Term
|
Definition
| Outside and in center of brain and is cell bodies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inside of brain an is axons |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what happens during preembryonic stage? |
|
Definition
| once cell will mulitply to many cells and then forms the blastocyst which forms around what will become the body. |
|
|
Term
| what does the outside of the blastocyst become? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 stages in the preembryonic? |
|
Definition
| Fertilized egg, blastocyst, embryonic disk |
|
|
Term
| what are the two cell layers of the embryonic disk? |
|
Definition
| ectoderm (top layer) and endoderm (bottom layer) |
|
|
Term
| Time stage for embryonic stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what happens in embryonic stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| sensory organs, epidermis, NS |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dermis, muscles, skeleton, excretory and circulatory sytems, CT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| gut, liver, pancreas, respiratory system |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 developmental stages? |
|
Definition
| preembryonic, embryonic, fetal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what ar 3 things that happen in the fetal stage? |
|
Definition
| development of the NS, myelination, and nerves become specific fibers and start to innervate structures |
|
|
Term
| when does the nerual tube formation happen? |
|
Definition
| days 18-26 (embryonic stage) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 steps involved in the neural tube formation process? |
|
Definition
| Thickening of ectoderm, edges of plate fold, neural tuve formed on day 21, cells separate from tube, neural tube and neural crest move inside the embryo, differentiation of tissue |
|
|
Term
| Where does the thickening of the ectoderm in the nerual tube formation occur? What is this called? |
|
Definition
| Happens at the embryo's back and is called the neural plate |
|
|
Term
| when the edges of the plate fold in neural tube formation, what does it form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when the neural tube is formed, where does the formation start and what direction does it head? |
|
Definition
| starts in the middle and spreads toward head and tail |
|
|
Term
| when the cells separate from the tube in neural tube formation, what does it form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whate are the two types of tissue differention that happens in neural tube formation? What color is the tissue and what are they? |
|
Definition
Mantle layer (inner)- cell bodies (gray matter)
Marginal layer (outer): white matter (axons) |
|
|
Term
| what are somites (nodules)? |
|
Definition
| nodules of cell clusters within mesoderm surrounding neural tube |
|
|
Term
| Whate are the 3 somites and what do they become? |
|
Definition
Sclerotome: vertebrae and skull
myotome: skeletal muscle
dermatome: dermis |
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 structures that the neural crest becomes? |
|
Definition
| Sensory neurons, autonomic neuron, myelin-producing cells, parts of endocrine organs |
|
|
Term
| when does the brain begin to form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 enlargments in brain formation? |
|
Definition
| hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain |
|
|
Term
| what are the components of the hindbrain? |
|
Definition
| medulla, pons, cerebellum, fourth ventricle |
|
|
Term
| what are the components of the midbrain? |
|
Definition
| midbrain and cerebral aqueduct |
|
|
Term
| what are the components of the forebrain? |
|
Definition
| posterior forebrain (thalamus and hypothalamus and third ventricle); anterior forebrain (cerebrum, and lateral ventricles) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| between what time span in development can major developmental disorders occur in? |
|
Definition
| between day 14 and week 20 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres are not formed, brainstem is present but malformed, skull does not form |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| chromosomal abnormalities, maternal nutritional deficiencies, maternal hyperthermia |
|
|
Term
| in regards to the neural tube closure, what didn't happen which causes anencephaly? |
|
Definition
| didn't close at top correctly |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inferior portion of neural tube doesn't close correctly, vertebrae do not close around neural tube, may hba normal function if neural tissue doesn't protrude |
|
|
Term
| what causes spina bifida? |
|
Definition
| maternal folic acid deficit |
|
|
Term
| what is chiari malformation? |
|
Definition
| herniation of cerebellar tonsil through the foramen magnum |
|
|
Term
| when do symptoms begin for chiari malformations? |
|
Definition
| adolescence or early adulthood |
|
|
Term
| what are symptoms of chiari malformations? |
|
Definition
| head and neck pain (occiptal headaches that usually are worse when cough, sneeze, or strain), nystagmus, double vision, cranial nerve dysfunction (#2-#7), poor coordination/walk irregularly/might choke on things more |
|
|
Term
| what can be done for chiari malformations? |
|
Definition
| surgery to remove part of back of skull to make more room for cerebellum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| movement and postural disorder, permanent and non-progressive brain damage |
|
|
Term
| what causes cerebral palsy? |
|
Definition
