Term
|
Definition
| What the drug does to the body. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What the body does to the drugs. |
|
|
Term
| 4 different types of bonds from strongest to weakest |
|
Definition
| covalent, ionic, hydrogen, van der waals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The strongest bond
Two bonding atoms share electrons |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2nd strongest bond
atoms with an excess of electrons (imparting an overall negative charge on the atom) are attracted to atoms with a deficiency of electrons (imparting an overall postive charge on the atom) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
3rd strongest bond
Hydrogen atoms bound to nitrogen or oxygen become more positively polarized allowing them to bond to more negatively polarized atoms such as oxygen, nitrogen, or sulfur. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Least strongest bond
shifting electrons density in areas of a molecule, or in a molecule as a whole, results in the generation of transient positive or negative charges- these areas interact with transient areas of opposite charge on another molecules. |
|
|
Term
What are the six major types of drug-receptor interactions
|
|
Definition
| Transmembrane ion channel, Transmembrane linked to intracellular G protein, transmembrane with enzymatic cytosolic domain, intracellular, extracellular enzyme, adhesion |
|
|
Term
| Whate are the major pharmacodynamic relationships between drugs and their targets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you explain pharmacodynamics and impacts it? |
|
Definition
| How the drug effects the body |
|
|
Term
| How would you explain pharmacokinetics? What influences this? |
|
Definition
What the body does to the drug.
Aging- kidney function decreases, less muscle mass, Liver function decreases, lungs function decreases
Patients with renal disease, cardiac disease
Other medications |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Makes more enzymes, the drug is metabolized too quickly/excreted too quickly
Increased transcription or translation
Decreased degradation
Induction by another drug or autoinduction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Drugs not getting excreted so the drug can become toxic. |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean when we have a high volume of distribution |
|
Definition
Highly distributed into non-vascular compartments. Distribute very well to various sites of action.
Most of the drug is free and able to be used.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The drug is available for the body to use |
|
|
Term
| There are bonds that are reversible (competitve) which bond is usually is not? |
|
Definition
Covalent- electrons are shared equally, usually is not reversible.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| You can knock them off of the receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| It will not move them off of a receptor. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Protects our patients stomach |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-selective. It can affect the COX 1 and the COX 2 enzymes. It can affect the stomach lining. |
|
|
Term
| What is the CYP 450 enzyme system and why do we as APRN's care? |
|
Definition
Metabolizes drugs.
Approx. greater than 75% go through the CYP 450 system.
If this enzyme is not present they may not respond to the drug you are giving them.
Grapefruit juice interferes with CYP 450.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Water-loving/water soluble
Polar- usually ionized
Renal excretion
Requires transport mechanism to cross cell membranes & BBB
Forms H+ bonds
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Fat loving/ water insoluble
Lipophilic
Non-polar, usually not ionized
Passively diffuses across cell membranes and BBB |
|
|
Term
| Blood Brain Barrier (BBB) |
|
Definition
Antihistimine makes them sleepy - the drug is crossing BBB
If you have an infection in the brain- you need a medication that is going to cross the BBB |
|
|
Term
Hydrophilic drugs can penetrate the CNS via all of the mechanisms listed below except:
A. active transport
B. Facilitated transport
C. Intrathecal administration
D. Passive Diffusion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Drug binds with Receptor - DR* (*- illicits a response)
full response
Ex. Morphine
What happens if you keep increasing the dose? CNS/Respirations become more depressed. You have a higher risk of going into toxic/lethal dose.
Causes maximal change in cellular activity of target
Stabilizes DR*
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
DR and DR*
Drug binds with a receptor and illicits a response- it also responds to receptors and doesn't illicit a response.
You will not get a full affect like you do with morphine. This helps with drug withdrawels.
Ex. Buprenorphine
Activates receptor without maximal efficacy
Stabilizes DR and DR* |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stabilizes DR in the case of R*
If you have a drug that responds to a receptor and you have a low response or no response
Cancer drug- shrink tumor
Inactivates free active receptors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Competitve-Reversible binding blocks agonist at active or allosteric site
Stabilizes DR, Prevents DR*
Non-Competitive- Irreversible binding blocks agonist at active or allosteric site
Stabilizes DR, Prevents DR*
|
|
|
Term
| Competitive v non-competitive antagonists. |
|
Definition
| Competitive antagonists bind reversibly to the active site, and non competitive antagonists bind irreversibly to the active site or alosteric site. |
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Term
|
Definition
| the effective dose that produces a quantal effect (all or nothings) % of the population that takes it. Standard dose selected for initial tx. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
median toxicity dose in 50%
Ex. Diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| Effective dose and toxic dose |
|
Definition
| The further apart the better. The wider the therapeutic window. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lethal dose in 50% of the population. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Effective dose: 200mg-800mg
The higher the dose the closer they are going to be to the toxic dose.
