Term
OSHA: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
MIOSHA: Michigan Occupational Safety and Health Act
CDC: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention |
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Definition
OSHA stands for ___ ___ and ___ ___.
MIOSHA stands for ___ ___ ___ and ___ ___.
CDC stands for ____ for ____ ___ and ____. |
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Term
1. General Safety Standards
2. Hazard Communication Standards
3. Bloodborne Pathogens Standards |
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Definition
| OSHA has rules and regulations that fall into what 3 categories? |
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Term
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Definition
| You must keep employees medical records for ___ years plus the duration of employment. |
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Term
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Definition
| A ____ ___ is an injury to the body that is caused by forceful or awkward movements, poor posture and fast-paced or repetitive movements. |
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Term
| itis = inflammation, algia = pain |
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Definition
| ____ refers to inflammation and ____ refers to pain. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ syndrome is a painful disorder of the wrist and hand due to compression of the median nerve in the wrist. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ ___ is a painful disorder of the lower arm and wrist caused by compression of the ulnar nerve at the wrist. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ syndrome is a painful disorder of the wrist and hand caused by compression of the median nerve by the pronator muscle. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ ___ is a painful disorder of the fingers as a result of injury to the extensor muscles. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ syndrome is a painful of the fingers, hand, and or wrist due to compression of the brachial nerve plexus and vessels. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ is a painful disorder of the trapezius muscle. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ ___ is a painful inflammation of the muscle tendons in the shoulder region. |
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Term
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Definition
| ____ is the inflammation of fluid filled sacs that lubricate and cushion pressure points between bones, tendons and muscles. |
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Term
| 1. Educator, 2. Researcher, 3. Administrator, 4. Advocate, 5. Clinician, 6. Public Health |
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Definition
| Name the 6 interrelated roles of the RDH. |
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Term
| 1. Assessment, 2. DH Diagnosis, 3. Planning, 4. Implementation, 5. Evaluation, 6. Documentation |
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Definition
| List the 6 steps of the DH Process of Care Standards of Practice: |
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Term
| primary, also reversing initial stages to arrest disease process |
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Definition
| Reducing risk or aborting onset of disease is which level of preventive dentistry? |
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Term
| secondary, means taken to treat incipient disease |
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Definition
| Using treatment to terminate disease process is which level of preventive dentistry? |
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Term
| tertiary, more extensive treatment such as surgery, prosthetics, etc. |
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Definition
| Employing measures to replace lost tissue and rehab clients to near function as possible is which level of preventive dentistry? |
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Term
| 1. Gingiva, 2. Alveolar bone, 3. PDL, 4. Cementum |
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Definition
| List the 4 tissues of the periodontium. |
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Term
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Definition
| Marginal gingiva is (keratinized/nonkeratinize). |
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Term
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Definition
| Attached gingiva is (keratinized/nonkeratinized). |
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Term
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Definition
| Alveolar mucosa is (keratinized/nonkeratinized). |
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Term
| non keratinized in the center |
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Definition
| Col is (keratinized/nonkeratinized). |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: Oral, sulcular and junctional epithelium are all stratified squamous epithelium. |
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Term
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Definition
| Sulcular epithelium is (keratinized/nonkeratinized). |
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Term
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Definition
| Junctional epithelium is (keratinized/nonkeratinizeD). |
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Term
| Nabers = curved, Marquis = color coded |
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Definition
| The ___ probe is curved to examine furcations and does not measure sulcus/pocket depths. The ___ probe is color coded, thin, 3-6-9-12mm markings but result in too much estimation. |
