Term
| retinoid used for acne, psoriasis and disorders of keratinization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this acne drugs can cause CNS and CVS toxicity, retinoid dermatitis, and should not be used during pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this cephalosporin has excellent gram negative coverage including pseudomonas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of cefipime? |
|
Definition
| inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis |
|
|
Term
| this antibiotic causes hypersensitivity, K depletion, has cross reactivity with penicillins, but it's the broadest spectrum antibiotic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this 1st generation cephalosporin can be used for gram positives, and causes the same side affects as cefapime |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how can cephalexin be given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this anti-pt can be used to prevent primary or secondary arterial thrombosis by irreversibly blocking the ADP receptor on platelets |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 10% of this is metabolized into morphine, it is an analgesic and antitussive, and can cause respiratory depression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can dopamine be used to treat? |
|
Definition
| cardiogenic shock, heart failure, septic shock |
|
|
Term
| What needs to be corrected prior to dopamine administration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This tetracycline antibiotic inhibits the 30s subunit of ribosomes, preventing protein synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of doxycycline? |
|
Definition
| resp distress, discoloration of the teeth, inhibits bone growth in children and causes photosensitivity |
|
|
Term
| this antibiotic is bacteriostatic and should not be used in pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this drug is a substrate for reverse transcriptase that results in chain termination (NRTI), it causes bone marrow suppression, myopathy and myositis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this drug is a LMWH that prevents DVT and a fib related stroke |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this drug inhibits factor Xa and it's side effects are bleeding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this drug is an antifungal converted to 5-flourouracil in fungal cells which is the converted to FdUMP which inhibits thymidilate synthetase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does flucytosine stop fungal growth? |
|
Definition
inhibits thymidilate synthetase, which makes thymine which is required for DNA synthesis
|
|
|
Term
| this corticosteroid is used as an intranasal spray for allergic rhinitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this opioid causes myoclonus, allodynia and seizures, and is 6x as potent as morphine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the side effects of hydrocodone |
|
Definition
| myoclonus, allodynia and seizures |
|
|
Term
| this glucocorticoid is used for AI and has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticode activity, fludrocortisone can be added with it to increase min activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this drug may help prevent respiratory distress in premature infants born 24-36 weeks by kicking up their surfactant production |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this drug can be used for aldosterone insufficiency, but might cause Na and H20 retention causing HTN and hypokalemia... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what should be monitored when a patient is on fludrocortisone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this is an antibody against TNFalpha that can be used for IBD but might lead to infections... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should one use infliximab? |
|
Definition
| When 5-asa, 6-mp and corticosteriods have been unsuccessful, contraindicated if there's a bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
| this is a gnRH analog given for prostate cancer that should desensitize receptors over time... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Because of it's MOA, what initial side effects will be seen with leuprolide? |
|
Definition
| hot flashes, loss of libido, loss of muscle mass, flare of cancer symptoms |
|
|
Term
| this flouroquinolone antibiotic has gram positive, gram negative and pseudomonas coverage and can be used for streptococcus although moxifloxacin has better activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the moa of levofloxacin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antibiotic may be more affective against pneumonia caused by MRSA than vancomycin! It' inhibits DNA protein synthesis and is bacteriostatic and time dependent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this T3 analog is used for hypothyroidism/myxedema and can cause tachycardia, tremors, heat intolerance and arrhythmias |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is a protease inhibitor that can cause fat redistribution. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This is the primary treatment for IBD that inhibits inflammatory cytokines, it's a 5-ASA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antithyroid is inhibits coupling and iodination reactions, and may also have immunosuppressive effects. it's contraindicated in pregnancy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antifungal is used for dermatophyte infections and inhibits squalene oxidase, but can cause liver failure so liver fx should be tested first. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
- What is the method of action of neostigmine?
- What side effects are therefore present with neostigmine tx?