| abnormal development in utero or after delivery; metabolic, immune, or coagulation disorders; infection; trauma; hypoxia (not enough O2) |
|
|
Term
| what are symptoms of cerebral palsy? |
|
Definition
| scissor gait (cross feet when walk); motor disorders; cognitive, somatosensory, visual, auditory, and speech deficits; may have normal and above normal intelligence; strabismus |
|
|
Term
| what is fetal alcohol syndrome? |
|
Definition
| cognitive, movement, and behavioral problems; growth deficiencies; mental retardation |
|
|
Term
| what are the facial anomalies associated with fetal alcohol syndrome? |
|
Definition
| small head, eyes set far apart, epicanthal folds, small palpebral fissure, short nose, thin upper lip |
|
|
Term
| what are the direct and indirect effects in fetal alcohol syndrome? |
|
Definition
direct: crosses the placenta (and baby can become addicted)
indirect: vasoconstriction (don't get enough blood supply for fetus to develop properly) |
|
|
Term
| what is long-term potentiation in regards to learning and memory? |
|
Definition
| conversion of silent synapses to active synapses (stimulation of diff parts of brain creates more synapses) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lifelong ability of a nerve to compensate for injury and adjust its activity in response to the environment (brain grows and develops all through life) |
|
|
Term
| when is the most dramatic period of neuroplasticity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is stimulation so important in the first 2 years of life in regards to neuroplasticity? |
|
Definition
| synapses form more and earlier; more dendritic branching; more synapses; higher gene expression |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 neuronal responses to injury? |
|
Definition
| wallerian degeneration, regeneration, and reorganization or the cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
| what is wallerian degeneration? |
|
Definition
| distal axon degenerates, myelin surrounding distal portion of nerve degenerates, macrophages phagocytize the myelin, call body and postsynaptic cell may also degenerate |
|
|
Term
| which nervous system has the most regeneration, PNS or CNS? |
|
Definition
| Some regeneration in PNS and none in CNS |
|
|
Term
| how does nerve regeneration happen? |
|
Definition
| Axon proximal to the cut first degenerates then starts the regeneration process. the Schwann cells form a column along the area where the axon was. the axon grows across the area which the nerve was cut and enter the schwann cell columns. the neuron reinnervates the structure, and a new myelin sheath is formed. |
|
|
Term
| what is collateral sprouting? |
|
Definition
| an undamaged neuron branches to make a synapse at a site where a damaged neuron used to synapse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| occurs when the axon and its target have been damaged; injured axon send out side sprouts to a new target |
|
|
Term
| reorganization of cerebral cortex |
|
Definition
| cortical maps (maps of functional areas of the cerebral cortex) can be modified by sensory input, learning, or following injury to the brain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| designed to receive information, process information, and generate output. transmits impulses from one area of the body to another. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| receive info from other neurons via NT and transmit it to cell body; produce local potentials, and if strong enough, action potential |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transmit AP away from cell bodies; transmit proteins, NT, empty vesicles, and other substances between cell body and presynaptic terminals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| bipolar, unipolar, multipolar |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| single dendrite and single axon |
|
|
Term
| where are bipolar neurons found |
|
Definition
| some specialized sensory organs including retina |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| single axon and no dendrites |
|
|
Term
| where are unipolar neurons found |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| several dendrites and a single axon |
|
|
Term
| where are multipolar neurons found |
|
Definition
| most neuron in CNS and muscle neurons are this |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| membrane potential becomes less negative than the resting potential (resting is -70 so it becomes more positive) |
|
|
Term
| what is hyperpolarization |
|
Definition
| membrane potential becomes more negative than resting |
|
|
Term
| what is the ratio of Na+ to K+ shuttled in and out of the cell? |
|
Definition
| 3 Na+ go in for every 2 K+ that go out |
|
|
Term
| A resting membrane potential is caused when there is a balance between what 3 things? |
|
Definition
| permeability, concentration, and charge |
|
|
Term
| what ions or molecules are inside and what outside during resting MP? |
|
Definition
| Na+ and Cl- are outside and K+ and negativly charged proteins are inside |
|
|
Term
| concentration differences between inside and outside of cell are maintained due to what three things? |
|
Definition
| presence of negatveily charged proteins in cell, permeability of cell membrane, and sodium-potassium exchange pump |
|
|
Term
| what is a local potential? |
|
Definition
| depolarization or hyperpolarization which is confined to a small region of the cell. if it's strong enough, an action potential is produced. |
|
|
Term
| local potentials can be increased by what two things? |
|
Definition