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Term
| Williams (thick, no 4/6), Michigan O (thin) |
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Definition
| The ___ probe is thick with no markings at 4 or 6mm. The ___ probe is thin with markings at 3, 6, and 8mm. |
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Term
| Michigan O w/Williams markings |
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Definition
| The __ probe is thin with markings at all mm except 4/6. Used at UDM. |
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Term
| 6 (facial, lingual, mesiofacial, mesiolingual, distofacial, distolingual) |
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Definition
| You have ___ readings on each tooth when probing. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ waste is any solid waste generated in dx, tx or immunization of humans/animals or testing biologicals. Sharps, pathological, liquid, microbial and animal research waste are 5 categories of this waste. |
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Term
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Definition
| ____ waste are items that have contacted blood or other body secretions. Gloves, masks, disposable gowns, bibs, used gauze w/saliva-blood, used barriers are examples. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ waste is a subset of medical waste capable of causing an infectious disease. Blood and blood soaked materials, pathological waste such as tissue and extracted teeth, and sharps are examples. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ waste is infectious waste that requires special handling, neutralization and disposal according to applicable federal, state or local law. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ waste has the capability of having a poisonous effect. Organic solvents, cleaning solutions and acids are examples. |
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Term
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Definition
| ____ waste poses a risk or peril to humans or the environment. It does not have to be infectious, usually refers to hazardous and toxic chemicals. |
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Term
| All are true except that extracted teeth may not be disposed of in a sharps container. |
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Definition
| T/F: Contaminated waste may be discarded with general office trash, Pathogenic waste must be neutralized and extracted teeth may be disposed in a sharps container. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: This is the step-by-step management of medical waste: handle, segregate, store, label, dispose. |
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Term
| marginal (free gingiva), papillary (papillae), diffuse (free/attached/alveolar) |
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Definition
| ___ refers to free gingiva only, ___ refers to only papillae or interdental gingiva, and ___ includes free and attached gingiva and possibly alveolar mucosa. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ is the distance from the junctional epithelium to a fixed point on a tooth (such as the CEJ) and provides a means of monitoring apical migration of attachment apparatus. |
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Term
| 1. determine sulcus/pocket depth (FGM--> junctional epithelium), 2. measure position of FGM in relation to CEJ (apical = recession/positive #, at = 0, coronal = negative #), 3. find the sum of the probing depth and FGM number |
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Definition
| Explain how you determine the attachment level. |
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Term
| nonmineralized, calculus is mineralized |
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Definition
| The following are (mineralized/nonmineralized): acquired pellicle, biofilm, materia alba, food debris. |
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Term
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Definition
| The acquired pellicle is made of _____ from saliva and sulcular fluid. |
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Term
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Definition
| ____ explorer is single-ended with a 2mm tip at a right angle to terminal shank used in deep, narrow pockets, but is poor on line angles and proximals (better for facial/lingual) |
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Term
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Definition
| ____ explorer is single ended, with a short, rigid shank used to examine restorations and pit/fissures not for calculus detection. Mainly replaced by CH3. |
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Term
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Definition
| ____ explorer is double ended with paired working ends used for calucus detection in sulci/shallow pockets. Has a short, broadly curved terminal shank and is universal. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ explorer has paired, double ends excellent for calculus detection and is easily adapted to perio pockets, but is universal. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: When using the explorers on posterior teeth, you want the terminal shank to be parallel on the distal and wrap around the mesial. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: When using explorers on anterior teeth you use one end of the instrument for nears and switch ends for far surfaces. |
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Term
normal = <120/80
pre = 120-139/80-89
stage 1 = 140-159/90-99
stage 2 = >160/>100 |
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Definition
Normal blood pressure = ____.
Pre-hypertension = ____.
Stage 1 hypertension = ____.