|
|
Definition
Inhibits acetylcholine esterase which leaves extra ACh
overstim of parasymp - salivation, resp distress, bradycardia |
|
|
Term
| What is nicotine used for clinically? |
|
Definition
| to help with smoking cessation (patches, spray, lozenges, gum, etc) |
|
|
Term
| what are the side effects of nicotine? |
|
Definition
| nausea, emesis, gi disturbance, resp failure |
|
|
Term
| These drugs act through L type calcium channels to inhibit influx of calcium after depolarization in cardiac and smooth muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the direct MOA of nefedipine and verapamil cause? |
|
Definition
| vasodilation, bradycardia (verapamil/diltiazem) or reflex tachycardia (nefedipine), and negative inotropic effects |
|
|
Term
| What can Ca channel blockers (nefedipine/verapamil/diltiazem) be used to treat? |
|
Definition
angina, htn, arrhythmias, raynauds, prophylaxis for migraines
|
|
|
Term
| what are the side effects of Ca channel blockers? |
|
Definition
| bradycardia, reflex tachycardia, hypotension, gi disturbances, heart failure |
|
|
Term
| Which Ca channel blockers are better for SVT and patients with a fib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this anti-IgE antibody prevents IgE from binding mast cells and basophils, and can therefore be used for severe asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this penicillinase resistant penicillin is used for MSSA gram postiive bacteria, to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis and is IV only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This opioid may be better tolerated than morphine by patients sensitive to sedation and mental status changes brought on by morphine, it's usually given with NSAIDs/acetiminophen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of oxycodone? |
|
Definition
| partial mu receptor agonist; may also have kappa receptor activity |
|
|
Term
| this drug is an anti-convulsant used for neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia, it's a Ca channel blocker in nerves, and can cause hypersens, rhabdomyolysis and suicide... ? |
|
Definition
| Pregabalin - i didn't swallow my tongue, just this bottle of pills |
|
|
Term
| This hypnotic is used for sedation, induction and maintenance of anesthesia, and causes less N and V than thiopental. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of propofol? |
|
Definition
| cv and respiratory depression |
|
|
Term
| This anorectic antiobesity drug is used for appetite suppression and smoking cessation, and is an inverse agonist for the cannabinoid receptor CB1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This anti-protease drug can cause GI disturbances, fat redistribution, hyperlipids, reduced bone mineral density and reduced transaminases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| FKBP-12 binder which inhibits calcineurin, which is required for IL-2 production, reducing t-cell production |
|
|
Term
| what is tacrolimus used for? |
|
Definition
| organ transplant rejection and RA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A NRTI which acts as a substrate for RT, causes BM suppression with resulting anemia, neutropenia, myopathy and myositis
|
|
|
Term
| this analgesic agent is contraindicated in pts with a history of seizures because it causes seizures, dizziness and nausea... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the method of action of tramadol? |
|
Definition
| synthetic codeine analog that binds mu receptors, inhibitng uptake of serotonin and NE - use for mild to mod pain |
|
|
Term
| What is trifluridine used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA and SE of trifluridine? |
|
Definition
| inh viral DNA synth, burning/stinging in eye, edema of eyelid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ganglionic inh that is positively charged and blocks the SNS and PSNS |
|
|
Term
| This anti-viral used for genital herpes and herpes zoster causes a burning sensation when applied topically, GI disturbances and kidney toxicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of valacyclovir? (sucks) |
|
Definition
| acyclo-GMP --> acyclo-GTP by thymidine kinase, inh DNA polymerase and incorporates into chain causing termination, viral rep is therefore blocked |
|
|
Term
| What can valacyclovir be used for? |
|
Definition
| genital herpes and herpes zoster |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| partial nicotinic (alpha4beta2) receptor antagonist that can be used for smoking cessation and has been linked with suicidal ideation and incr incidence of CVS |
|
|
Term
| What can vit D be used to tx? |
|
Definition
| hypocalcemia, osteoporosis and ricket's |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enhances Ca and P reab in kidneys and Ca abs in intestine |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of vit D? |
|
Definition
| hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypercalciuria |
|
|
Term
| This broad spectrum fungal binds ergosterol, creating pores in fungal membranes allowing electrolyte passage. It also causes nephrotox and therefore should be avoided with other drugs that do that. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this cephalosporin is used for both gram ppos and gram neg bacteria but not pseudomonas, same side effects as cefepime... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This flouroquinolone antibiotic is good for gram pos, gram neg and pseudomonas, and acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| this flouroquinolone antibiotic can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture (along w GI probs, headaches, dizziness) and should not be used in pregnancy... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the non-nucleoside RT inhibitor that we learned about? What are it's side effects? |
