Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A weak acid is better absorbed in the stomach... why? |
|
Definition
| the pH is low and in an unionized (NUUL) state |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| moa: inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme which inhibits the RAAS system and reduces preload and afterload |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Animal Medical Drug USe Clarification Act: permits vets to use drugs off label |
|
|
Term
| Acetominophen: MOA, pharm. activity, elimination, who do you not use it in? |
|
Definition
MOA: weakly inhibits COX
activity: anti-pyretic and analgesia
elim: glutathione
DO NOT USE IN CATS |
|
|
Term
| Action of histamine at the H2 receptor: |
|
Definition
1. increased gastric secretion of HCl and pepsinogen
2. increased secretion from other glands (pancreatic, bronchial, lacrimal) |
|
|
Term
| Actions of H1 antagonists |
|
Definition
1. relax contracted bronchiolar smooth muscle and intestinal sm. m.
2. inhibit histamine induced vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
3. inhibit pruritis and pain sensation
4. prevent motion sickness |
|
|
Term
| Actions of histamine when bound to an H1 receptor: |
|
Definition
1. contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle and intestinal sm. m.
2. increased capillary permeability
3. priritis |
|
|
Term
| Additive effect of agonists |
|
Definition
| A and B given result in A+B |
|
|
Term
| Antiplatlet NSAID: name, MOA, clinical indications |
|
Definition
Aspirin
MOA: IRREVERSIBLE inhibition of platlet COX 1 and activates platelet adhesion
Use: prevention and treatment of arterial thromboembolism, DIC, and other hypercoaguable states |
|
|
Term
| Are drug metabolites or parent drugs more polar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are the metabolites of phase I biotrans. active or inactive? |
|
Definition
| either active or inactive |
|
|
Term
| Are the metabolites of phase II biotrans. active or inactive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carprofen: MOA, Activity, other imp. info? |
|
Definition
MOA: PREFERENTIAL inhibition of COX 2
Act: anti-inflam, analgesic, anti-pyretic
Other: ijectable formula for perioperative use |
|
|
Term
Chlorothiazide or Hydrochlorothiazide
-moa
-excretion
-therapeutic indications |
|
Definition
moa: inhibits the Na+Cl cotransport in the DISTAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE adn partially blocks carbonic anhydrase
-excretion: active tubular transport
-use: edema (cardiogenic and renal edema), moderate diuresis,nephrogenic diabetes incipidus, udder edema |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| MOA: inhibit PLA2 which inhibits COX and LOX |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| moa: inhibits the release of histamine and other autocoids |
|
|
Term
Cyclosporin
-use
-moa
-side effects |
|
Definition
Use: topically for keratoconjunctivitis sicca; systemically for autoimmune dz and in renal transplant recipients
moa: decreases CELL-MEDIATED immune response
Side effects: secondary infec, Gi upset, renal and hepatotoxicity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MOA: SELECTIVE inhibition of COX 2
activity: approved for use in dogs for osteoarthritis and post-op pain |
|
|
Term
| Dimethyl sulfoxide: MOA, approved uses |
|
Definition
MOA: scavenges free radicals, stabilizes membranes, blocks pain conduction, blocks hyaluronic acid polymerization, inhibits fibroblast proliferation
Approved uses: topical application to reduce swelling, canine acute and chronic otitis, anal sac impaction |
|
|
Term
Direct Cholinergic Agonists:
-Bethanechol
-Pilocarpine
Know their MOA and use |
|
Definition
Bethanechol
-moa:acts like Ach
-use:stimulates bladder contractions > increases urination
Pilocarpine:
-moa:direct muscarinic and nicotinic actions
-use: to treat glaucoma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Direct sympathomimetics
Know drugs and uses |
|
Definition
Phenylephrine: used for hypotension, topical decongestant, mydratic agent, NEPHROSPLENIC ENTRAPMENT
Dobutamine: used for heart failure
Clonidine, xylazine, dexmedetomadine: preanesthetic sedative/analgesic
Terbultaline and clenbuterol: bronchospasm, RAO, tocolysis(uterine contraction), dx ANHIDROSIS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
COX 1
-constituitive
-cytoprotective
-involved in the reduction of gastric acid secretion and maintence of adequate renal blood flow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
COX 2:
-inducible
-pro-inflammatory
-involved in the pathological effects asociated with osteoarthritis |
|
|
Term
| Discuss ionization of acid drugs. |
|
Definition
| Acid drugs are stuck in a BASIC environment; they will not dissociate in an acid env. due to the high [H+]; HA will move to a basic env. (plasma) and then dissociate and cause more HA to move to try to equilibrate the env. |
|
|
Term
| Discuss ionization of basic drugs. |
|
Definition
| Basic drugs are trapped in an ACIDIC env; basic drugs will remain dissociated in the stomach because BH cannot move |
|
|
Term
| Discuss mammary secretion of drugs. |
|
Definition
| Milk is slightly acid; *bases achieve higher milk:plasma ratios than acids as a general rule* this may result in drug residue in milk |
|
|
Term
| Discuss passive intestinal secretion. |
|
Definition
Passive intestinal secretion:
Primarily responsible for excretion of HIGHLY LIPID SOLUBLE drugs (NUUL) that are not extensively metabolized |
|
|
Term
| Discuss saliva and sweat excretion of drugs. |
|
Definition
| Only really significant in ruminants since they produce a lot of saliva |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the absorption, ability to bind plasma binding proteins, and elimination of NSAIDS. |
|
Definition
Absorption: most NSAIDs are organic acids and mainly unionized (NUUL) at gastric pH, so they are well absorbed and considered to have high bioavailabity
Plasma binding proteins:
-most NSAIDs are highly ptn bound
Elimination:
-conjugation usually via glucuronidation |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the various deficiencies animals have with Phase II biotrans. rxns. |
|
Definition
Cats: gluronidation
Dogs: acetylation
Pigs: sulfation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pathways by which drugs travel throughout the body; Encompasses: dissolution, absorption, distribution, and elimination(biotransformation and excretion) |
|
|
Term
| Disuss enterohepatic recirculation. |
|
Definition
| Drugs are excreted into bile as CONJUGATED drugs > the drug then enters teh SI then LI > the conjugates are then cleaved by bacteria in the colon which frees the drug for reabsorption > the drug returns to the liver via the portal vein or another form of systemic circulation |
|
|
Term
| Does phase I biotrans. require an energy source? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does phase II biotrans. require an energy source? |
|
Definition
| yes, an active donor is required |
|
|
Term
| Drugs that lower seizure threshold, which potentiates seizures |
|
Definition
| Enrofloxacin, Theophyline, Procaine, Pheothiazine |
|
|
Term
| Drugs that undergo enterohepatic circulation are reabsorbed ______; gain entry into the bile duct by _______ transport; and are often _____ prior to excretion in bile. |
|
Definition
| intestine; bile duct; glucuronidated |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dose of a drug necessary to produce 1/2 Emax |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inversely proportional to potency when comparing 2 drugs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MOA: COX 1 sparing, PREFERENTIALLY COX 2
