IS CHANGED TO VALINE |
|
|
Term
| What is qualitative mutation? and what is an example of a disease caused by a qaulitative mutation? |
|
Definition
- mutation changing amino acid sequence
- alteratiom of 3D structure of a or B chains
- Sickle cell disease is a qualitative mutation of the hemoglobin
|
|
|
Term
| What is Quantitative mutation of hemoglobin? What disease is caused by quantitative mutation? |
|
Definition
mutations that reduce or eliminate production of one of the two globin polypeptide. THALASSEMIA |
|
|
Term
| What is the first human disease to be understood at the molecular level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the notation of sickle cell hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of hemoglobinopathy causes Sickle Cell? |
|
Definition
| Qualitative Hemoglobinopathy |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of Qualitative Hemoglobinopathy? |
|
Definition
- base substitution in both of the inherited Beta globin genes
- structural protein abnormality
- abnormal globinchain function
- Anemia reflects inability of hemoglobin variant to function normally
|
|
|
Term
| What is the mode of inheritance for sickle cell |
|
Definition
autosomal recessive
25% have the disease
50% are carriers
25% are not affected
[image] |
|
|
Term
| What are the disease states of Sickle Cell? |
|
Definition
- Homozygous: BsBs or a2B2s
Carrier States:heterozygous
|
|
|
Term
| Which hemoglobin is soluble and which is not? |
|
Definition
1. Healthy Hemoglobin is insoluble regardless of oxygen state
2. Homoglobin S or (HbS) is soluable when oxygenated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- rapid destruction of drepanocytes
- causes hemolytic anemia
- over-activity of bone marrow-->its trying to compensate for anemia
|
|
|
Term
| What does aggregation do? |
|
Definition
| causes local failures in blood supply |
|
|
Term
| What does accumulation of RBCs in the spleen cause? |
|
Definition
- Splenomegaly=huge spleen-->because the body is trying to rid of all the abnormal RBCs
|
|
|
Term
| What are clinical features of Sickle Cell? |
|
Definition
- age of onset: 4-9 months of birth
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- lack of bone marrow function
- associated with bacterial or viral infections
|
|
|
Term
| WHat are the effects of Hemolytic Anemia? |
|
Definition
- shortened RBC life span(healthy life span is 120 days)
- decrease in Hgb and Hct
|
|
|
Term
| What would global gene switching drugs do for someone with sickle cell? |
|
Definition
| They would reactivate the gamma globin gene of HbF |
|
|
Term
| What are possible cures for Sickle Cell? |
|
Definition
1. Bone marrow or stem cell transplant 2. Gene therapy |
|
|
Term
| What is the type of mutation in sickle cell? and what is the notation of the mutation? |
|
Definition
| Missense Mutation. Glutamic acid is changed to valine on the 6th chromosomes on the Beta Chain |
|
|
Term
| What are some diagnostics tests for Sickle Cell? |
|
Definition
1. Evidence of drepanocytes 2. Protein analysis 3. Turbity test/protein solubility 4.Gene detection |
|
|
Term
| Is Thalassemia a quantitative or qualitative test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you see in the blood smear in of a patient with Thalassemia? |
|
Definition
1. Poiki 2.microcytic 3.Hypochromic 4.little to no platelets |
|
|
Term
| What causes qualitative hemoglobinopathies? |
|
Definition
1. Partial or complete suppression of correct globin chains 2. Insufficient synthesis of globin chains formation of adequate levels of hemoglobin |
|
|
Term
| What is the mode of inheritance for thal? |
|
Definition
| autosomal recessive, incomplete dominance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| named according to the chain with the reduced or absent synthesis |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of Thal? and why were they named? |
|
Definition
Thalassemia A-->missing a globin chains Thalassemia B-->missing B globin chains |
|
|
Term
| What is the genetic defect in B thal? |
|
Definition
| unusally point mutations in regions that control B gene expression |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathophysiology in B Thalassemia? |
|
Definition
1. ineffective Erythropoiesis 2. excess a chains are represent in RBCs |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical features in B Thal Major? |
|
Definition
1. Hepatosplenomegaly 2. Hemosiderosis(Fe overload) |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for B thal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some treatments for someone with Thal major? |
|
Definition
1. Desferrioxamine/Desferal: assists with Fe chelation(assists with breaking down of Fe) 2.Cord blood tranplantation (rich source of blood stem cells) |
|
|
Term
| The degree of decreased production of the a chain depends on? |
|
Definition
1. specific mutation 2. number of genes affected 3. whether a2 or a1 gene is affected |
|
|
Term
| If your a Thal A patient would it be worse to have an affected a1 or a2 gene? and why? |
|
Definition
| an affected a2 gene will be worse becuase a2 produces about 75% of a chains in healthy RBCs |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of thal a? |