Less likely to get adverse affects if you can get them by on the smaller dose. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the most desireable PD for a medication?
Low LD 50
LOW TI
High TI
Low TD 50 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
PO (oral meds)
First pass effect |
|
Definition
Goes through GI tract- liver
First pass effect- going to absorb a little of the drug
Transdermal- bypasses the liver. Doesnt have a first pass effect. Lower dose needed.
Oral drugs are higher in dosing.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ex. Codeine
It has to be metabolized. It is not active until it is metabolized to its active form (morphine)
Only give PO because it has to be metabolized (first pass effect)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Irratic absorption
not the same first pass effect as oral. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Nonionized, lipophilic drugs favored for oral absorption
Weak acids are best absorbed in the stomach
Weak bases are best absorbed in the small intestine. |
|
|
Term
| True regarding protein binding |
|
Definition
Drugs must be free (non protein bound) in order to reach its site of action and be metabolized and eliminated
Druges with a Low Vd may be highly protein bound and more likely to remain in the plasma compartment. |
|
|
Term
| Phenytoin and warfarin interactions |
|
Definition
dilantin occupied the protein and made more free coumadin increasing his INR
phenytoin can decrease or increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin an decrease is attributed to hepatic enzyme induction, and an increase to displacement of warfarin from protein binding sites.
Vitamin K interferes with warfarin |
|
|
Term
| On target adverse (intended tissue) |
|
Definition
Dose too high
Chronic activation or inhibition effects
Ex. Increased blood pressure with pseudoephedrine [alpha-1 agonist] given for nasal decongestion
Cough from lisinopril [ACE inhibitor] given for blood pressure control |
|
|
Term
| off target adverse (intended tissue) |
|
Definition
Unintended receptor
Incorrect receptor is activated or inhibited |
|
|
Term
| on target adverse (unintended tissue) |
|
Definition
correct receptor but incorrect tissue
Dose too hight
Chronic activation or inhibition effects
Ex. Benadryl |
|
|
Term
| off target (unintended tissue) |
|
Definition
incorrect receptor is activated or inhibitied
Ex. Beta Blocker |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following describes an off-target effect. |
|
Definition
| Metiprolol (beta- 1 blocker) given for HR control, causes bronchoconstriction in respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
Swelling itchy and has a rash
Drug toxicity?
Drug class?
what type of reaction is seen in a positive tb skin test? |
|
Definition
Type 1- anaphylactic
PCN
TB- Type 4 Cell mediated
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tissue: Heart
Action: Increased force and rate of contraction
Antagonist: Beta Blocker- decrease BP and HR |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tissue: Respiratory, uterine, vascular smooth muscle
Actions: Promotes smooth muscle relaxation
Tissue: Skeletal Muscle
Actions: Promotes potassium uptake
Tissue: Liver
Action: Activates glycogenolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tissue: Fat Cells
Action: Lypolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tissue: Smooth muscle
Action: Dilates renal blood vessels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tissue: Nerve endings
Action: Modulates transmitter release
Used in Parkinsons |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Low dose- increase renal perfusion
High dose- increases blood pressure |
|
|
Term
Muscarinic Effects Mnemonic
SLUG BAM |
|
Definition
SALIVATION/SECRETIONS/SWEATING
LACRIMATIN
URINATION
GASTROINTESTINAL UPSET
BRADYCARDIA/BROCHOCONSTRICTION//BOWEL MOVEMENT
ABDOMINAL CRAMPS
ANOREXIA
MIOSIS
DIARRHEA
EMESIS |
|
|
Term
| ANTICHOLINERGIC SIDE EFFECS; MNEMONIA |
|
Definition
KNOW THE ABCD'S OF ANTI-CHOLINERGIC SIDE EFFECTS
OR CAN'TS
ANOREXIA
BLURRY VISION
CONSTIPATION/CONFUSION
DRY MOUTH
SEDATION/STASIS OF URINE
CAN'T PEE
CAN'T SEE
CAN'T SPIT
CAN'T SHIT |
|
|
Term
| COMMON ANTICHOLINERGIC EFFECTS INCLUDE |
|
Definition
| BLURRED VISION, DRY MOUTH, ILEUS, URINARY RETENTION, TACHYCARDIA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MIXED ALPHA AND BETA AGONIST
A1=A2
B1=B2
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Increased mental activity
Brochiolar Dilation
Increased Resp Rate |
|
|
Term
| SNS Primary neurotransmitter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Building blocks of catecholamines |
|
Definition
Amino acids
Tyrosine and phenylalanine |
|
|
Term
Non selective sympathomimetic drugs
Epinepherine |
|
Definition
Direct Acting
alpha 1= alpha 2
betal 1 = beta 2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Direct acting
alpha 1= alpha 2
Beta 1 >> Beta 2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Direct Acting
D1/D2, B1, Alpha 1 |
|
|
Term
| Amphetamine, methamphetamine, methylphenidate |
|
Definition
Indirect Acting
Enhance the release of catecholamines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Normal BP <120 systolic and <80 diastolic
- All persons with BP >120/80 should initiate “Lifestyle Modifications”
- Treatment thresholds/goals
- <140/90 without DM or kidney disease
- <130/80 with DM or kidney disease
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- First-line therapy is thiazide diuretic unless there is a “compelling indication.”