Stage 2 hypertension = ____. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: Rectal temp is normal if 1 degree above oral and axillary temp is normal if 1 degree below oral. |
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Term
adults: 60-100
children: 60-120 |
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Definition
Normal pulse for adults:
Normal pulse for children: |
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Term
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Definition
bradycardia = ___ bpm
tachychardia = ___ bpm |
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Term
adults: 14-20 breaths per minute
children: 14-30 breaths per minute |
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Definition
normal respiratory rate for adults:
normal respiratory rate for children: |
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Term
brady = 12 or less
tachy = 28 or more |
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Definition
bradypnea = ___ breaths/minute
tachypnea = ___ breaths/minute |
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Term
| systolic = vent contraction (sister has contractions), diastolic = vent relaxation (you'll relax when you die) |
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Definition
| ___ is the highest pressure during ventricular contraction and ___ is the lowest pressure during ventricular relaxation. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___% of hypertension cases have an unknown cause and ___% of hypertension cases have causes that can be identified. |
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Term
| 140/90 - <160/100 there are no limitations, but faculty must be informed. 160/100 - <180/110 need faculty clearance. >180/110 cannot be treated |
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Definition
| 140/90 - <160/100 (is ok/cannot be treated). >160/100 - <180/110 (is ok/cannot be treated). >180/110 (is ok/cannot be treated). |
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Term
| 1st (systolic) sharp thumping, 2nd (auscultatory gap) soft swishing or silence, 3rd sharp tapping returns, 4th muffled tapping, 5th (diastolic) absence of sound |
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Definition
Korotkoff sounds:
1st sound = systolic = ____
2nd sound = auscultatory gap = ____
3rd sound = ____
4th sound = ____
5th sound = diastolic = ____ |
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Term
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Definition
| Aortic regurgitation occurs when phase ___ of korotkoff sounds is missing. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ scaler has 1 blade at 99 degree angle to shank with a single cutting edge beveled at 45 degrees. It is used for gross removal of calculus (buccal, lingual or proximal adjacent to edentulous areas) |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ scaler has a rounded working end with multiple cutting edges. Each blade is 90 degrees with shank, used to crush or fracture very heavy calculus and smoothing restorations. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ scaler has 1 straight flat cutting edge beveled at 45 degrees to shank, used for heavy calculus removal in anteriors with a push stroke to dislodge deposits. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ scaler has a straight or curved end used for anteriors or contra-angled for posteriors. |
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Term
| False! The more simple the shank, the more anterior. |
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Definition
| T/F: The more complex the shank, the more anterior the intended use of a sickle scaler. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: Your visual cue when using a sickle scaler is that the handle is parallel to the long axis of the tooth on the distal. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: When using the sickle scaler in the anterior, you flip the instrument when changing from nears to fars. |
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Term
| 204S Posterior Sickle Scaler |
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Definition
| The ___ sickle scaler is best for calculus removal under contact points and is used on interproximal areas only. |
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Term
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Definition
| The ____ sickle scaler is not used on buccal or lingual. |
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Term
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Definition
| (Demin/Remin) is the dissolution of calcium phosphate mineral of the tooth by organic acids produced by bacteria. |
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Term
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Definition
| (Demin/Remin) occurs when acid is neutralized and the concentration of calcium phosphate ions reverse directions and diffuse back into the tooth. |
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Term
| mutans streptococci = initiation, lactobacilli = progression |
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Definition
| ___ ___ bacteria is responsible for the initiation of caries and child acquire it from parents whereas ____ bacteria is responsible for the progression. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ ___ enhances remineralzation, inhibits demineralization and bacterial metabolism. |
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Term
| False! You want to have low concentration and high frequency (think fluoridated water) |
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Definition
| T/F: You would rather have high concentration and low frequency when talking about fluoride. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___-___ppm is the optimal concentration of fluoride in water. |
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Term
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Definition
| A person in the ___ caries risk group has no incipient or cavitated lesions during the last 3 years and no factors that may increase caries risk. |