|
Definition
| effavirenz - which causes dizziness, insomnia, impaired consciousness, nightmares and rash |
|
|
Term
| This TNF inhibitor shouldn't be used unless you test for TB first, it's used for RA and psoriatic arthritis, and causes bone marrow suppression, rashes, and secondary infections... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| antifungal that inh ergosterol and cyt p450, causes hepatotoxicity, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, and can be teratogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This anti-fungal is converted to 5-flourouracil in fungal cells which is then converted to fdUMP, which inhibits thymidilate synthetase, thymidine is required for DNA synth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antiviral is used for CMV, and inhibits DNA pol, it causes granulocytopenia and thrombocytopenia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antifungal is used for superficial dermatophyte infections and binds to microtubules... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is griseofulvin inactive against? |
|
Definition
| candidiasis and systemic infections |
|
|
Term
| What two flouroquinolones did we learn about in this pharm course? |
|
Definition
| cipro and levo - both inh DNA gyrase and cover gram +/- and pseudomonas, remember that levo can be used for strep but moxi has better activity |
|
|
Term
This broad spectrum antifungal inhibits ergosterol synth and cyt p450
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antibiotic is used for UTIs only, by damaging bacterial DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antibiotics side effects include dark colored urine and pneumonitis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is nitrofurantoin contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
| patients with renal disease |
|
|
Term
| this antiviral is used for influenza a and b, but needs to be used within 2 days of symptoms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of oseltamivir? |
|
Definition
| neuraminidase inhibitor - prevents viral release from infected cell |
|
|
Term
| What is the method of action of sulfamethoxazole? |
|
Definition
inihibits bacterial dihydropterate synthetase during syynth of folic acid that is used for DNA synth
|
|
|
Term
| this antibiotic causes hypersensitivity, hemolysis in G6PD def, nephrotox, and photosensitivity... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This antibiotic inihibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase during folic acid synthesis... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What bacteria should you use trimethoprim for? |
|
Definition
| shigella, salmonella, UTI, proteus, pneumocystis... |
|
|
Term
What are the SE of trimethoprim?
what's it usually used in conjunction with? |
|
Definition
megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, and granulocytopenia
sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of vancomycin? |
|
Definition
inh bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding d-ala portion of cell wall precursors
|
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of vancomycin? |
|
Definition
nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, thrombophelbitis, and diffuse flushing
|
|
|
Term
| When can vancomycin be given orally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is atropine used for? |
|
Definition
| bradycardia, hyperhidrosis, organophosphate poisoning, opthalmic applications... |
|
|
Term
| What is bethanechol used for? |
|
Definition
| urinary retention and post-operative ileus |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of bethanocol? atropine? |
|
Definition
| bethanocol - stim muscarinic receptors increased PSNS activity, atropine - muscarinic antagonist decreasing PSNS activity |
|
|
Term
| What is bismuth subsalicylate used for? |
|
Definition
| GI compound that's used for dyspepsia, traveler's diarrhea prophylaxis, H pylori infection |
|
|
Term
| what side effect can bismuth subsalicylate have? |
|
Definition
| can cause very dark stools |
|
|
Term
| What does bismuth subsalicylate do? |
|
Definition
| coats ulcers and erosions, stimulates secretion of prostaglandin mucus and bicarbonate, reduced stool frequency... |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of calcium carbonate? |
|
Definition
| basic solutions - aluminum compounds constipate, magnesium compounds diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| this drug is a direct cholinergic agonist for glaucoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does echothiophate work? What are the side effects? |
|
Definition
| irreversible inh of ACH esterase, which leaves extra ACH, overstimulates PSNS |
|
|
Term
| When should you use 6-MP for IBD? |
|
Definition
| WHen 5-ASA and corticosteroids fail |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibits purine synthesis |
|
|
Term
| What is metronidazole used against? |
|
Definition
| giardia, entamoeba, trichomonas, garnerella, anaerobes, and h. pylori |
|
|
Term
| How does metronidazole work? |
|
Definition
| forms free radical metabolites that damage the dna in bacterial cells |
|
|
Term
| what are the SE of metronidazole? |
|
Definition
| disulfiram like rxn with alcohol, headache, metalic taste |
|
|
Term