Activity: approved for dogs for osteoarthritis |
|
|
Term
| Examoles of Schedule II drugs? |
|
Definition
Narcotics: opiod derivatives, Morphine
Non-narcotics: Pentobarbitol |
|
|
Term
| Examples and uses for SSRIs. |
|
Definition
| Fluoxetine (Prozac):OCD- lick granuloma, separation anxiety, aggression |
|
|
Term
| Examples of Schedule I drugs? |
|
Definition
| opiates, hallucinogens, depressants, stimulants, etc |
|
|
Term
| Examples of Schedule III drugs? |
|
Definition
Class II drug + Class III drugs
Non-narcotics: ketamine
Anabolic steroids |
|
|
Term
| Examples of Schedule IV drugs? |
|
Definition
depressants: phenobarbitol, diazepam
Butorphanol |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the process by which a drug or metabolyte is eliminated form the body; this is primarily the kidney |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MOA: SELECTIVE COX 2 inhibitor
activity: approved for dogs with osteroarthritis and post-op pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They do NOT allow large or polar molecules thru |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ganglionic blocking agents
know drugs and moa |
|
Definition
Hexamehtonium
-moa: competitive blocker of nicotinic rc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They are highly ptn bound to albumin or transcortiin > they active/free drug acts on membrane receptors or diffuses freely into the cell > it binds to cytosolic receptors and enters the nucleus > it produces mRNA > undergoes ptn synthesis to produce lipcortin > lipocortin inhibits PLA2 |
|
|
Term
| Glucocorticoids: activity |
|
Definition
-inhibit action of PLA2
-inhibit chemotaxis
-stabilize lysosomal membrane and leukocyte membranes
-increases capillary selective permeability
-inhibits fibroblast activity (imp in wound healing)
-suppresses T lymphocytes, macrophage activity, and IgG production > immune suppressive
-positive ionotropic and chronotropic effects |
|
|
Term
| Glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate: MOA |
|
Definition
| MOA: inhibits degredative enzyme and stimulates chrondrocytes and synoviocyte metabolism |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an endogenous biogenic peptide that is a mediator of cell injury; it plays a role in inflam, allergies, and anaphylaxis; it also regulates gastric secretions |
|
|
Term
| How are drugs excreted from the body? |
|
Definition
| urine, bile, feces, breath, milk, sweat, tears, etc |
|
|
Term
| How are most lipophylic drugs excreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are most polar drugs excreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do indirect sympathomimetic work? moa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does anaphylaxis differ in dogs vs humans vs horses? |
|
Definition
Dogs: pale mucus membranes bc the blood pools to the gut and bp decreaess and causes tachycardia
horses and humans: bronchoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| How does competition for plasma biding proteins effect drugs? |
|
Definition
| Competition for plasma binding proteins increase the amount of free/active drug available and thereby increases the pharmacological and toxicological effects |
|
|
Term
| How does intestinal P-gp and P450 enzyme work? |
|
Definition
(1) absorption of P-gp substrate from the lumen into the enterocyte
(2) absorption from the enterocyte into circulation (some)
(3) metabolism of substrate in enterocyte
(4) secrete substrate back into the lumen via P-gp
(5) movement of substrate back inot the lumen via p-gp |
|
|
Term
| How does phase I biotrans. alter the polarity of the metabolite? |
|
Definition
| It increases the polarity moderately |
|
|
Term
| How does protein binding effect drug elimination by the kidney? |
|
Definition
| It slows it since protein bound drugs do not filter through the glomerulus as easily |
|
|
Term
| How does the ability to cross the BBB effect the drowsiness in H1 antagonists? |
|
Definition
| The more that the drug crosses the BBB, the more sedation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tell you whether the inhibitor is nonselective, preferential, or selective |
|
|
Term
| In cats, what is the anticonvulsant of choice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Indirect Cholinergic Agonists:
Know MOA and use
-Carbamates: Neostigmine, pyridostigmine
-Edrophonium
-OPs:dichlorvos, trichlorfon
-cispride and metaclopromide |
|
Definition
Carbamates: moa: carbamylation
-Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine: reverse tubocurarine-like neuromuscular blockades, decreases sm. m. tone and skeletal m. tone
Edrophonium
-moa: carbamylation
-use: dx myasthenia gravis and reverse tubocurarine-like nm blockades
Cispride and Metaclopramide
-moa: increases Ach release in the myenteric plexus
-use: prokinetic/promotility |
|
|
Term
Indirect sympathomimetics
know drug and primary use |
|
Definition
Ephedrine: asthma, mydriatic, incontinence
Phenylpropanolamine: urinary incontinence and nasal decongestant |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how readily a drug dissociates from its receptor; inversely related to Ka |
|
|
Term
| List the formulations (from fastest absorption to slowest) for enteral admin? |
|
Definition
| aquesous soln > suspension > powder/granule > gel capsule > tablet |
|
|
Term
| List the immmunostimulant drugs and their info. |
|
Definition
Microbial Immunostimulants:
Proprionibacterium acnes- approved for use for canine pyoderma adn adjunct therapy for prevention of resp dz in horses
tumor vaccines
levamisole: antiparasitic; may restore cell mediated immunity to immunecompromised patients
cytokines (IFN and IL) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Increases Cl influx at GABA receptors which causes hyperpolarization and reduces neuronal excitability |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| competitive inhibition of histamine for binding to H1 receptors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MOA for MAOIs? examples and uses? |
|
Definition
MOA: scavenge free radicals; MAO-A (-): increase 5-HT, increase NE- only in humans; MAO-B (-):increase DA only- examples: Selegiline and L-deprenyl
used to treat cognitive dysfunction and Cushings |
|
|
Term
| MOA for MAOIs? examples and uses? |
|
Definition
MOA: scavenge free radicals; MAO-A (-): increase 5-HT, increase NE- only in humans; MAO-B (-):increase DA only- examples: Selegiline and L-deprenyl
used to treat cognitive dysfunction and Cushings |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decreases monoamine oxygenase stores |
|
|
Term
| MOA for tricyclic antidepressants? Examples? Uses? |
|
Definition
MOA: blocks pre-synaptic reuptake of MAO
Clomipramine: OCD, sedation
Amitryptiline: OCD, separation anxiety |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MOA: PREFERENTIAL inhibitor of COX 2 in dogs, nonselective in cats
Use: osteoarthritis, post-surgical pain in dogs and cats
*only US product approved for use in cats* |
|
|
Term
| Mineralcorticoid: activity |
|
Definition
mimics the net effect of Aldosterone:
-increases K+ excretion
-increases Na+ reabsorption
-increases water reabsorption
-increases ECF vol |
|
|
Term
| Name a serotonin antagonist and its use in vet med. |
|
Definition
| Cyproheptadine: in cats it is used as an apetite stimuland; in horses it is used to treat photic head shaking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
phenothiazine: Low-potency: acepromazine & chloropromazine; High-potency: Fluphenazine & perphenazine
haloperidol
reserpine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
moa: activates cGMP which decreases actin and myosin interaction > relaxes vascular smooth muscle