- Most patients will require at least two medications to reach goal.
- In many cases, it is more effective to add a second agent from a different drug class than to increase the dose of the first agent.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Heart failure: Thiazide diuretic, β-blocker, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonist
- MI: β-blocker, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist
- High CVD risk: Thiazide, β-blocker, ACEI, CCB
- Diabetes: Thiazide diuretic, β-blocker, ACEI, ARB, CCB
- Chronic kidney disease: ACEI or ARB
- Recurrent stroke prevention: Thiazide diuretic, ACEI
- Isolated systolic hypertension: Thiazide diuretic, CCB
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Diastolic pressure >120 with evidence of progressive end organ damage
- Goal: decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hrs
- Clonidine
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Diastolic pressure >120 with evidence of end organ failure
- Goal: decrease DBP 100-105 asap
- Nitroprusside, NTG, Labetalol, Fenoldopam
|
|
|
Term
| Drug Class, Indications, Contraindications |
|
Definition
| Drug Class |
Indications |
CI |
| Diuretics |
Heart failure, systolic HTN |
Gout |
| β-blockers |
CAD, heart failure, migraine, tachyarrhythmias |
Asthma, heart block |
| α-blockers |
BPH |
Heart failure |
| CCBs |
Systolic HTN |
Heart block |
| ACEIs |
Heart failure, previous MI, diabetic nephropathy |
RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia |
| ARBs |
ACEI-associated cough, diabetic nephropathy, heart failure |
RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia |
|
|
|
Term
| Down regulation of sympathetic tone |
|
Definition
- β1-blockers
- α1-blockers
- α2-agonists
|
|
|
Term
| Modulation of vascular smooth tone |
|
Definition
- Calcium-channel blocker
- Potassium-channel openers
|
|
|
Term
| reduction of intravascular volume |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Modulation of renin-angiotensin-aldosteron system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean? |
|
Definition
Proceed very carefully. Patient can get into trouble quickly.
You must monitor these drug levels closely.
Drug interactions can cause this, decreased renal fx, n/v, burn, decreased albumin/protein.
What are your free drug levels? This is the amount of drug that can act |
|
|
Term
High Volume of Distribution
Low Volume of Distribution |
|
Definition
High volume: highly distributed into non-vascular compartments. Distribute very well to various sites of action
Low volume: retained within vascular compartment (plasma) does not distribute well. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1st line for treatment of HTN |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
HCTZ
C.MOA: competitive antagonism of NA CL transporter in distal tubule I.AE: hypokalemia E.Less effective is Crcl < 30 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Triamterene, amiloride A.MOA: NA channel blockade in collecting duct, increased K reabsorption F.Often used with HCTZ J.AE: Hyperkalemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide Work in loop of henle Indicated more for HF -ide B.MOA: inhibit Na-K-Cl cotransporter in loop of henle G.Alleviate congestive sxs of HF H. AE: dose related ototoxicity, decrease Mg, Decrease Ca, "sulfa" allergy I.AE: hypokalemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Indicated more for HF -one D. MOA: competitive antagonist at aldosterone receptor; inhibits mineralcorticoid receptors J.AE: hyperkalemia G.Alleviate congestive sxs of HF |
|
|
Term
| Hypertensive patient with asthma on low dose Metoprolol (Lopressor). |
|
Definition
Beta Blocker. It is selective for B-1.
Patient Education: selected a medication that is in theory only to affect heart, but it could affect breathing |
|
|
Term
| Good choice for someone with HTN and BPH |
|
Definition
alpha 1 blocker
Prazosin or Tamulasin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Start on Methyldopa- drug of choice for pregnancy.