| What indirect cholinergic agonist is used for postop ileus, urinary retention and MG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the moa of neostigmine? |
|
Definition
| reversible inhibition of ACH esterase |
|
|
Term
| Which indirect cholinergic agonist is irreversible? Whhic is reversible? |
|
Definition
| echothiophate, neostigmine |
|
|
Term
| Which PPI is used for peptic ulcers, gastritis, esophageal reflux and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of omeprazole? |
|
Definition
| irreversibly blocks H/K ATPase in parietal cells resulting in decr pH, |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| GI disturbances, reduced vit B12 levels, increased respiratory and enteric bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
| This histamine receptor 2 blocker is used for peptic ulcers, gastritis, and esophageal reflux... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is ranitidine reversible or irreversible? |
|
Definition
| reversibly blocks histamine H2 receptors --> decr secretion from parietal cells |
|
|
Term
| What drug is preferred in children with fevers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug is used to treat acute acetaminophen toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the moa of aspirin? |
|
Definition
| non-selective irreversible cox inh |
|
|
Term
| How long does aspirin last in the body? |
|
Definition
| 8-10 days in platelets, 6-12 hours in cells that produce cox |
|
|
Term
| this andidepressant is used for depression and nicotine therapy, it blocks the reuptake of dopamine and NE and may promote their release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This anti-epileptic is used for trigeminal neuralgia... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of carbamazepine? |
|
Definition
| inhibition of voltage gated Na channels, reduced high freq activity while leaving low freq |
|
|
Term
| What drug has a black box warning for toxic epidermal necrosis and aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This opioid has a rapid onset and short duraiton which makes it popular with anesthesiologists... 100x as potent as morphine... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| who is ibuprofen use contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
| pts using aspirin for cardioprotective effects, it antagonizes the anti-pt effect of aspirin |
|
|
Term
| What dissociative used for anesthesia can be used in children and young adults, or in high risk patients with shock and poor risk geriatric pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a SE of ketamine that might affect its' use (not the obvious ones)? |
|
Definition
| CV stimulation due to indirect symp stim |
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of lidocaine |
|
Definition
| inh Na channels in nerves to depress APs |
|
|
Term
| What is the onset and duration of lidocaine? |
|
Definition
| rapid onset and immediate duration of action |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of morphine? |
|
Definition
| mu opioid receptor activation decr cAMP synth, leads to inh of voltage gated Ca channels in presynaptic neuron, and activated K channels in post-syn neuron, leading to hyperpolarization |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of morphine? |
|
Definition
| respiratory depression, physical dependance and constipation |
|
|
Term
| What else is part of the method of action of morphine? |
|
Definition
| glutamate release is inhibited from afferent neurons in the dorsal horn |
|
|
Term
| what is the moa of nicotine? |
|
Definition
| transiently releases dopamine, if using it to get people off of nicotine, reduce dose over time |
|
|
Term
| What is special about nitric oxide? |
|
Definition
| low potency (MAC >100%) and low solubility in blood makes it very fast onset and DOA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| hematotox: can inh B12 dep enzymes and cause megaloblastic anemia or neuropathy, mild euphoria |
|
|
Term
| What things does NO NOT affect? |
|
Definition
| BP/myocardial function, minute ventilation, cerebral blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of pregabalin? |
|
Definition
thrombocytopenia, hypersensitivity, angioedema, rhabdomyolysis and suicidality
|
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of propofol? |
|
Definition
| dose dependent cardiovascular and respiratory depression |
|
|
Term
What is succinylcholine used for?
MOA? |
|
Definition
muscle relaxant used for ET intubation
inhibits action of ACH at NM junction |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
| malignant hyperthermia, hyperkalemia, and anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
| What is succinylcholine ideal for? |
|
Definition
| fastest and shortest acting muscle relaxer - ideal for trauma care |
|
|
Term
What kind of drug is thiopental and what's it used for?
what's it cause? |
|
Definition
barbituate - general anesthesia, rapid induction and short procedures with little pain, good amnesia and anxyolysis but poor analgesia and inadequate muscle relexation
Cv/resp depression |
|
|
Term
| What is your go to SABA in asthma tx? |
|
Definition
| albuterol, can also be used in COPD |
|
|
Term
| Which specific receptors does albuterol act on? |
|
Definition
| beta 2 receptors (agonizes) |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of albuterol? |
|
Definition
| tremor, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesmia, increased HR, cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
What is diphenhydramine used for?