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Term
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Definition
| A child <6yrs in the ___ caries risk group would have no incipient or cavitated lesions during the last 3 years, but has at least 1 risk factor, whereas a child >6yrs could have 1/2 incipient/cavitated lesions in last 3 years or no incipient/cavitated lesions AND at least 1 risk factor. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ caries risk group contains children younger than 6 with any incipient/cavitated lesion during last 3 years, presence of multiple factors, low SES or suboptimal F exposure; or anyone >6yrs with 3+ incipient/cavitated lesions in last 3 years, multiple risk factors, suboptimal F exposure or xerostomia. |
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Term
moderate = 6month
high = 3 month |
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Definition
| A child <6 yrs w/in the ___ caries risk group should have varnish at 6 month intervals, but if they are w/in the ____ caries risk group they should have varnish at 3 month intervals. |
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Term
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Definition
| Anyone >6 can receive (varnish/gel/both) flueoride. |
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Term
APF = 12,300ppm, 3.5pH, rapid uptake
NaF = 9050ppm 7pH, slow uptake |
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Definition
| 1.23% Acidulated phosphate (APF) is ____ ppm, has a pH of ___ and has (rapid/slow) uptake. 2.0% neutral Na fluoride (NaF) is ___ ppm, ___ pH and (rapid/slow) uptake. |
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Term
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Definition
| On composite or porcelain restorations you should use (NaF/APF) because a lower pH may etch these materials. |
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Term
| 5% NaF, 22,600ppm fluoride |
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Definition
| Fluoride varnishes contain ___% (NaF/APF) and is ____ppm fluroide. |
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Term
0.25mg = primary or limited coverage
0.40mg = mixed dentition
0.50mg = full coverage permanent teeth |
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Definition
| ___mg dose of varnish is used on primary dentition or limited tooth surface coverage. ___mg dose is used on mixed dentition. ___mg is used only for patients with permanent dentition that require full coverage. |
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Term
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Definition
| What type of fluoride is indicated for use on root caries, ortho, uncooperative patients, older adults, dentin hypersensitivity and children? |
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Term
| False! You want to do the maxillary arch first |
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Definition
| T/F: When applying topical fluoride you want to do the mandibular arch first. |
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Term
| Columbia 13/14 - slight/mod supra and shallow pockets; Barnhart 5/6 - slight/mod supra and mod/deep pockets; mccall's 17/18 - heavy calc supra and sub |
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Definition
| ___ universal curet is used for slight to moderate calculus removal supra and in shallow to moderate pockets. ___ universal curet is used for slight to mod calc removal from supra and mod/deep pockets. ___ universal curet is used for moderate/heavy calc removal supra and subg where tissue allows. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: When instrumenting with universal curets the correct working end is when the terminal shank is parallel to long axis in distal and wraps around the mesial. |
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Term
| exogenous = outside, endogenous = inside |
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Definition
| ___ stain develops from sources outside tooth, but ___ stain develops from sources inside the tooth. |
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Term
I = pit and fissures
II = interproximals of posteriors
III = interproximals of ants
IV = interproximals of ants + incisal edge
V = gingival 1/3 |
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Definition
| Class ___ caries are in pits and fissures. Class __ caries are in proximal surfaces of anterior teeth, but do not involve incisal edge. Class ___ are in the interproximal and involve incisal edges of anteriors. Class ___ are in interproximal surfaces of posteriors. Class __ occur in the gingival 1/3 of facial/lingual. |
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Term
| Graceys 1/2, 3/4, and 5/6... we use 1/2 |
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Definition
| Graceys _/_, _/_ and _/_ are used to scale and root plane all surfaces of anterior teeth. We use Gracey _/_ in clinic. |
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Term
| 7/8 and 9/10... we use 7/8 |
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Definition
| Graceys _/_ and _/_ are used on buccal and linguals of posterior teeth only. We use gracey _/_ in clinic. |
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Term
| 11/12, 15/16... we use 15/16 |
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Definition
| Graceys _/_ and _/_ are used on mesial surfaces of posterior teeth. We use gracey _/_ in clinic. |
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Term
| 13/14 and 17/18, 17/18 better for 3rd molars but we use 13/14 in clinic |
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Definition
| Graceys _/_ and _/_ are used on distal surfaces of posterior teeth. _/_ is better for 2nd and 3rd molars, but we use _/_ in clinic. |
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Term
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Definition
| T/F: The longer/convex curved side of a gracey curet is the functional cutting edge. |
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Term
| tongue and floor of mouth (40%) |