(Now they are using Beta Blockers for pregnant women) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
MOA: Decrease sympathetic outflow from vasopressor centers in the brain stem
Advantages? Renal blood flow maintained, good for renal insufficiency. Ok in pregnant women.
AE: sedation, impaired concentration, nightmares, depression, vertigo, EPS, lacatation in men |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decrease HR, can produce resting bradycardia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
lisinopril, catopril, ramipril, enalapril, fosinopric, quinapril, benazepril
MOA: blocks ace from converting angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 Clinical Use: Diabetes with proteinuria, HTN, benefits for Heart Failure
AE: Cough (caused by build-up of bradykinin), angioedema, hyper K+
CI: Pregnancy, Renal artery stenosis Use of ibuprofen can interfere with hypertensive meds...it interferes with bradykinin |
|
|
Term
ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker) -sartan |
|
Definition
-sartan
MOA: competitive binding (to angiotensin 2) results in decrease peripheral vasoconstriction
AE: hyperkalemia, headache, diarrhea
CI: Pregnancy |
|
|
Term
Direct Renin Inhibitors -Tekturna |
|
Definition
works at beginning.
Well tolerated- very few adverse effects
CI: pregnancy |
|
|
Term
CCB (Calcium Channel Blockers) -pine |
|
Definition
MOA: block entry of extracellular Ca which is necessary for contraction
Metabolized by CYP3A4 - watch other drugs for competitivity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Selectivity for smooth muscle over cardiac muscle
decreased PVR |
|
|
Term
Nondihydropyridines Verapamil, diltiazem CCB |
|
Definition
| Can be used for HTN, antiarrythmic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a.HCTZ c.Furosemide (lasix) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
B.Spironolactone H.Losartan D. Aliskiren (Tekturna)More risk with ACEI E.Lisinopril |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
D.Gives off NO-arteriovenous dilation in smooth muscle F.Renal and hepatic insufficiency- risk of cyanide toxicity J. avaiable in parenteral form K.used in HTN urgency/emergency
Given IV or sublingual They need a vacation from it because the drug builds up and it needs to be taken off then put back on. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A. Stimulates NO formation in endotehlial cells-arteriole dilation H.Adverse effect- SLE I.Rapid first pass metabolism J.Available parenteral form K.Used in HTN uregency/emergency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
G. D1 stimulation-Diuresis, naturesis J. Available Parenteral form K.Used in HTN urgency/emergency |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
B. Used for alopecia as well as HTN C. K+ Channel openers E. Active metabolite can cause hypotensive effects for 24hrs despite short t1/2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| when you should use it...came from research |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antag |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| BB, ACEI, aldosterone antag |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, CCB |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Indications: heart failure, systolic HTN
CI: gout |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Indications: CAD, heart failure, migraine, tachyarrhythmias
CI: asthma, heart block |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Indications: BPH CI: Heart failure
MOA: Inhibitor peripheral vasomotor tone, reducing vasoconstriction, decreasing SVR
Precaution: 1st dose effect- postural hypotension
Na/H20 retention when given without a diuretic
Hepatically metabolized non -CYP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Indications: systolic HTN
CI: heart block |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Indications: heart failure, previous MI, diabetic nephropathy
CI: RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ACEI- assoc cough, diabetic nephropathy, heart failure
CI: RAS, pregnancy, hyperkalemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
C.Digoxin is a narrow therapeutic index drug D.Digoxin increases parasympathetic outflow. |
|
|
Term
| mild asthma, Type II DM, headaches |
|
Definition
Diuretic and an ACE Inhibitor
Labs: Potassium, Renal Function, Hgb A1C
Counseling: Diet (Diabetic, low sodium), exercise Avoid NSAIDS interferes with ACEI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ACEI- build up on bradykinin
put him on an ARB, put on cholesterol medication |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Come off of ARB, Selective BB, HCTZ is not working anymore, its not effective when patients Cr Cl < 30. Change his diurectic to loop (lasix is preferred) or aldosterone antagonist. He has left ventricular hypertrophy- we dont use non |
|
|
Term
51 year old hypertensive stable angina
Erectile dysfuction |
|
Definition
Nitrates- patch, sublingual, etc
A-aspirin, antianginals B-blood pressure, beta blockers C: Cholesterol, cigarettes D: Diet, Diabetes E: Education, exercise
Can he take viagra? No its contraindicated, it can cause hypotension. Tx with phenylepherine. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ST elevation
Medication: thrombolytic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
No st elevation