what's it do? |
|
Definition
type I hypersensitivity and insomnia
blocks histamine type I receptors |
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of diphenhydramine? |
|
Definition
| sedation and anti-cholinergic effects |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| antihistamine used for type 1 hypersensitivity, blocks histamine type 1 receptors, less sedative, GI disturbances |
|
|
Term
| What is furosemide used for? |
|
Definition
| diuresis, heart failure, acute pulmonary edema, nephritic syndrome, htn, hyperca |
|
|
Term
| What does furosemide act on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What side effect of furosemide is a direct result of it's MOA? |
|
Definition
| hypokalemia - increased Na load delivered to dist conv tubule and collecting ducts, hypomagnesmia and alkalosis come along with |
|
|
Term
| What is hydrochlorothiazide used for? |
|
Definition
| thiazide diuretic used for diuresis, hf, htn, diabetes insipidus, nephrolithiasis and osteoporosis |
|
|
Term
| What channel does hydrochlorothiazide inhibit? |
|
Definition
| Na-Cl symporter in the DCT |
|
|
Term
| What does hydrochlorothiazide use result in? |
|
Definition
enhanced ca reabsorption, in both prox tubule and DCT
|
|
|
Term
| What short acting muscarinic is used for both asthma and copd? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of ipratropium bromide? |
|
Definition
| bronchodilation by competitively blocking M3 receptors |
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of ipratropium bromide? |
|
Definition
| hypersensitivity and anti-cholinergic symptoms |
|
|
Term
| What osmotic diuretic is used for intracranial hematoma, cerebral edema, glaucoma and anuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| locally inh water reab in thin limb of loop of henle by increasing tubule osmolarity, opposes ADH action in collecting duct |
|
|
Term
| What SE can mannitol cause? |
|
Definition
| worsen heart failure, pulmonary edema, headache, nausea, vomiting, dehydration, hyperk, hyperna |
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications for mannitol use? |
|
Definition
| pulmonary edema, poor cardiac reserve, active cranial bleeding, severe dehydration |
|
|
Term
| Omalizumab is an antibody to ___ that can be used for severe asthma... |
|
Definition
| IgE - prevents binding to mast cells and basophils |
|
|
Term
| What is your go to LABA in asthma and COPD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptors does salmeterol act on? |
|
Definition
| Beta 2 adrenergics (agonist) |
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of salmeterol... |
|
Definition
| tremor, hyperglyc, hypoK, hypomg, increased HR, cardiac arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| K sparing diuretic used for edema, htn, primary hyperaldosteronism, secondary hyperaldosteronism |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of spironolactone? |
|
Definition
| antagonist to aldosterone in late distal tubule and collecting duct, prevents Na reabsorption, thus reducing K excretion, prevents activation of proton pump to decrease H secretion |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of spironolactone? |
|
Definition
| hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What bisphosphonate is used for osteoporosis, paget's, and hyperca of malignancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of alendronate? |
|
Definition
| incorporated into bone and slowly released to inhibit osteoclasts... |
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of alendronate? |
|
Definition
| GI disturbances, atypical femur fractures, nephrotox |
|
|
Term
| Who is alendronate contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
| patients with impaired renal function, esophageal motility dxn, and PUD |
|
|
Term
| What hormone is used for hyperca, paget's disease of the bone, and postmenopausal osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decreases blood Ca and P, by inhibiting bone reabsorption and kidney reab |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of calcitonin use? |
|
Definition
| hypersens, flusing, nausea, gi disturbances |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be used to treat failure of ovarian development, menopause and for contraception? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does estrogen stimulate? |
|
Definition
| proliferation of the endometrium during the follicular phase |
|
|
Term
| What lipid will estrogens increase when they are orally admin? |
|
Definition
| triglycerides (they'll incr HDL and decr LDL) |
|
|
Term
| How do estrogens maintain bone mass? |
|
Definition
| they inhibit osteoclasts. |
|
|
Term
| What do estrogens do to the blood? |
|
Definition
| enhance coag - more thrombosis |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of estrogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are estrogens definitely contraindicated? |
|
Definition
| breast cancer or estrogen dependent neoplasms, undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding, preg, hepatic dxn, or hx of thromboembolic disorders |
|
|
Term
| What ACTH analog is used for AI testing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should increase as cosyntrophin's conc increases in the plasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the short acting insulin? intermediate? long? |
|
Definition
| short - lispro and aspart, intermediate - NPH, long - glargine |
|
|
Term
| Levothyroxine is a ___ analog, while liothyronine is a ___ analog |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Methimazole inhibits iodination and coupling reactions to oppose the thyroid, what are it's SE? |
|
Definition
| agranulocytosis, jaundice, vasculitis, lupus-like rxn, hypoprothrombinemia, and rash |
|
|
Term
| When is methimazole contraindicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What somatostatin analog is used for gigantism/acromegaly? |
|
Definition
| octreotide (also used for hepatorenal syndrome?) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the SE of octreotide? |
|
Definition
| GI disturbances, chol gallstones |
|
|
Term
| What is prednisone used for? |
|
Definition
| addison's, inflammation, immune suppression, and asthma |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of prednisone? |
|
Definition
| decr production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins by inhibiting phospholipase A2 and expression of COX-2 |
|
|
Term
| What should always be done when ending a glucocorticoid regimine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of prednisone? |
|
Definition
| cushing's, adrenal suppression, osteoporosis, infections, glucose intolerance, myopathy, fluid and electrolyte disturbances |
|
|
Term
| What is used to prevent thrombosis in angioplasty and acute coronary syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of abciximab?