|
Definition
1. large deletions in the a globin gene(s) 2. excess of B chains and gamma chains form hemotetramers |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between Thal in fetus and adult? |
|
Definition
Fetus: gamma4 cahins also known as Barts Adult: B4 cahins-->HbH |
|
|
Term
| What is the notation for a healthy haplotype (with Thal) for a chain? and what is the healthy genotype? |
|
Definition
| haplotype:aa Geneotype: aa/aa |
|
|
Term
| What is the notation for a silent carrier with thal a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
silent carrier 1. deletion of one a gene but there are 3 functioning a genes 2. the person has normal a:B chain production 3. 0-2% hb Barts(gamma4) at birth |
|
|
Term
| What is the notation for heterozygous a Thal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of heterozygous a Thal? |
|
Definition
| -At birth, they have Hb Barts (2-10%) |
|
|
Term
| What is the notation foe Hemoglobin H Disease (HbH)? and what kind of treatment does it require? |
|
Definition
a--/-- requires chronic transfusions individual has only one gene production of alpha chains |
|
|
Term
| What are the hemoglobins present in a new borns and an adult who have Hemoglobin H disease? |
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Definition
At birth: Hb Barts is 10-40% Adults: HbH--->5-40% HbA2: reduced Hb Barts: trae |
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Term
| What is the notation for Hydrops Fetalis? |
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Definition
--/-- no alpha chains are produces Fetus only survives into third trimester |
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Term
| What are the hemoglobins present in Hydrops Fetalis? Which one is the predominant one? |
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Definition
Hb Barts: predominant 5-20% Hb Portland trace of HbH |
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Term
| What is the test used to ensure successful blood transfusion? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is the first example of polymorphism in humans? and why is it considered a polymorphism? |
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Definition
ABO blood group because there are 2 or more alleles for a given locus in a population |
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Term
| What are the gene products of ABH gene production? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are ABH antigens made of? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the requirements of ABO Red Cell antigen formation? |
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Definition
1. Precursor Substance 2(PS2) 2. Product of H gene (which produces the H antigen) 3. Product of ABO genes |
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Term
| WHat i Precurser Substance 2 (PS2) |
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Definition
| -series of 4 carbs which serves as a base structure of all ABH red cell antigens |
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Term
| What group does PS2 attach to on RBC surface? |
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Definition
| it attaches to the ceramide group |
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|
Term
| What are the terminal and subterminal sugars connected by on the PS2? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the H atigen so important? |
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Definition
| bc you cannot form A or B antigen without frist inheriting H antigen |
|
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Term
| What is the genetic locus for ABO antigen formation? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gene locus for H blood group antigen formation? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristics of H allele? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gene product the H allele? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is L-fucosyltransferase? |
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Definition
| an enzyme which transfers a fucos(sugar) to produce substance 2 to make an H anitgen |
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Term
| What happens when L-fucosyltransferase attaches to the PS2? |
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Definition
| When it attaches to PS2 the H antigen is created |
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Term
| What are the characteristics of h allele? |
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Definition
-its an amorph -produces no gene product -hh is referred to as Bombay phenotype |
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Term
| What are the gene products of ABO alleles? |
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Definition
-A allele: produces N-Acetylgalactosamine transferase -B allele: produces D-Galactosyltransferase -O allele: produces no active transferase |
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Term
| WHAT ARE THE IMMUNODOMINANT SUGARS FOR A AND B ANTIGENS? |
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Definition