IV medication-heparin, gPIIb/IIIa
After: what drugs: ASA or clopidogrel, B Blocker, Lipid lowering agent, ACEI, aldosterone antag, antiplatelet, anticoag. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A.Moderate open Na channel blockade B. Decrease upstroke velocity D.Prolong repolarization/QT F.K+ blockade-Prolonged QT- Risk for TdP G.Anticholinergic effects J.AE's include lupus, thrombocytopenia, inotropy K.Prolongs AV node conduction/PR |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
B.Decrease upstroke velocity C.Mild open and inactivated Na channel blockade E. Not effective for SVT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
I.Use w/BB's produces additive negative inotropy B.Decrease upstroke velocity |
|
|
Term
Class 2 Antiarrhythmics
AKA Beta Blockers |
|
Definition
Beta receptors
Esmolol is injectable
Negative inotropic effect
Slow conduction through the AV node |
|
|
Term
| Class III antiarrhythmics |
|
Definition
K+ channels
sotalol- has B Blocking action
Dofetilide and Ibutilide cause Torsades de pointes due to the refractory period
Dofetilide must be administered by a provider specifically cerified by the drug company
amiodarone has drug interactions with warfarin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What drug blue/gray discoloration? Amiodarone- blocks potassium channels
Monitoring/tests? Pulmonary fx test, thyroid, PST, LfT, TFT, eye exam
AE: bradycardia, GI upset, corneal depoists, photo sensitivity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ca++ Channels
Slowed conduction through AV node
The non DHP CCB's are primarily used such as verapamil, diltiazem.
Cannot be used to treat ventricular tachycardia
CI: Heart failure 2nd to ionotropic effects
AE: Excessive AV blockage, bradycardia, hypotension
verapamil-constipation |
|
|
Term
| Prolong QT- delay cardiac cell repolarization |
|
Definition
A.Quinidine B.Procainamide C.Lidocaine F.Dofetilide |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A. Lupus, neutropenia, anemia: Procainamide D.Pulmonary toxicity: Amiodarone E.Torsades de Pointes: Ibutilide F.Seizures: Lidocaine |
|
|
Term
| NSAID and Antihypertensives |
|
Definition
| It can cancel some of the effectiveness of the antihypertensives. |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of diuretics might be |
|
Definition
Thiazides: Hypokalemia Potassium Sparing: Hyperkalemia Loop: Ototoxicity, hypomag and hypocalcemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
ARB Angiotensin receptor blocker Used when coughing (bradykinin) from ACE |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Narrow therapeutic window
excreted by kidneys |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hyper Tension/ Rate control / antiarrythmic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Na+ Channel, Beta Blockers, Potassium, Calcium, |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Taken Viagra- Blood pressure bottoms out |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Clinical Use: MI, ischemic stroke, atrial fib, prosthetic heart valves |
|
|
Term
Arterial Thromboses: Antiplatelet Matching A. Binds irreversibly B. Pro-drug C. Metabolized by 2C19 D. Causes Thrombocytopenia E. Causes Neutropenia F. Very weak platelet inhibitor G.Insufficiently reversed with platelet |
|
Definition
Aspirin: A Clopidogrel:B,C,A Ticlopidine:B,D,E Dipyridamole:F Abciximab: A,H,D AE: Increased risk of bleeding Eptifibatide,Tirofiban:D, G, H |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
reversed with Vit K 99% Albumin Bound Narrow Therapeutic Index |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Preexisting protein C or Protein S deficiency are more prone to skin necrosis. Micro bleeding under the skin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| You give hepain until the warfarin gets to its therapeutic effect because it takes 3-4 days. |
|
|
Term
| 82yr old male with a PMH of atrial fib on warfarin. reports a 3 day hx of bright red bleeding from his rectum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his bleeding episode? |
|
Definition
| B. His recent course of antibiotics for URI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Monitoring: aPtt Route of administration: Parenteral, SubQ Half Life: 1-2 hrs AE: HIT, bleeding, aminiotransferase levels, Hyperkalemia Antidote: Protamine |
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Term
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Definition
Monitoring: generally unneccesary. Can measure antifactor xa Route: Parenteral, SubQ Half-Life: 4-5 hours AE: Renally excreted Clinical Use: Larger therapeutic index Used in pregnancy |
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Term
| What can help break up an existing clot: |
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Definition
B. Fibrinolytics tPA, streptokinase, urokinase |
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Term
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Definition
-Want this number to be low Will not be treated the same in all cases. Diabetics- treated |
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Term
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Definition
| Want this number to be high |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Take at night because our bodies make cholesterol at night. It is made in the liver.