SE? |
|
Definition
blocks GPIIa/IIIb, thus preventing platelet aggregation
bleeding and thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
| this drug is an ACE inhibitor.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of captopril? |
|
Definition
| inh conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, compensatory rise in renin activity due to loss of feedback inhibition, alosterone levels - excretion of Na/retention of potassium |
|
|
Term
| What is one of the most commonly known SE of captopril? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the contraindications for captopril? |
|
Definition
pregnancy and bilateral artery stenosis
|
|
|
Term
| What are the "precautions" for captopril? |
|
Definition
| hypotension, hyperkalemia, renal function management, NSAIDS interaction |
|
|
Term
| What drug is an alpha and beta receptor antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is carvedilol used to treat? |
|
Definition
hypertension, ischemic heart diseases, chronic heart failure
|
|
|
Term
| what is the MOA of carvedilol? |
|
Definition
| lower BP by decr renin, vascular relaxation and decreased CO, blocks positive chronotropic and inotropic effects, also less reflex tach |
|
|
Term
| What is the standard of care for chronic heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bile acid sequestrant can be used for hypercholesterolemia, digitalis tox, and pregnant women with hyperlipidemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug increases bile acid secretion by enhancing conversion of chol to bile acids via 7 alpha-hydroxylation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of cholestyramine? |
|
Definition
| constipation, bloating, VLDL increase and drug interactions |
|
|
Term
| What cardiac glycoside is used to treat heart failure in A fib and symptomatic sinus rhythm despite therapy wtih ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does digoxin have positive or negative inotropic effects? |
|
Definition
| positive, inhibits Na-K exchange, alters Na/Ca exchange, and increases intracellular Ca |
|
|
Term
| What does digoxin do at low doses? |
|
Definition
| decreases HR and conduction velocity |
|
|
Term
| Why does diuresis occur with digoxin therapy? |
|
Definition
| decrease in renin secretion, and icnrease in perfusion due to incr SNS tone |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of digoxin? |
|
Definition
| bradycardia, tachycardia, AV block, GI effects, confusion, adn hallucinations |
|
|
Term
| What is important to remember about digoxin? |
|
Definition
| it has a narrow therapeutic safety window, and diuretics/ca blockers/beta blockers all cause drug interactions |
|
|
Term
| What is losartan used for? |
|
Definition
| htn, heart failure and diabetic retinopathy |
|
|
Term
| What is losartan used for? |
|
Definition
| hypertension, heart failure, diabetic neuropathy |
|
|
Term
| what are the side effects of losartan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of losartan? |
|
Definition
| angiotensin II receptor blocker, orally active |
|
|
Term
| Which selective beta 1 receptor antagonist can be used for htn, ischemic heart disease, cardiac arrhythmias, and chronic HF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of metoprolol? |
|
Definition
| blocks beta 1 receptors which leads to lower bp by inh renin and decr CO |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of metoprolol? |
|
Definition
| parasymp - brad, bronchospasm, hypoglycemia, mask tach, GI disturbances, depression, insomnia, sudden death from abrupt discontinuation |
|
|
Term
| What is a contraindication for metoprolol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which arterial vasodilator is used for severe hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the MOA of minoxidil result in? |
|
Definition
| arterial vasodilation that decreases afterload/bp, but then a reflex increase in symp activity and increase in renin |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of minoxidil... |
|
Definition
| excessive vasodilation, fluid retention, pericardial effusion and tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the metabolite that minoxidil is converted to in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the method of action of Ca channel blockers? |
|
Definition
| bind voltage gated L type Ca channels - inh ca influx after depolarization of cardiac and smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
| Which calcium channels blocker might cause a reflex increase in heart rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which calcium channel blockers are good for reducing the rate of SVTs and vent tach/fib in patients with a fib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are contraindications for nefedipine and verapamil? |
|
Definition
| hypotension, severe LV dxn, overt CF, SA or SV conduction defects and aortic stenosis |
|
|
Term
| Nitroglycerin's MOA is.... |
|
Definition
| converted to nitrous oxide which stim's cGMP production in the body, which results in vascular smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation --> decreases preload |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of nitroglycerin? |
|
Definition
| headache, flushing, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, reflex tach, paradoxical brad, tolerance |
|
|
Term
| What does NO do to the heart that's so important? |
|
Definition
| decreases oxygen demand (and increases delivery) |
|
|
Term
| what patients is nitroglycerin contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
| hypotension and elevated ICP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| selective alpha 1 agonist |
|
|
Term
| What is prazosin used for? |
|
Definition
| pheochromocytoma, chronic htn |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of prazosin? |
|