use: chronic CHF; rapid onset when given IV, sublingual, or topically |
|
|
Term
| P450 may be induced or inhibited by xenobiotics, what are some examples of each? how do they work? |
|
Definition
Inducing agents: phenobarbitol, rifampin
Inhibiting agents: ketoconazole, cimetadine
Inducing agents will upregulate P450
Inhibiting agents will slow the enzyme down |
|
|
Term
Parasympatholytics
Know moa and use
-atropine
-propantheline
-glycopyrrolate
-aminopentamide
-tropicamide |
|
Definition
Atropine
-moa: blocks all muscarinic receptor subtypes
-use: preanesthetic, anticholinesterase toxicity, reverse bronchoconstriction, correct bradycardia
Propantheline, glycopyrrolate, aminopentamide, tropicamide
-moa: blocks muscarinic rc
-use: diar, incontinence, bradycardia, preanesthetic
-aminopentamide: GI spasms
-tropicamide: mydriasis |
|
|
Term
| Parasympathomimetics: drugs |
|
Definition
| Bethanecol(direct), Pilocarpine(direct), Edrophodium(indirect), Carbamates(indirect): Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine, OPs(indirect): dichlorvos, trichlorfon, Cisapride(indirect), Metaclopramide(indirect) |
|
|
Term
| Parasympathomimetics: the effects they produce |
|
Definition
-increase GI motility
-increased secretions
-increased bladder wall contractions
-increased bronchospasms
-cardiac inhibition |
|
|
Term
| Passive diffusion directly thru the membrane |
|
Definition
| small, lipid soluble (NUUL: nonpolar, unionized, uncharged, lipophyllic) |
|
|
Term
| Passive tubular reabsorption occurs with what type of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phase II metabolism produces a _____ product. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Phenylbutazone: MOA, pharm. activity, approved in which animals |
|
Definition
MOA: nonselective inhibitor of COX 1 and COX 2
Activity: anti-inflam, anti-pyretic, uricosuric
Approved in horses and dogs |
|
|
Term
| Polysulfated glycosaminoglycans: MOA, activity |
|
Definition
MOA: promotes the synthesis of cartilage matrix components (collagen and proteoglycans); inhibits catabolic enzymes (ie. metalloproteases) inhibits PGE2 synthesis
Activity: chondroprotective- inhibits inflam. and degredation of articular cartilage; improve viscosity of synovial fluid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the stretching pressure exerted on the relaxed myocardium during diastole |
|
|
Term
| Put the routes of administration in order from fastest acting to slowest acting. |
|
Definition
| IV > IO > inhalation > IM > SQ > or = PO |
|
|
Term
| Quantal Dose Response Curve |
|
Definition
| relationsship between dosage and percent of the population responding in a similar manner |
|
|
Term
| Reabsorption of an acidic drug from the renal filtrate is promoted by: |
|
Definition
| high lipid solubility of the drug |
|
|
Term
| Routes of administration? |
|
Definition
(1) parenteral: IV, IM, SQ, IO, epidural
(2) Enteral: PO, feeding tube, rectal
(3) topical
(4) other: inhalation, transdermal, sublingual |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| no medical use; high risk for abuse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increased potential for abuse, both physical and mental |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| less potential for abuse, high mental dependence |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decreased potential for abuse |
|
|
Term
| Schedule V drug examples? |
|
Definition
| antitussives and antidiarrheals |
|
|
Term
| Side effects associated with NSAIDs. |
|
Definition
| GI irritation, nephrotoxicity, agranulocytosis, anemia, thrombocytopenia, hepatotoxicity, acid base disturbances, coag. deficiencies |
|
|
Term
| Side effects with diuretics |
|
Definition
| Excessive preload reduction/dehydration, azotemia, hyper/hypokalemia |
|
|
Term
Spironolactone
-moa
-therapeutic indications |
|
Definition
moa:competitive antagonism of Aldosterone which modulates Na+K+ exchange at the DISTAL TUBULE
-use: potassium sparing and enhance diuresis |
|
|
Term
| Sympathetic stimulation in the heart |
|
Definition
stimulatory
-increases rate and forece of contraction
increases the conductance velocity and automaticity |
|
|
Term
Sympatholytics
beta blockers
drug, moa, and use |
|
Definition
Propanolol
-moa:NONSELECTIVE beta antagonist
-use: tachyarrythmias
-hypertension
Atenolol, Metaprolol, Esmolol
-moa: beta 1 antagonist
-use: tachyarrythmia, hypertropic cardiomyopathy, hypertension |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| new dose= old dose [(target conc)/(patient conc)] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MOA: dual inhibitor
Use: approved in dogs for pain/inflam of osteoarthritis |
|
|
Term
| The mechanism by which most drugs are absorbed into systemic circulation following SQ injection is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The tension generated by contracting striated muscle is a function of _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(1) can involve downregulation of drug receptors
(2) can be a result of tachyphylaxis
(3) is when a drug exhibits a lower pharmacological effect following repeated doses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| biologicals such as vaccines |
|
|
Term
| Uses for immunostimulant drugs? |
|
Definition
-immunecompromised animala
-adjunct therapy for neoplastic dz |
|
|
Term
| What allows metabolytes to be more readily excreted than the parent drug? |
|
Definition
| biotransformation to make them more polar |
|
|
Term
| What anticonvulsants act on Ca channels and block glutamate release? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anticonvulsants act on Na channels to prolong inactivation? |
|
Definition
| Phenytoin, Zonisamide, Felbamate |
|
|
Term
| What are H1 antagonists used to treat? |
|
Definition
H1 Antagonists treat and prevent hypersensitivity:
-atopy, urticaria, vaccine rxns, anaphylaxis
-vomiting and motion sickness
-to sedate
-for aseptic laminitis in cattle
-Downer cows: Tripelenamine |
|
|
Term
| What are common uses for NSAIDs? |
|
Definition
-pain and inflam
-pyrexia
-treatment and palliation of select tumors |
|
|
Term
| What are examples of Phase I biotrans. rxns? |
|
Definition
| Redox rxns, microsomal oxidation, nonmicrosomal oxidations, reduction, hydryolysis |
|
|
Term
| What are nonmicrosomal oxidations? |
|
Definition
| aldehyde dehydrogenase; important in alcohol dehydration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs that take advantage of the first pass effect; they are often esters that are in an inactive form until they are activated in the liver, plasma, or intestinal esterases |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of histamine liberation? |
|
Definition
| allergens, drugs, bacteria endotoxins, mast cell tumors, tissue damage, morphine |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 classes of antidepressants? |
|
Definition
| Tricyclic antidepressants, SSRI, MAOIs |
|
|
Term
| What are the H1 receptor antagonists? |
|
Definition
| diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, pyrilamine, tripelenamine, loratidine |
|
|
Term
| What are the anxiolytic/ hypnotic drugs used in vet med and their MOA? |
|
Definition
Benzodiazepine: increase GABA inhibition
Buspirone: 5-HT 1A receptor agonist |
|
|
Term
| What are the following characteristics of Glucocorticoids:absorption, ability to bind to plasma binding protein, elimination? |
|
Definition
Absorption: readily absorbed from the GI tract
Plasma binding protein: lipophylic so highly ptn bound (75% to transcortin and 10-15% to Albumin)
Elimination: metabolized by phase I and II reactions |
|
|
Term
| What are the primary mechanisms of renal clearance? |
|
Definition