Block HMG CoA Reductace
Works in hepatocytes
Can cause muscle pain, rhabdomyo (monitor CPK) Elevation of transamines, LFT |
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Term
| Bile Acid Sequestrants: Work in small intestines |
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Definition
Cholestyramine, Colesevelam, colestipol Basic drug GI releated AE: bloating, dyspepsia |
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Term
Zetia- Plant Sterols
Works in small intestines |
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Definition
Downside of having patients lower their cholesterol through diet? Patients would have to eat large quantities of fruits and vegetables.
Foods are enhanced with plant sterols.
Metabolized by glucoronization |
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Term
Fibrates -act on PPAR alpha
-fibr |
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Definition
Increase HDL and decrease triglycerides.
AE: GI discomfort, increased transaminases, rare myopathy, arrhythmia
Drug Interation: Warfarin-displaces it from albumin and increases the free warfarin |
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Term
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Definition
Most effective on decreasing triglycerides and increasing HDL
Causes- flushing
Predose with asparin or nsaids to prevent flushing
Use with caution in diabetes- causes impaired insulin sensitivity |
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Term
44yo male PMH of DM II, HTN Total chole: 260/210 (after 6 wks) LDL: 180/105 HDL:35/35 Triglycerides: 350/340 |
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Definition
Lifestyle changes (exercise, quit smoking, eating better), Start him on a -Statin.
After six weeks add a fibrate or a nitrate. |
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Term
| How long does it take to see a change in cholesterol level? |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| Reduces cholesterol absorption in the small intestines. |
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Term
| Which qualities of a substance allow for passive diffusion across the BBB and other membranes? |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| Non ionized, Lipophilic Drugs |
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Term
| A patient who abruptly stops long-term (> 2 weeks) systemic steroids is at risk for developing: |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The difference between Long Acting Beta Agonists (LABA) and Short Acting Beta Agonists (SABA) is as follows |
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Definition
| LABA’s have a slow onset of action, while SABA’s peak in under an hour |
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Term
What is an example of first line therapy for ALL asthmatics? |
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Definition
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Term
| This anti-gout medication is excreted in both the bile and the urine and therefore can interact with many other medications: |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following statements regarding CORTICOSTEROIDS is TRUE? |
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Definition
| Inhaled doses are much smaller because the avoid first pass effect |
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Term
| As an NP in a busy Allergy practice, you know the following to be true regarding omalizumab (trade name Xolair ): |
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Definition
2.It is a SQ injection given q 2-4 weeks
3. It binds IgE and prevents degranualation of mast cells |
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Term
| lthough cromolyns stabilize mast cells and have a quick onset of action, they are not considered rescue medications for the following reason: |
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Definition
| They do not relieve an allergic response after it has begun |
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Term
| All of the following are true regarding colchicine, EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| It significantly decreases uric acid levels in the treatment of gout. |
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Term
| Which drug does NOT work on the arachidonic acid pathway |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Dipenhydramine (Benadryl) can treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The major difference between COX1 and selective COX2 inhibitors is the following |
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Definition
| COX 1 inhibitors inhibit platelet function and selective COX 2 inhibitors do not |
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Term
| TRUE OR FALSE? Anticholinergic effects are more prominent with 1st generation than with 2nd generation H1 antihistamines? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are drug(s) of choice for an ACUTE GOUT attack |
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Definition
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Term
| Which statement about 2nd generation antihistamines is FALSE |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following seem to be important in absence seizures |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following have significant anticholinergic effects and may cause cardiac conduction abnormalities? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is considered an adequate trial for most antidepressants? |
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Definition
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Term
| Over time, a patient’s response to levodopa will |
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Definition
| Decrease primarily due to the development of tolerance |
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Term
| All of the following are used as migraine prophylaxis EXCEPT |
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Definition
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Term
| When educating your patients about NON-OPIOID analgesics, include all of the following, EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| Constipation is a chronic side effect |
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Term
| What distinguishes ASA from other NSAIDS? |
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Definition
| A Single dose can precipitate an asthma attack |