Definition
| competitively and reversible blocks alpha 1 --> vascular smooth muscle relaxation, can also decr SNS outflow and baroreceptor reflex |
|
|
Term
| Which drug has first dose syncope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the other side effects of prazosin? |
|
Definition
| less reflex tach, postural hypotension, nasal stuffiness, dizziness, incontinence, impotence of ejaculation, priapism, miosis, salt and water retention |
|
|
Term
| What effects does prazosin have on lipids? |
|
Definition
| decreases LDL and trig's while increasing HDL |
|
|
Term
| What drug is a non-selective beta adrenergic antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is propranolol used for? |
|
Definition
| htn, ischemic heart disease, cardiac arrythmias, chronic heart failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of propranolol/ |
|
Definition
| beta 1 and beta 2 receptors leading to lower BP through inh renin and decr CO |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of propranolol? |
|
Definition
| bradycardia, bronchospasm, hypoglycemia, mask tachycardia, increase triglycerides, decrease HDL |
|
|
Term
| What are contraindications for propranolol? |
|
Definition
| asthma and av conduction defects |
|
|
Term
| What does propranolol ultimately do? |
|
Definition
| decrease O2 requirement of the heart, making beta blockers useful in the tx of angina |
|
|
Term
| What HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are used for hypercholesterolemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors? |
|
Definition
| myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatic tox |
|
|
Term
| What is important about simvastatin? |
|
Definition
| standard of care immediately after a coronary event, take at night for best use |
|
|
Term
| Who is simvastatin contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
| contraindicated in pregnant/lactating women, severe illness, trauma, surgery, and liver disease |
|
|
Term
| What is warfarin used for? |
|
Definition
| anticoagulant for preventing DVT and thrombosis assoc with Afib and artificial valves |
|
|
Term
| What is the method of action of warfarin? |
|
Definition
| inhibits synthesis of coagulation factors |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of warfarin? |
|
Definition
| bleeding, birth defects, and cutaneous necrosis |
|
|
Term
| what kind of drug is indanavir and what negative side effect is associated? |
|
Definition
| protease inhibitor - kidney stones |
|
|
Term
| what should prophylaxis be started for in an HIV pt with CD4 < 200? |
|
Definition
| pneumocystic jerovichi pneumonia - use bactrim |
|
|
Term
| what is associated with acetaminophen overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does doxorubicin do that causes it's adverse side effect? |
|
Definition
| causes generation of free radicals leading to dilated cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
| What drug used for influenza treatment inhibits viral uncoating and can shorten the duration of infection by influenza virus? |
|
Definition
| rimantadine - metabolized by liver and therefore contraindicated in liver failure |
|
|
Term
| What is the equation for clearance using half life and volume of distribution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the method of action of lovastatin? |
|
Definition
| HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, upregulates LDL receptor expression to pick up more cholesterol from the periphery |
|
|
Term
| What is the definitive tx for organophosphate poisoning? |
|
Definition
| atropine followed by pralidoxine (which will destroy bond btw organophosphate and Ache) |
|
|
Term
| What is the first line choice for a child with bedwetting who's failed restriction of fluids/enuresis alarms? |
|
Definition
| desmopressin, which will increase urine osm |
|
|
Term
| What is amitriptyline used for and what are the side effects? |
|
Definition
| neuropathic pain - antimuscaric effects leading to urinary retention and tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects seen with loop diuretic treatment? |
|
Definition
| hypokalemia, hyperuricemia, hypercalciuria, and hearing loss |
|
|
Term
| What is the anti-fungal drug of choice for rose-grower's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic drug is associated with ototox? |
|
Definition
| gentamicin - inhibits prot synth by binding 30s |
|
|
Term
| A pt comes in with 3 yr hx of depression and is followed by psych - treatment is initiated as symptoms progress to Gi distress and anorgasmia, what drug is she put on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first sign of magnesium tox? |
|
Definition
| decreased deep tendon reflexes |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of isoniazid? |
|
Definition
| drug induced lupus and peripheral neuropathy |
|
|
Term
| What TB drug can cause orange colored tears and urine? |
|
Definition
| Rifampin - harmless and reversible |
|
|
Term
| What side effects can ethambutol cause? |
|
Definition
| loss of visual acuity and red/green color blindness |
|
|
Term
| A woman put on a new drug for her RA due to joint ersions experiences tinnitus, blurred vision and pigmented retinal deposits, what is she on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA of succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
| binds acetylcholine receptors (agonist) causing faciculations first then flaccid paralysis |
|
|
Term
| A patients comes in with high cholesterol and myoglobinuria, along with muscle cramps. What drug could they be on that could cause this? |
|
Definition
| Lovastatin- HMG CoA reductase inhibitor that causes rhabdomyolysis/myositis |
|
|
Term