(1)glomerular filtration
(2) tubular secretion
(3) tubular reabsorption |
|
|
Term
| What are the short-acting, intermediate acting, and long acting glucocorticoids? |
|
Definition
Short acting: hydrocortisone
Medium acting: Prednisone, Prednisolone, Methyprednisolone, Triaminolone, Isoflupredone
Long-acting: Dexamethazone and Flumethazone |
|
|
Term
| What are the two compensatory goals of the body in response to circulatory failure? |
|
Definition
1. maintain arterial bp
2. increase myocardial function |
|
|
Term
| What are the ways to reduce preload? |
|
Definition
1. low sodium diet
2. diuretics
3. venodilators
4. ACE inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| What can you do to make corticosteroids more rapidly acting? to make them more slow acting? |
|
Definition
complex them with sodium phosphate or sodium succinate; succinate salt is the more rapidly acting
You can complex glucocorticoids with ACETATES (depots) to make them more slow acting > longer duration of action |
|
|
Term
| What characteristic allow for good absorption? |
|
Definition
| small, large SA, lipphyllic (NUUL), thin, increased drug concentration |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are cleared via tubular reabsorption in the distal tubule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs are not readily filtered by the kidney? |
|
Definition
| protein bound or lipophyllic (NUUL) |
|
|
Term
| What drugs can pass thru the placenta? |
|
Definition
| all drugs except highly polar (CHIP) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Benzodiazapines and Barbituates |
|
|
Term
| What drugs hyperpolarize due to Cl-like structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to clearance if other substrates are competing? |
|
Definition
| OATs and OCTs can get saturated so clearance will decrease |
|
|
Term
| What happens to clearance of a drug if GFR decreases? |
|
Definition
| For drugs cleared by renal filtration, clearance will decrease |
|
|
Term
| What happens to clearance rate if protein binding decreases? |
|
Definition
| more free drug available causes more of the drug to be cleared |
|
|
Term
| What happens to hepatic clearance if hepatic blood flow is decreased? |
|
Definition
| clearance will decrease if HBF decreases |
|
|
Term
| What happens to lipophyllic drugs filtered into urine? |
|
Definition
| They are reabsorbed from the urine and undergo biotrans. to become more polar |
|
|
Term
| What histamine receptor do you want to block to prevent hypotension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is carrier mediated transport? |
|
Definition
| facilitated transport or endocytosis |
|
|
Term
| What is phase 1 biotransformation? |
|
Definition
| non-synthetic; oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis; introduces a functional group |
|
|
Term
| What is phase II biotransformation? |
|
Definition
| conjugation or attachment of an endogenous polar molecule to a functional group by glucuronidation, sulfate conjugation, glutathione conjugation, acetylation, methylation, etc |
|
|
Term
| What is the first line of defense for all vet med species having a seizure? why? |
|
Definition
| Diazepam: rapid effect (less than 2 minutes) with short duration of action; (15-20 minutes); administered IV, rectally, intranasally |
|
|
Term
| What is the first pass effect? |
|
Definition
| primarily in drugs metabolized by the liver; drugs with a high extraction rate will reach the portal vein and be subject to biotransformation by liver enzymes before ever reaching systemic circulation |
|
|
Term
| What is the only nt that effects beta 2 recptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis? |
|
Definition
| damage to chondrocytes and/or synovial cells > inflam. of synovial mem and articular cartilage > recruitment of leukocytes (which are mediators of inflam) > prostaglandins, leukotrienes, superoxides, and proteolytic enzymes are produced > this decreases the viscosity of synovial fluid, damages the joing structures, and causes inflam. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary goal of biotransformation? |
|
Definition
| increase the excretion of substrates |
|
|
Term
| What is the protocol for seizure control in emergency situations? which drugs are tried first, second, etc |
|
Definition
| Diazepam bolus, Diazepam CRI, Propofol, Ketamine |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose for transenodthelial and transepithelial transport? |
|
Definition
| absorb drugs from the gut, exclude drugs from the brain, and excrete drugs in the liver and kidney |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of plasma binding proteins? |
|
Definition
| Bind and inactivate drugs which effects tissue distribution and pharmacological activity |
|
|
Term
| What is the rate limiting step for a depot? for a solution? |
|
Definition
Rate limiting step for a depot: dissociation
Rate limiting step for a solution: diffusion |
|
|
Term
| What may change renal clearance rate? |
|
Definition
| Renal blood flow, GFR, protein binding, and acid/base |
|
|
Term
| What may inhibit active renal secretion of a drug? |
|
Definition
| competition with other drugs |
|
|
Term
| What promotes rapid absorption of a drug? |
|
Definition
| a high concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
| What receptors does EPI work on? |
|
Definition
| alpha one and two and beta one and two |
|
|
Term
| What recpetors does NE act on? |
|
Definition
| alpha one and two and beta one |
|
|
Term
| What the common immunosuppressant drugs used in vet med? |
|
Definition
| cyclosporin, cytotoxic agents, cromolyn, corticosteroids |
|
|
Term
| What type of administration of drugs allows for the best/highest bioavailability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of drugs are allowed to pass thru the BBB? |
|
Definition
| highly lipid soluble (NUUL); P-gp and tight junctions are the barriers |
|
|
Term
| What type of drugs are cleared by secretion into the proximal tubule? how are they secreted? |
|
Definition
charged moleucles (CHIP)
They are secreted by OAT and OCT transporters. |
|
|
Term
| What type of drugs are cleared via the glomerulus? |
|
Definition
| small MW and not highly protein bound (CHIP) |
|
|
Term
| What type of drugs are secreted into bile? |
|
Definition
| large polar molecules (CHIP) |
|
|
Term
| What type of drugs are taken up in the proximal and distal tubules of the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of drugs can cross the BBB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do H1 antagonists have low efficacy? |
|
Definition
| when histamine has already been released |
|
|
Term
| When is pentobarbitol used to control seizures? |
|
Definition
| for diazepam resistant seizures |
|
|
Term
| Where do phase I biotrans. rxns take plaace? |
|
Definition
| in the smooth ER of hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
| Where do phase I biotrans. rxns take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does active tubular SECRETION occur? what is its purpose? |
|
Definition
| active tubular secretion occurs in the proximal tubule of the kidney via OATs and OCTs; it takes acidic or basic drugs from the ECF and puts them into the filtrate |
|
|
Term
| Where is 5-HT found? And what are its effects? |
|
Definition
5-HT is found in the CNA, GIT, and platlets
Effects:
vasoconstriction/vasodilation
smooth muscle contraction
pain and pruritis
mood, sleep, others |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs have a higher affinity to bind to plasma binding ptns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organs do not have a BBB? |
|
Definition
| pineal gland and circumventricular organs |
|
|
Term