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Term
| All of following are characteristics of full opioid agonists EXCEPT |
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Definition
| All are metabolized in the liver by the CYP 450 pathway |
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Term
| Which of the following is the best choice to treat pain in an ESRD patient? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Regarding NSAIDS: All of the following are true except |
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Definition
| They block conversion of arachadonic acid to prostaglandin via the lipo-oxygenase pathway |
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Term
| In comparing acetaminophen with ASA, the following characteristics are specific to acetaminophen |
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Definition
No anti-inflammatory effects There is a maximum daily dose It should be used cautiously in patients on INH |
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Term
| The BOXED warning for NSAIDS |
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Definition
| Applies to the entire class except aspirin |
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Term
| Which statement is correct with regard to FULL agonists and PARTIAL agonists? |
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Definition
| Partial agonist are less likely to cause dependence |
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Term
| You know the following to be TRUE regarding ETOH ABUSE AND WITHDRAWL treatment: |
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Definition
| Diazepam (Valium) is beneficial due to fast onset and long T ½ |
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Term
| The main side effect of methotrexate is _____________ and it can be treated with ____________ |
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Definition
| Megaloblastic anemia; folic acid |
|
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Term
| the following is/are TRUE regarding tramadol (Ultram): |
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Definition
t is indicated for moderate to severe pain
It blocks re-uptake of NE and 5HT |
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Term
| With regard to NSAIDS, the renal adverse effects of this drug class |
|
Definition
| decrease synthesis of renal vasodilator prostaglandins |
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Term
| Which of the following can be used as adjuvant analgesics—most commonly for neuropathic pain? |
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Definition
| Venlafexine (Effexor), corticosteroids, capsaicin cream, gabapentin (Neurtontin) |
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Term
| In the parasympathetic nervous system, the PRIMARY neurotransmitter is |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Non-selective adrenoreceptor agonists include: 1. Norepinephrine, 2. Clonidine, 3. Terbutaline, 4. Epinephrine |
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Definition
|
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Term
| ____________ is an autoreceptor, present on the adrenergic neuron and its stimulation results in negative feedback |
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Definition
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Term
| Most BETA antagonists are used to decrease CO and BP; however timolol and betaxolol are used to treat __________ by decreasing ___________________ |
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Definition
| Glaucoma/aqueous humor production |
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Term
| Common anticholinergic effects include: |
|
Definition
| Blurred vision, dry mouth, ileus, urinary retention |
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Term
| Which would be useful in a patient with heart failure and hyperkalemia |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| Phenylephrine is used to treat vasodilatation r/t concurrent PD5 inhibitor and isosorbide dinitrate administration. |
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Term
| Which of the following AE: Drug combinations is/are correct? |
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Definition
Fever, joint pain and hepatomegaly: Procainamide
Exacerbation of HF : Flecainide
Tinnitus : Quinidine
Pulmonary toxicity : Amiodarone
Torsades de Pointes : Sotalol |
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Term
| Which of the following accelerate cardiac cell repolarization? |
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Definition
Lidocaine
Mexiletine
Tocainide |
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Term
| Which of the following statements regarding digoxin’s therapeutic effects are true? |
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Definition
Digoxin increases urine production by increasing renal blood flow
Digoxin’s arterial effects lead to a reduction in release of renin, aldosterone and angiotensin II
Digoxin reduces sympathetic tone via the baroreceptor reflex |
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Term
| A patient's digoxin level is 1.9. Which is NOT is a likely cause? |
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Definition
| Beta Blocker used to treat his AV block |
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Term
| Which of the following delay cardiac cell repolarization, thus increasing the risk of Torsades de Pointes? |
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Definition
Quinidine
Procainamide
Sotalol
Bretylium |
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Term
| When considering the compelling indications, which of the following would be appropriate drug therapies? |
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Definition
A pt with DM taking HCTZ and Captopril.
A pt with CKD taking Valsartan
A pt with a h/o MI taking Metoprolol, Lisinopril and Spironolactone |
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Term
| Which of the following are considered “kidney protective” and used in diabetic patients? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the following patient counseling is inappropriate? |
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Definition
Explaining that the diarrhea and flatulence related to ezetimibe will decrease with time Response Feedback: No GI AE’s with cholesterol absorption inhibitors. |
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Term