| If a woman with osteoporosis has smoked a pack of cigarettes a day and has had a DVT in the past what can you treat her with as an alternative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug will decreased VLDL release from the liver into the circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What long term anti-bronchospasm drug used for COPD can cause dry mouth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs used to iradicate bacteria in peptic ulcer disease can cause photosensitivity? |
|
Definition
| Doxycycline (tetracycline antibiotics in general) |
|
|
Term
Which drug stabilizes microtubules resulting in failure of mitosis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a patient with liver or kidney disease, how should you change loading dose and maintenance dose of a drug? |
|
Definition
| decrease maintenance dose, keep loading the same, clearance will be decreased |
|
|
Term
| What cholinomimetic drug is used for glaucoma and pupillary contraction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the fibular head prefers to move posteriorly, what happens to the remaining involved structures (distal fibula, foot)? |
|
Definition
| distal fibula prefers ant movement, foot moves into plantarflexion and inversion |
|
|
Term
| What osteopathic techniques are used when there is an acute injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of sacral torsion will present with a positive seated flexion test on the left? (and flexed, sidebent r, rotated r L5)? |
|
Definition
| left on right oblique axis sacral torsion |
|
|
Term
| What spinal leves recieve information from the lung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of muscle movement is there in a bicep curl? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When damaged, what lobe of the brain can result in problems with comprehension while the patient retains fluent speech? |
|
Definition
| Temporal lobe - Wernicke's area |
|
|
Term
| Damage to what area results in impaired speech but intact comprehension? |
|
Definition
| Broca's area in the frontal lobe |
|
|
Term
| MS presents with damage to what on a cellular level? |
|
Definition
| oligodendrocytes in the CNS |
|
|
Term
| What syndrome involves increased susceptibility to staph and strep species specifically? |
|
Definition
| Chediak-Higashi syndrome - involves problems with microtubule formation |
|
|
Term
| A patient shows up with cafe-au-lait spots and lisch nodules, along with scoliosis and hemartomas... what does she have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient shows up with a history of peptic ulcer disease, discharge from the nipples, blurry vision and amenorrhea, what does she probably have? |
|
Definition
| MEN 1 - pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid |
|
|
Term
| Where are the genes associated with MEN1 located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What symptoms can be seen w men 2A? |
|
Definition
| pheochromocytoma (hypertensive episodes), parathyroid adenomas (increased PTH and calcium) and thyroid medullary carcinoma (increased calcitonin and hypoca) |
|
|
Term
| What is PCOS also called? |
|
Definition
| Stein Leventhal syndrome - increased level of LH from ant pit leads to incr androgens from theca cells |
|
|
Term
| A mother that is having problems with lactation and other pituitary signs is presenting with ___________ syndrome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the lack of prolactin in Sheehan's? |
|
Definition
| damage to the pituitary gland, therefore bromocriptine would be contraindicated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| GH analog used for GH def or cachexia |
|
|
Term
| What drug can be used for a patient with carcinoid syndrome? |
|
Definition
| octreotide (somatostatin analog) |
|
|
Term
| What can a patient with carcinoid syndrome end up with a deficiency of? |
|
Definition
| Niacin - leading to pellegra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis, death) |
|
|
Term
| PCOS increase one's risk of having... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A high calcitonin level is associated with this cancer... |
|
Definition
| medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is proliferation of parafollicular c-cells |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a benzo overdose? (anti-anxiety pills) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anti-dote should you give a man who has overdosed on his blood pressure pills (beta blockers)? |
|
Definition
| glucagon will increase cAMP |
|
|
Term
| what drugs should be used for methanol overdose? altered mental status, hyperventilation and visual disturbance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A man comes in with nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and visual disturbances, and he has an AV block, what's he overdosed on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effects will be seen if a patient overdoses on anti-depressants? |
|
Definition
| sympathetic effects - dry mouth, tach, and big pupils, cardiotox is the most dangerous with a wide QRS being characteristic |
|
|
Term
| What should you give a patient that overdosed on their tricyclic antidepressants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An overdose of what will result in the patient seeing "falling spots in front of them" along with metabolic acidosis, slurred speech and ataxia? What should you treat them with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of pneumocytes produce surfactant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What rare and serious complication can happen if a patient if measles is left untreated? |
|
Definition
| subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (mental changes years later) |
|
|
Term
What is the problem seen in hemophilia A?
|
|
Definition
| deficiency of factor VIII which is involved in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which results in an INCREASED PTT |
|
|