| a nicotinic receptor is what type of transporter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| a weak base is better absorbed from the SI...why? |
|
Definition
| There is a high pH and larger surface area |
|
|
Term
acetozolamide
-moa
-elimination
-use |
|
Definition
moa: noncompetitive inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the PROXIMAL TUBULE > decreases the reabsorption of sodium bicarbonate
-elimination: tubular secretion
-use:glaucoma and HYPP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the force opposing ventricular contraction after systole; primarily consists of arterial blood vessles and can be equilibrated to arterial blood pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an allergy that generally does not develop into anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a substance that is locally synthesized and locally acting; normally non-circulating hormones |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| how much exposure to a drug the system has |
|
|
Term
biological response modifiers
-examples
-definition
-uses |
|
Definition
def: an agent that regulates or modifies the host's immune response
ex: immunosuppressants or immunostimulants
uses: treat autoimmune dz, infections, malignancies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a 2nd messenger that amplifies the effect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| vol. of plasma cleared of a drug perunit time; a measure of efficacy of drug extraction/elimination |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| deracoxib, ferocoxib, celacoxib |
|
|
Term
cytotoxic agents
-ex
-moa
-toxicity |
|
Definition
Azathioprine
moa: nonspecific immunosuppressive effects- CELL MEDIATED AND HUMORAL
adverse effects: myelosuppression |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| clonidine, xylazine, dexametomatidine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| terbultaline and clenbuterol |
|
|
Term
| discuss drug excretion thru the respiratory tract. |
|
Definition
| Volatile substances are excreted thru the resp. tract |
|
|
Term
| drugs eliminated by the firt pass effect have ________ bioavalability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
furosemide
-moa
-elimination
-use |
|
Definition
moa: acts on the THICK ASCENDING LIMB OF THE LOOP OF HENLE and impairs the concentration ability of the kidney by the blocking the active reabsorption of Na+K+2Cl symporter
-elimination: renal via active tubular secretion
-therapeutic indications: edema (cardiogenic or pulmonary edema), CHF, acute renal failure, EIPH |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how are volatile drugs excreted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how do phase II biotrans. reactions alter the polarity of the metabolite? |
|
Definition
| The polarity is increased greatly |
|
|
Term
| how does arterial vasoconstriction effect afterload? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does arterial vasoconstriction effect afterload? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does drug distribution to other areas of the body effect the action of the drug? |
|
Definition
| It may terminate the action of the drug |
|
|
Term
| how long is registration with the DEA good for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| lowering the seizure threshold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
mannitol
-type of diuretic
-moa
-elimination
-therapeutic indications |
|
Definition
-osmotic diuretic
-moa: exerts high osmotic pressure within the tubule that reduces the reabsorption of water and thereby increases urine formation
-elimination: renal filtration via the glomerulus
-therapeutic indications: oligouric renal failure, intraocular and intracerebral pressure, toxins |
|
|
Term
| name the carbonic anhydrase inhibitors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name the osmotic diuretics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name the potassium sparing diuretics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| name the thiazide diuretics |
|
Definition
| chlorothiazide and hydrocholorthiazide |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-long preganglionic neurons
-originate from the midbrain, medulla, or sacral region of the spinal cord
-synapse with post-ganglionic neurons typically close to the effector organ/tissue |
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic control of the bladder |
|
Definition
stimulatory
-bladder wall contracts
-sphincter relaxes |
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation in the heart |
|
Definition
inhibitory
-decreases rate and force of contraction and decreases the conduction velocity |
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation of salivation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation of sweat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation of the GI tract |
|
Definition
stimulatory
-smooth muscle contration
-sphincter relaxes
-secretions increased |
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscle of the eye |
|
Definition
| relaxes > lens gets round > distance vision |
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation of the eye |
|
Definition
miosis
sphincter muscle contracts: pupil gets smaller
radial muscle contracts: pupil gets larger |
|
|
Term
| parasympathetic stimulation of vasculature |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasympathic stimulation of the ciliary muscle in the eye |
|
Definition
| contracts > flattens the lens > near vision |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "what the drug does to the body" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "what the body does to the drug" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an increase in potency of one drug due to another drug that does not have the same pharmacological effect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympathetic control of the bladder |
|
Definition
inhibitory
-relaxes the bladder wall
-sphincter muscels contract |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-short pre-ganlionic neuron
-originate form the thoracolumbar spinal cord
-synapse with post-ganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| sympathetic stimuation of sweat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympathetic stimuation of the eye |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympathetic stimulation of salivation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympathetic stimulation of vasculature |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympathetic stimulation on the GI tract |
|
Definition
inhibitory
-smooth muscle relaxation
-sphincter contraction
-decreases secretions |
|
|
Term
sympatholytics
alpha blockers
drugs and use |
|
Definition
phenoxybenzamine: dx phaeochromocytoma, tx hypertension, urethral obstruction
prazosin: CHF, hypertension
Yohimbine, tolazoline, atipamezole: reverse sedation by alpha 2 agonists |
|
|
Term
| synergistic effect of agonists |
|
Definition
| A and B given adn result in greater than A+B |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pharmacodynamic tolerance that develops rapidly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| drug becomes less effective with repeated us due to pharmacokinetics and pharmacodymanic factors |
|
|
Term
| total body organ clearance |
|
Definition
| the sum of clearance in all organs (liver and kidney) |
|
|
Term
| up/down regulation of receptor |
|
Definition
| a change in max response due to a change in receptor number |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cerebral excessive excitation and impaired inhibition |
|
|
Term