-a antigen: N-acetygalactosamine -b antigen: D-Galactose when present, they are the terminal sugars on PS2 chain |
|
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Term
| What is the most frequent blood type and which is the least frequent? |
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Definition
Frequent: o least frequent: AB |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| A region of DNA, at a specific locus along a chromosome that is transcribed as a single unit for a discrete hereditary trait |
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Term
|
Definition
an alternate(variant) form of a gene there is the dominant and recessive form |
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Term
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Definition
| a linear structure in a cell nucelaus that carries hereditary info for a cell |
|
|
Term
| what is a diploid chromosome? |
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Definition
a chromosome that consists of two copies of every gene -2n=46 in humans
[image] |
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Term
| What is a haploid chromosome? |
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Definition
- consists of a single copy of every gene OR the number of different types of chromosomes in a diploid species
- n=23 in humans
[image] |
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|
Term
| What are the 4 types of chromosome named? |
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Definition
- autosomal chromosomes
- sex chromosomes
- homologous chromosomes
- non-homologous chromosomes
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Term
| What is an autosomal chromosome? and how many do humans have? |
|
Definition
- chromosomes that do not have sex detergine gene
- humans have 22 pairs (2n=44)
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Term
| What are sex chromosomes? an how many pairs do humans have? |
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Definition
- chromsomes which determine sex
- humans have 1 pair, X and Y
- 2n=2
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Term
| What are homologous chromsomes and which parent do we inherit them from? |
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Definition
- chromosome pairs of the same size, shape, centromere location, binding pattern, and gene sequence
- one is inherited from the mother and the other is inherited from the father
- [image]
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Term
| What are non-homologous chromosomes? and how do they behave during cell division? examples? |
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Definition
- chromosomes that are morphilogically and genetically distinct in humans
- during cell division, they behave as if they are homologous
- X and Y chromosomes
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|
|
Term
- What is the human genome?
- how many genes and bases make up the human genome?
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|
Definition
- complete set of human genetic information, stored as DNA sequences within the 23 chromosome pairs
- genes: 25-30 thousand ; bases:3.2 billion base pairs
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Term
| What is the largest human gene? what does it code for? |
|
Definition
- largest human gene is the DMD gene
- it codes for the protein Dsytrophin(when absent, it causes muscular dystrophy)
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|
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Term
| How many base pairs make up the DMD gene? What is Dystrophin? |
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Definition
- 2.5 million base pairs
- Dsytrophin is the protein that DMD codes for, it is used for muscular purposes
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|
|
Term
| Where is the DMD gene located on? |
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Definition
| located on the short arm(q) of the X chromosome |
|
|
Term
| What is chromatin? and what phase of the cell cycle do you see it in? |
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Definition
- uncoiled extended DNA, RNA, or protein
- you see it in interphase
- [image]
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of the two side-by-side replicas produced by chromosome division (1/2 of replicated chromosome)
[image] |
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Term
| What is the trinity of molecular genetics? |
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Definition
| the funational and structural relationship among DNA, RNA, and protein |
|
|
Term
| What are the three roles of Genetic information? |
|
Definition
- diretcs cellular function
- largely determines an organism's phenotype(physical appearance)
- link between generations in every species
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|
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Term
|
Definition
| structural units that constituate living organisms |
|
|
Term
| What determines function in Eukaryotic cells? |
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Definition
| STRUCTURE determines function in eukaryotic cells |