| Which of the following regarding the clinical use of unfractionated heparin is FALSE? |
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Definition
| It is the DOC for outpatient DVT prevention post hip and knee replacement surgery |
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Term
| Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the MOA of lipid-lowering agents? |
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Definition
| Ezetimibe (Zetia) reduces cholesterol absorption by the gallbladder. |
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Term
| A 69 y/o male patient who has been taking Coumadin for three yrs for a-fib shows up in your office with a 3-day history of bright red bleeding from his rectum. Which of the following is the most likely cause? |
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Definition
| recent course of antibiotics for URI |
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Term
|
Definition
Diastolic >120 with evidence of progressive end organ damage Goal: Decrease BP to 100-105 within 24 hours TX: Clonodine |
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Term
|
Definition
Diastolinc pressure >120 with evidence of end organ failure Goal: Decrease DBP 100-105 asap Nitroprusside, NTG, labetalol, fenoldopam |
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Term
| Down regulators of sympathetic tone |
|
Definition
| B1 Blick, Alpha 1 block, alpha 2 Agonist |
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Term
|
Definition
| diuretics, aldosterone antag, venodilators |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| ACE I, B Blockers, Vasodialators |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Cardiac Glycosides, sympathomimetic amines, phosphodiasterase inhibitors |
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Term
Venous Thromboses Coagulation Factors affected by: |
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Definition
Unfractionated Heparin: xa, IIa (Thrombin) (Direct thrombin inhibitor- Argatroban: X, Xa, IIa (thrombin- negligible) Selective Factor Xa- Fondaparinux: Xa Direct thrombin inhibitor- Dabigatran: Xa, IIa (Thrombin) Warfarin: II, VII, IX, X |
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Term
|
Definition
Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) or fish oils
Reduce TG biosynthesis and increase fatty acid oxidation in the liver
OTC (13-63%) RX: Lovaza 84% |
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Term
ATP III Guidelines for Cholesterol
Step 1 |
|
Definition
| Step 1: Determine lipoprotein levels- obtain complete lipoprotein profile after 9-12 hour fast |
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Term
| LDL Cholesterol- Primary Target of Therapy |
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Definition
<100 Optimal 100-129 Near Optimal/Above Optimal 130-159 Borderline high 160-189 High >=190 Very High |
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Term
|
Definition
<200 Desirable 200-239 Borderline High >=240 High |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
Identify presence of clinical atherosclerotic disease that confers high risk for coronary heart disease (CHD) events (CHD risk eqivalent)
Clinical CHD Symptomatic carotid artery disease Peripheral arterial disease abdominal aortic aneurysm
Note in ATP III Diabetes is regarded as a CHD risk equivalent |
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Term
|
Definition
Determine presence of major risk factors (other than LDL) Cigarette Smoking Hypertension (>=140/90) Low HDL cholesterol (<40) Family history of premature CHD (CHD in male first degree relative <55 years; CHD in female first degree relative <65 years) Age (men >=45; women>=55) |
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Term
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Definition
| If 2+ risk factors (other than LDL) are present without CHD or CHD risk equivalent, assess 10 year short term CHD risk. Three levels of 10 year risk: >20%- CHD risk equivalent; 10-20%; <10% |
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Term
|
Definition
Determine risk category
Establish LDL goal Determine need for therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) Determine the need for drug therapy LDL Cholesterol Goals and Cutpoints for Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) and Drug Therapy in Different Risk Categories.
Risk Category LDL Goal (mg/dL) LDL at Which to Initiate TLC (mg/dL) LDL at Which to Consider Drug Therapy (mg/dL) CHD or CHD Risk Equivalent (10-year risk > 20%) <100 (optimal < 70) ≥100 ≥130 (100-129: drug optional) 2+ Risk Factors (10-year risk ≤20%) <130 ≥130 10-year risk 10-20% ≥130 10-year risk < 10% ≥160 0-1 Risk Factor <160 ≥160 ≥190 (160-189: drug optional) |
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Term
|
Definition
Diet – low saturated fat, low cholesterol Weight management Increased physical activity |
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Term
| Step 7: Consider adding drug therapy if LDL exceeds levels shown in Step 5 table |
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Definition
Consider drug simultaneously with TLC for CHD and CHD equivalents Consider adding drug to TLC after 3 months for other risk categories See Table in ATP III Guidelines |
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Term
| Step 8: Identify metabolic syndrome and treat, if present, after 3 months of TLC |
|
Definition
Metabolic Syndrome (any 3 of the following)
Abdominal obesity: based on waist circumference Elevate triglycerides: ≥ 150 mg/dL Low HDL: men < 40 mg/dL; women < 50 mg/dL Blood pressure ≥130/≥85 mmHg Fasting glucose ≥ 110 mg/dL |
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Term
| Step 9: Treat elevated triglycerides |
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Definition
Primary aim of therapy is to reach LDL goal Intensify weight management Increase physical activity
If triglycerides are ≥ 200 mg/dL after LDL goal is reached, secondary goal is non-HDL cholesterol (total cholesterol minus HDL)
Non-HDL goal is 30 mg/dL higher than LDL goal
Risk Category LDL Goal (mg/dL) Non-HDL Goal (mg/dL) CHD or CHD Risk Equivalent (10-year risk > 20%) <100 <130
2+ Risk Factors (10-year risk ≤20%) <130 <160
0-1 Risk Factor <160 <190
If TGs 200-499 mg/dL after LDL goal is reached, consider adding drug if needed to reach non-HDL goal:
Intensify therapy with LDL-lowering drug Add nicotinic acid or fibrate |
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