| what are some examples of endothelial barriers? |
|
Definition
| glomeruli and liver sinusoids |
|
|
Term
| what are the major factors that affect absorption? |
|
Definition
| Surface area, thickness, lipid partition, and diffusion coefficient |
|
|
Term
| what are things to consider when choosing a corticosteroid? |
|
Definition
1. glucocorticoid vs. mineralcorticoid
2. time to onset of action
3. duration of action
4. route of administration
5. species-specific concerns: metabolism and withdrawal time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-ventricular volume at the end of diastole
-the vol. of blood returning to the heart |
|
|
Term
| what do you NOT want to combine with corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
| antibiotics, NSAIDs, in animals with corneal ulcers |
|
|
Term
| what drugs induce P450 and therefore decrease phenobarbitols half-life? |
|
Definition
| anticonvulsants, propanolol, rifamoin, quinidine, warfarin |
|
|
Term
| what drugs inhibit P450 adn therefore increase phenobarbitol activity? |
|
Definition
| cimetadine, ketoconazole, chloramphenicol |
|
|
Term
| what factors affect drug distribution? |
|
Definition
lipid solubility, tissue perfustion, tissue capacity, and binding to plasma proteins
high tissue perfustion organs: kidney, brain, liver, heart
Medium: muscle and skin
High capacity tissues: muscle and fat
Primary plasma binding protein: albumin
secondary plasma binding protein: alpha-1-acid glycoprotein |
|
|
Term
| what histamine receptors are responsible for vasodilation? |
|
Definition
| H1 mostly, H2 also plays a role |
|
|
Term
| what is determined when using the quantal dose curve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is microsomal oxidation? |
|
Definition
| ER associated; includes P45p enzymes and Flavin containing monooxygenases |
|
|
Term
| what is the 2nd drug of choice for epilepsy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the drug of choice for epilepsy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the fxn of capillary endothelial cells? |
|
Definition
| They have large pores that allow large and polar drugs thru |
|
|
Term
| what receptors does DA work on? |
|
Definition
| alpha one and two, beta one, and dopamine |
|
|
Term
| what receptors does Isoproternol work on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when choosing a drug, what do you need to think about? |
|
Definition
| onset of action adn duration of action |
|
|
Term
| where is P450 enzyme found? |
|
Definition
| liver mostly; also intestines, kidney, skin, and lungs |
|
|
Term
| which drugs are excreted more rapidly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which substances can passively diffuse thru protein channels? |
|
Definition
| very small, water soluble molecules (CHIP: charged, hydrophylic, ionized, polar) |
|
|
Term
| who has to be regestered with the DEA? |
|
Definition
| any person who idstributes or dispenses any controlled substances (not techs) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Enzootic Bovine Leukosis
Bovine Lymphoma |
|
|
Term
| What age animals is BLV seen in? |
|
Definition
| Dairy cattle 4-8 years old |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a highly fatal, systemic malignant neoplasia of the reticuloendothelial system characterized by the development of aggregations of neoplastic lymphocytes. Affected cattle are seropositive for BLV |
|
|
Term
| What is persistant lymphocytosis? |
|
Definition
| a benign lymphproliferative (high blood lymphocyte count) condition recognized in healthy cattle in herds with high incidence of LSA; the PL form can develop into the LSA form; affected cattle are seropositive for BLV |
|
|
Term
| What is sporadic bovine leukosis? |
|
Definition
| another form of BLV that causes lymphsarcoma in cows less than 3 years old; will be BLV seronegative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| seen in calves 1-6 months old |
|
|
Term
| Discuss thymic and cutaneous LSA. |
|
Definition
| seen in cows 1-2 years old |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the cs of persistant lymphcytosis. |
|
Definition
| no overt cs; marked increase in abnormal circulating lymphocyte numbers, especially immature lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the CS of multicentric LSA. |
|
Definition
effects ln and lymphoid tissue of the GI tract and elsewhere; sites commonly effected include: abomasum, heart, CNS, visceral and peripheral ln
anemia and enlarged superficial ln
decreased appetite, decreased milk production, weight loss |
|
|
Term
| What cs will you see with BLV with abomasal involvement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cs are associated with cardiac involvement of BLV? |
|
Definition
| hydropericardium, hydrothorax, and edema of the brisket |
|
|
Term
| What CS will you see with BLV involving the nervous system? |
|
Definition
| gradual onset of posterior paralysis, and/or circling or falling |
|
|
Term
| What CS are seen with peri-orbital tumors due to BLV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What animals can be infected by BLV? |
|
Definition
| cattle can be naturally infected; sheep and goats can be experimentally infected |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of BLV? |
|
Definition
| seropositive persistantly infected cattle |
|
|
Term
| Inthe southeastern US, what percent of dairy herds are seropositive for BLV? |
|
Definition
| 45%; of those herds, 80% of the cattle are seropositive for BLV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Blood inoculation: biting insects (stomoxys, tabanids, deer flies) |
|
|
Term
| Where is the BLV virus found in seropositive cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ways that BLV can be transmitted? |
|
Definition
| blood transmission, blood transfusion, dirty needles, traumatic injuries, tattoing, and gloves for rectals |
|
|
Term
| Discuss BLV transmission in colostrum. |
|
Definition
| Virus may be present in lymphocytes in colostrum, but maternal antibodies are also present; calves do not aquire BLV from their dams, but do aquire passive immunity for up to 8 months |
|
|
Term
| What is essential for successful transmission of BLV? |
|
Definition
| prolonged close physical contact |
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period of BLV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| DIscuss the basics of the pathogenesis of BLV. |
|
Definition
| BLV infects lymphocytes and integrates into DNA to form a provirus; Transformation may take time (years) |
|
|
Term
| What happens to animals infected with BLV? |
|
Definition
| 60% of animals will fail to become infected and will be seronegative; 30% of animals become seropositive and persistantly infected; of the 30% that are seropositive, 20% remain asymptomatic healty carriers, 9% develop PL (with or without LSA), and 1% develop LSA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
clinically, serology, and PCR
Clinically: an older animal with tumors
Serology: AGID and ELISA
ELISA is more sensitive than AGID
PCR: very sensitive
All these tests look for the presence of antibodies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Test and slaghter and then test all new introductions into the herd |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pestivirus of the family Flaviviridae |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 genotypes and biotypes of BVDV? |
|
Definition
Genotypes: I and II
Biotypes: cytopathic and non-cytopathic |
|
|
Term
| What other viral dzs is BVDV antigentically related to? |
|
Definition
| Hog cholera and Swine Fever |
|
|
Term