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Definition
| What is the most common site for oral cancer? |
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Term
| 2nd - alveolar ridges and buccal mucosa; 3rd - palate |
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Definition
| What are the 2nd and 3rd most common site for oral cancer? |
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Term
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Definition
| What is the 4th most common site for oral cancer? |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is difficulty in swallowing, a symptom or warning signal of oral cancer. |
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Term
| lymphadenitis, lymphadenopathy |
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Definition
| ___ is inflammation of nodes, ___ is any disease process involving nodes. |
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Term
| reactive, neoplastic, metastatic |
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Definition
| A __ node is related to an infection. A __ node is the primary site of cancer. A __ node is the secondary site for metastasized cancer from head or distant parts of body. |
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Term
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Definition
| The ___ cervical chain is found on the surface of the SCM whereas the ___ cervical chain is found beneath it. |
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Term
| Occipital, subclavian, submental, submandibular, carotid and muscular |
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Definition
| Make sure to take a look at the neck triangles... |
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Term
| lips, labiomental sulcus, labiomarginal sulcus, nasolabial sulcus, wet line, vermillion zone |
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Definition
| Make sure to take a look at all the extraoral structures... |
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Term
| commissures, labial mucosa, labial frenum, minor salivary glands, stenson's duct, lateral frenum, alveolar mucosa, gingiva, hard palate, incisive papilla, palatine raphe, fovea palatinae, palatine rugae, soft palate, glossopalatine arch (anterior fauce), glossopharyngeal arch (posterior fauce), palatine tonsils, oropharynx, tongue, all the papillae on the tongue, sublingual caruncles/ridges, wharton's duct, lingual frenum |
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Definition
| Make sure to take a look at all the intraoral structures... |
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Term
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Definition
| Torus palatinus, torus mandibularis and exostosis are (common/uncommon) intraoral abnormalities. |
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Term
| Size, color, morphology, location, history |
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Definition
| What are the 5 things you need in a lesion description? |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a minute red spot resulting from escape of small amount of blood. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a small flat hemorrhagic patch larger than a petechia |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ are larger than eccymosis localized collection of blood, usually clotted |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a persistent velvety red patch |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is the thickening of outer surface of epithelium, usually white |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a clinical white patch that does not rub off |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a blisterform lesion <5mm |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a blisterform lesion >5mm |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a blisterform lesion containing pus |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a nonblisterform lesion <5mm |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a nonblisterform lesion >5mm<2cm |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a nonblisterform lesion >2cm |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is a flat lesion of abnormal color |
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Term
| verrucous, papillomatous, fissured, corrugated, crusted |
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Definition
| ___ is wart-like, ___ is cauliflower-like/nipply, ___ is cracked, ___ is wrinkled, and ___ is dry or scabbed. |
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Term
| Practice documenting restorations and being able to name what each documentation means. |
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Definition
| Remember to go over your Dental charting stuff!! |
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Term
| GAR (General discussion of problem and treatment advised, Alternative txs, Risks) and NARCOB (Nature of procedure, Alternatives, Risks, Complications, Refusal/Opt out, Benefits) |
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Definition
| Name the 2 different approaches to informed consent: |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ scaler is driven by compressed air and operates within the audible range. ___ scaler uses electrical energy converted to mechanical vibration and operates above the audible range. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ powered scaler operates at 2kHz-9kHz. ___ powered scaler operates at 18kHz-50kHz. |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ powered scalers operate with an orbital O motion, all edges may be used and uses water for lavage only. |
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Term
| magnetostrictive, piezoelectric |
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Definition
| ___ ultrasonic scaler's vibratory tip moves elliptical and all sides are active. ___ ultrasonic scaler's vibratory tip mores in a linear direction and you use only the lateral surfaces. |
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