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Term
|
Definition
| undifferentiated cells which have not yet expressed signs of thier future (i.e cells of the fetus) |
|
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Term
| What are diffrentiated cells? and how many types are there? |
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Definition
| cells that all ready have a specific function, there are 260+ types |
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Term
| What are three examples of differentiated cells? |
|
Definition
- skin cells:keratin
- connective tissue: collagen
- pancreatic cells: insulin
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Term
| Do all cell types contain a human genome? |
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Definition
| no, RBC do not, but everything else does |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- partitioned ares of a cell which carry out specific functions such as sectrete substances, dismantle debris, ect
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|
Term
|
Definition
| a porous sac containing the priniciple genome of an organism (where DNA is located) |
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Term
| Where does replication and rRNA synthesis take place in a cell? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is the Endoplasmic Recticulum (ER) and what are the names of the two types? |
|
Definition
- it is a network of flattened membran bound sacs
- type: Rough ER and Smooth ER
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|
Term
| What occurs in the smooth and rough ER? |
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Definition
- smooth: fatty acids and phospolipids are formed
- rough: site of protein synthesis-->called rough because ribosomes are conneted to it and the Rough ER is also connected to the outter layer of the nucleus
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|
Term
| What are the vesicles of a cell? |
|
Definition
- "vehicles of a cell" that are pinched off from the ER
- they transport biochemicals to the golgi apparatus
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|
Term
| What is the function of the Golgi Apparatus ? |
|
Definition
- site of glycolipid and glycoprotein production and secretion
- packages and processes proteins and other molecules for secretiion
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|
Term
| What is the function of a lysesosome? |
|
Definition
- "Garbage truck of cells"
- involved in intracellualr digestion of waste products
- they use their digestive enzymes to lyse (cut off) unwanted material
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
| saclike organelles which are abundant on hepatic and renal cells-->they breakdown lipids, synthesize bile lacids, and detoxify compounds(in kidneys and liver) |
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Term
| What is the function of the Mitochondria? and What is special about it? |
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Definition
- "mighty m"
- function: site of oxidative respiration--> ATP is made here
- special because it contains it's own genome(mtDNA)
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|
Term
| What is the plasma(cell) membrane? and what is its function? |
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Definition
- it is a semi-permeable, phospholipd bi-layer membrane that completely surrounds the cell
- function: regulates what enters and leaves the cell
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Term
| What is the function of the Cytoskeleton of a cell? What is it made of? |
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Definition
- function: network of proteins filaments(actin and tubulin) which provide support within the cell
- made of of: microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments
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|
Term
| What is the meaning of Microfilaments? and what is its function? |
|
Definition
- micro: tiny : filaments:threads. -->tiny threads
- internal cellular support and intracellular transport
- [image]
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|
|
Term
| What are microtubules? and what is their function? |
|
Definition
- micro=tiny ; tubules=tubes
- they are parallel rows of hollow spheres
- function: makes mitotic fibers/spindles and centioles during mitosis
- they form cilia
- [image]
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|
|
Term
| What are intermediate filaments? |
|
Definition
| skin cells--lower epidermal layer |
|
|
Term
| What is muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
caused by a complete lack of the protein dystrophin (which is the product of the DMD gene) in plasmsa membrane of muscle cells
-more common in males |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- a disease that caused sodium to build up in the lungs
- caused by: Faculty Cl-/Na+ cahnnels in the plasma membrane (CFTR protein is trapped in cytoplasm)
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|
|
Term
| What is Sickle cell disease? |
|
Definition