| What is the source of infection for BVDV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the mean prevalence of PI animals in herds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What animals are most susceptible to BVDV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What animals can be infected with BVDV? |
|
Definition
| cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, and wild rums |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| by direct contact: mucosal contact with urine, feces, excretions, and fomites |
|
|
Term
| Discuss BVDVs effects on the fetus of an infected cow? |
|
Definition
| The fetus can become infected |
|
|
Term
| What does the pathogenesis of BVDV depend on? |
|
Definition
| age of animal, immune response, stress, and secondary infection |
|
|
Term
| What are the 7 forms of BVDV? |
|
Definition
1) Benign form
2) Fatal Mucosal DZ
3) Peracute highly fatal diarrhea
4) Thrombocytopenia and Hemorragic dz
5)repro failure
6) congenital abnormailities
7) Chronic BVD infection and unthrifty PI calves |
|
|
Term
| THe majority of BVDV infections fall under which form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if a cow is exposed at estrus to BVD? |
|
Definition
| The cow will be unable to conceive |
|
|
Term
| What happens when you initially inseminate seronegative cows with semen seropositive for BVD? |
|
Definition
| The cows will have trouble conceiving |
|
|
Term
| What happens when cows are infected with BVD during the embryonic period (day 0-45 post-conception)? |
|
Definition
| Decreased conception rate and return to estrus |
|
|
Term
| What happens if a fetus is infected with BVD early in life (day 45 - 125)? |
|
Definition
- death of the fetus leading to mummification or abortion
- congenital abnomalities
- persistatant infection
|
|
|
Term
| What happens to calves persistantly infected with non-cytopathic BVD? |
|
Definition
- the fetus recognizes the virus as self
- the animal is born normal but is consistantly shedding the virus
- the NCP strain will mutate into the CP strain which results in mucosal disease within the first 2 years of life
- mucosal dz is 100% fatal
|
|
|
Term
| What animals are the source of BVDÂ infection on farms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Discuss the immune response of PI calves to other BVD viruses and vaccines |
|
Definition
PI calves mount a good immune response to BVD infections that are not antigenically similar to the BVD that the calf has
They also mount good immune responses to vaccines |
|
|
Term
| What happens to fetuses infected with BVD between days 125 and 175? |
|
Definition
| they get congenital defects |
|
|
Term
| What happens to a calve infected with BVD after 180 days of gestation |
|
Definition
- they have a fully competent immune response and results in elimination of the virus
- the calf is born with antibodies to the virus
- the calf is virus free
 |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the benign infection with BVD. |
|
Definition
- most common form
- usually inapparent
- occurs in immunocompetent seronegative calves and young adults
- high morbidity and low case fatality
- CS: mild fever, leukopenia, mild diarrhea
- rapid recovery in a few days after development of serum neutalizing antibodies
|
|
|
Term
| Discuss the fatal mucosal disease associated with BVD. |
|
Definition
- only seen in PI animals
- CS: profuse watery diarrhea, anorexia, mucopurulent nasal discharge, erosive/ulcerative stomatitis, emaciation, dehydration, and death occuring a few days after onset
- sporadic with 100% case fatalityÂ
|
|
|
Term
| discuss the peracute highly fatal diarrhea associated with bvd. |
|
Definition
- severe form of the dz characterized by a respiratory and enteric form
- it is usually caused by bvd type 2
- occurs in herd situations and effects all ages of animals; calves have the highest mortality
- the infection lasts for several weeks
- outbreak progresses slowly
- cs: respiratory infection, profuse diarrhea, and fever; sometimes oral erosions
|
|
|
Term
| Discuss the thrombocytopenia and hemorrhagic disease associated with BVD. |
|
Definition
- associated with NCP BVD
- cs:petechial and ecchymotic hem on mucosal surfaces, bloody diarrhea, epistaxis, and prolonged bleeding
- platelet count less than 25,000 per microliters
- case fatality of 25%
|
|
|
Term
| Discuss reproductive failure with BVD. |
|
Definition
- conception failure
- fetal mummification
- abortion
- premature births
- stillbirths
|
|
|
Term
| Discuss congenital abonormalities associated with BVD. |
|
Definition
- occurs when the virus infects the fetus during organogenesis
- cerebellar hypoplasia is common: calves are unable to stand and walk normally
- retinal atrophy and displasia
- optic neuritis
- micropthalmia
- blindness
|
|
|
Term
| Discuss chronic VD infections? |
|
Definition
- intermittent diarrhea, emaciation, bloat, hoof deformities, erosive stomatitis, and scabby lesions in the perineum, scrotum, and interdigital cleft
|
|
|
Term
| Discuss calves born persistantly infected with BVD. |
|
Definition
- may be smaller than normal and fail to grow normally
- they may appear unthrifty for several months until they develop fatal pneumonia or fatal mucosal disease
- seronegative for BVD
|
|
|
Term
| With BVD, in what animals will you see immunoppression resulting in respiratory disease with secondary bacterial infection? |
|
Definition
- feedlots when calves are grouped together and stressed
|
|
|
Term
| What are the pathological signs of BVD? |
|
Definition
- abnormalities are generally confined to the alimentary tract
- shallow erosions are seen on the base of the tongue, esophagus, forestomach, abomasum, and cecum
- mucosa of the mouth has a cooked appearance, with grayish color epithelium
- Histologically: Peyers patches have lymphocyte depletion and little inflammation
|
|
|
Term
| What are the best way to diagnose BVD? |
|
Definition
| PCR or IPX on an ear notch sample |
|
|
Term
| What type of lesions do you see with BVD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you directly identify BVD on tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sample is the best for isolation of BVD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you determine Ab titer for BVD? |
|
Definition
| serum neutralization test |
|
|
Term
| How do you get rid of BVD from a farm? |
|
Definition
| Test for PI animals using PCR via ear notch samples |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| detect PI cattle and eliminate them from the herd |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
vaccinate (there are many available): vaccinate breeding females to prevent fetal infection and vaccinate calves at weaning
Prevent the introduction of PI animals into a non-infected herd |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Alcelaphine Herpesvirus-1, which is gammaherpes virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Discuss the disease caused by MCF. |
|
Definition
| sporadic, acute, and highly fatal |
|
|
Term
| what are the 2 forms of MCF? |
|
Definition
| African and US- European forms |
|
|
Term
| What animals does MCF effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| discuss morbidity and mortality associated with MCF |
|
Definition
low morbidity
high case mortality |
|
|
Term
| What animal does ANV-1 occur naturally in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is AHV-1 transmitted? |
|
Definition
from wildebeasts to calves; so via CARRIER ANIMALS (wildebeast or sheep) by AEROSOL TRANSMISSION
Cattle to cattle transmission only occurs via blood transfusion |
|
|
Term
| Discuss which animals OHV-2 naturally occurs in and what animals it can be transmitted to. |
|
Definition
OHV-2 occurs naturally in sheep.
Transmitted to cattle during the lambing season |
|
|
Term
| Discus the African form of MCF. |
|
Definition
Associated with wildebeasts
Endemic in Africa
In the US, it is seen in zoos and on farms that show and breed exotic ruminants |
|
|
Term
| This discusses US-European form of MCF |
|
Definition
associate with sheep
wildebeast and sheep are inapparent carriers
wildebeast spread the virus to cattle and deer at the time of calving |
|
|
Term
| What is the case fatality rate for MCF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period for MCF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What arethe 3 cs forms for MCF? |
|
Definition
1. head and eye form (most common)
2. Peracute alimentary form
3. mild form |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the Head and Eye Form of MCF. |
|
Definition
extreme depression
high fever (106 to 107)
profuse mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharges
erosions of the soft palate,tongue, and gums
nasal mucosa and nasal passages are deep red and necrotic and covered with fibrinopurulent exudates
corneal opacities
chronic bilateral stromal keratitis
CNS signs: incoordination, muscle tremor, and head pressing
death: 7-10 days after onset of cs
**necrotizing vasculitis**
perivascular cuffing
lymphoid hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the peracute alimentary tract form of MCF |
|
Definition
common in deer
characterized by high fever, dypsnea, and acute gastroenteritis
death occurs in 1-3 days |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the mild form of MCF. |
|
Definition
| transient fever and mild erosions |
|
|
Term
| Discuss how to diagnose MCF |
|
Definition
CS
submit formalin fixed organs for histochemistry
isolation from blood is difficult |
|
|
Term
| What organs should you submit for histopatholgy for if you suspect MCF |
|
Definition
| brain, lymph nodes, mucosal |
|
|
Term
| treatment and control of MCF |
|
Definition
difficult
avoid contact with sheep at the time of lambing |
|
|
Term
| How do you detect carrier MCF animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are other names for Blue Tongue virus? |
|
Definition
range stiffness
sore muzzle
mycotic stomatitis |
|
|
Term
| What type of virus causes BTV? |
|
Definition
orbivirus of family Reoviridae
double capsid, double stranded RNA virus with segmented genome |
|
|
Term
| What is the distribution of BTV? |
|
Definition
worldwide
tropical and subtropcal countries |
|
|
Term
| What species are susceptible to BTV? |
|
Definition
ruminants, both domestic and wild
cattle, sheep, goat, deer, elk |
|
|
Term
| In what animals does significant dz occur in due to BTV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What animals are amplifiers for BTV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where in the US is BTV seen? and during what season? |
|
Definition
South and Western US
summer and fall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Culicoides; also via the placenta and in semen |
|
|
Term
| When do bulls secrete BTV in their semen? |
|
Definition
| only when they are viremic |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of BTV? |
|
Definition
| BV replicates in the endothelial cells of blood vessels and cause arterititis |
|
|
Term
| Incubation period of BTV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
high fever (105 - 106)
anorexia
nasal discharge with excessive salivation (discharge may become mucopurulent)
reddening of nasal and buccal mucosa
tongue and gums are swollen and purple
oral lesions: erosions and ulcerations (catarrhal stomatitis)
diarrhea
lameness due to coronitis
torticollis (wryneck)
loss of fleece
abortion |
|
|
Term
| what happens to fetuses infected with BTV? |
|
Definition
fetal malformations: hydraencephaly in the cerebral hemisphere
arthogryposis |
|
|
Term
| Discuss BTV infections in cattle. |
|
Definition
Most of the time inapparent
lameness
skin on nose and rostrum peeled off
mouth lesions
crusted nostrils
coronitis
lesions on the udder |
|
|
Term
| Why do you see lesions on the nose, mouth, limbs, and teets with BT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What CS do you see in deer infected with BTV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the pathological lesions associated with BTV? |
|
Definition
mucosal lesions: erosive mouth lesions
hemorrhage and necrosis of the skeletal and cardiac muscle
hemorrhagic lesions at the base of the pulmonary artery!!!! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Limbs are totally distorted and locked into position |
|
|
Term
| How can you diagnose BTV? |
|
Definition
| virus isolation, virus ID, and serology |
|
|
Term
| How do you do virus isolation for BTV? |
|
Definition
store blood and samples at 4 degrees C
collect blood with anticoag
isolate the virus in embryonated egg by intravascular inoculation, cell culture,or animal inoculation (sheep) |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to ID BTV? |
|
Definition
| BTV can be detected in blood and tissue samples by PCR |
|
|
Term
| What pathologic lesion is pathopneumonic for BTV? |
|
Definition
| hemorrhagic lesion at the base of the pulmonary artery |
|
|
Term
| What serology should be done for BTV? |
|
Definition
immunodiffusion and complement fixation tests, neutralization tests, PCR
Neutralization tests: can detect serotype specific antigens
****Submit blood sample and do PCR!!!!
ELISA: detects Ab to any BTV |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent and control BTV? |
|
Definition
MLV vacine: sheep
only one serotype in the vaccine and USDA has approved for sheep
NEVER GIVE DURING THE BREEDING SEASON!!!
can result in stillbirths and fetal amlformations |
|
|
Term
| What animals does EHD effect? |
|
Definition
| cattle and most importantly deer |
|
|
Term
| What type of virus causes EHD? |
|
Definition
orbivirus
shares internal antigens with BTV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| south and west (similar to BTV) |
|
|
Term
| How is EHDV spread? during what season? |
|
Definition
Culicoides cariipennis
late summer and fall |
|
|
Term
| What type of dz does EHD cause in deer? |
|
Definition
| highly fatalacute hemorrhagic disease |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the pathogenesis of BHD |
|
Definition
| the virus infects endothelial cells of blood vessels and results in acute hem dz with fever, hem, and death |
|
|
Term
| Discuss the dz associated with BHD. |
|
Definition
One of the most imp dz of deer in the S particularly WTD
causes an acute infec and most affected animals are found dead by hunters
all ages are susceptible
90% morbidity and 60% mortality
searsonal: late summer and early fall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
clinical dz is rare
seen in late summer
lameness
edema of the oral mucosal with ulcerative stomatitis
hyperemia of skin and sloughing of the skin of the muzzle
no mortality observed |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
virus isolation
ID of EHDV by PCR
serology to detect Ab by AGID and ELISA
EHV Ab cross react th BTV |
|
|