| a disease that is caused by a single nucelotide substitution on both homologs of chrom 11 |
|
|
Term
| What is hereditary spherocytosis? |
|
Definition
| a disease that causes the collapse of RBC-->causes red blood cells to become solid spheres |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| cellular division that makes exact copies of cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of mitosis? |
|
Definition
- prophase
- metaphase
- anaphase
- telophase
- cytokenisis
- PMAT and C
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
- chromsomes are condensed and replicated from 46 to 92
- microtublues organize into mitotic spindle at either end of cell
- nuclear membrane breaks down
- [image]
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
- chromosomes align in the middle of the cell
- spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of chromosomes and holds them together
- [image]
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
- chromsomes pull apart and centromeres divide
- sister chromatids chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell and become daughter chromosomes
- [image]
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
- daughter chromosomes begin to uncoil-->chromatin
- nuclear membrane reforms
- membranes of two cells ar still connected
- [image]
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|
|
Term
|
Definition
- cytoplasmic division
- two new identical cells are formed, each having a complete set of chromosomes
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|
Term
| Is cytokenisis part of mitosis? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs at the "S phase" of the cell cycle? |
|
Definition
| DNA synthesis-->replication of chromosomes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- gap phases for growth, cytoplasm grows and when it is big enough, cell begins to divide
- made up of G1 and G2 phases
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|
|
Term
| What is G1 to G2 phase called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the non-division phase, or the decision phase where:
1. cell growth can occur
2. cell can remain specialized
3. cell can proceed to division |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-chromosomes are not visible, because they are uncoiled(chromatin)
-G1 phase, S phase (replication of chroms), G2 phase
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|
|
Term
| What does the replication of chromosomes occur? what does it produce? |
|
Definition
1. occurs before division
2. produces two sister chromatids joined by a centromere
3. haploid to diploid
[image] |
|
|
Term
| What is DNA? its function? |
|
Definition
1. DNA= Deoxyribonucleic Acid
2. Function: carrier of genetic information
3. Location: nucleus-->compacted into chroms
also located in Mitochondria-->mtDNA |
|
|
Term
| What is the Watson and Crick DNA molecule? |
|
Definition
- Right-Handed double helix
- has two strands that are antiparallel-->one strand running 5'-3' and the other running 3'-5'
- A-T and C-G base pairing (10 per turn)
- polymer
|
|
|
Term
| What is a ploymer? and what is an example of one? |
|
Definition
1. a large molecule that has repeating units (each called a nucleotide)
2. DNA is an example
|
|
|
Term
| What is a nucelotide made up of? |
|
Definition
one phosphate group, one sugar, and one nitrogenous base
[image]
|
|
|
Term
| What are purines? what are pyrimidines? |
|
Definition
purines(double ringed): A (adanine) and G (guanine)
Pyrimidines(single ringed): C (cytocine) and T (thymine)
Purines bind with pyrimidines |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DNA replication is? what type of replication is it? |
|
Definition
Highly regulated process by which base sequences of the parent molecule are copied
It is semi-conservative replication |
|
|
Term
| What is semi-conservative replication? |
|
Definition
| once copies are made, the original templates go back together |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic steps of DNA replication? |
|
Definition
- hydrogen bond holding bases together are broken
- two strands are seperated
- complementary free nucelotides pair with with bases on ssDNA
|
|
|
Term
| What are the enzymes used in DNA replication? |
|
Definition
- helicase
- binding proteins
- primase
- DNA ploymerase
- Ligase
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enzyme that unwinds parental double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds |
|
|
Term
| Binding proteins do what in DNA rep? |
|
Definition
| they stabilize separated strands by binding to ssDNA and preventing them from going back together |
|
|
Term
| Primase do what in DNA rep? |
|
Definition
| adds short primers to template strands (RNA primer) |
|
|
Term
| What does DNA ploymerase do in DNA rep? |
|
Definition
| enzymes that bind nucleotides to form new strands |
|
|
Term
| Ligase does what in DNA rep? |
|
Definition
| joins Okazaki Fragments and seals other nicks in sugar-phosphate backbone |
|
|
Term
| What occurs at the initiation state of DNA replication? |
|
Definition
DNA helicase uses ATP to unwind parental DNA double helix
[image] |
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