| Temporal and spatial summation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| stimuli that occur multiple times within milliseconds are added together |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| stimuli that occur in different locations are added together |
|
|
Term
| how strong does a local potential need to be to make an action potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in regards to speed of action potentials, what diameter axons propagate them faster? Are myelinated or unmyelinated faster? |
|
Definition
| Large diameter axon propagate AP faster than smaller diameter ones. Myelinated goes faster than unmyelinated. |
|
|
Term
| what is the purpose of a refractory period? |
|
Definition
| keeps AP from reversing the direction of propagation |
|
|
Term
| what are the two types of refractory periods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| absolute refractory period |
|
Definition
| period of time in which the axon is not sensitive to another stimulus (during depolarization phase and most of the repolarization phase) |
|
|
Term
| relative refractory period |
|
Definition
| only a stronger than normal stimulus can cause another AP (during the last part of the repolarization phase) |
|
|
Term
| how do local anesthetics work in regards to action potentials? |
|
Definition
| Pain occurs due to an AP being sent from site of pain to CNS. These act at the site to block Na+ channels which prevent the propagation of AP along sensory neurons. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| High extracellular Ca2+ levels cause Na+ channels to close. When levels of calcium are low, it causes the cellular membrane to become more permeable to Na+. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| muscles spasms/cramps (2 much Na+ coming in), nervousness, tetany (muscles locking up) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| lack of calcium in diet, lack of vitamin D, decreased secretion of parathroid hormone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| support system for the neurons |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 neuroglia in the CNS |
|
Definition
| astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglial cells |
|
|
Term
| what is the one neuroglia in PNS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| star-shaped cells; provide physical support to neurons and blood vessels; role in cell signaling; aid in formation of the BBB by releasing chemicals that stimulate tight junctions between endothelial cells; regulates content of extracellular space; transport nutrients to neurons; guides nerves to where they need to be in CNS development; clean up cells and phagocytosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| protect and insulate neurons in CNS (gives us myelination); cytoplasmic extensions wrap around axons many time to produce the myelin sheath which allows for efficient conduction of AP; can supply myelin to several axons |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| specialized macrophages in CNS; phagocytosis "immune system of CNS" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| protect and insulate neurons in PNS; wraps around an axon many times to produce the myelin sheath which allows for efficient conduction of AP; only myelinates one axon; phagocytic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| in myelinated axons: interruptions in myelin sheath, contain high density of Na+ and K+ channels; allow AP to skip over and moves so fast |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| AP jump from one node of ranvier to the next causing the AP to travel much faster than in an unmyelinate axon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| autoimmune disease in which antibodies attack myelinated CNS nerves; all glial cells in CNS are affected; loss of saltatory conduction; axons can be sparred, partially damaged, or totally destroyed. if axons are totally destroyed irreversible neurological damage occurs |
|
|
Term
| symptoms of multiple sclerosis |
|
Definition
| weakness, lack of coordination, decreased vision, double vision, impaired sensation, bladder and bowel dysfunction, depression |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
age of onset: 20-50 years with a mean age of about 30-35
more common in women
prevalence: 115 per 100,000 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 90% of patients have pain or discomfort around eye with eye movement; decreased vision (degree of loss varies widely, usually monocular); flashes of light may also occur |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| afferent pupillary defect; decreased visual acuity; acquired color loss; visual field deficit; decreased contrast sensitivity; optic neuritis (only 1/3 have this), the rest of retrobulbar optic neuritis |
|
|
Term
| treatment/prognosis for optic neuritis |
|
Definition
| 90% spontaneously recover within 3-5 weeks; a 3 day course of IV corticosteroid followed by 15 days of oral prednisone and then interferon beta-1a lowers the risk of developing MS over 3 years to 35% instead of 50% risk in untreated patients |
|
|
Term
| Excitatory Postsynaptic potential |
|
Definition
| when a NT causes an increased permeability to Na+ ions causing a local potential, and if strong enough, an action potential |
|
|
Term
| inhibitory postsynaptic potential |
|
Definition
| when NT causes increase permeability to K+ and Cl-, hyperpolarization occurs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| influences the likelihood an AP will occur in postsynaptic cell (released in axo-axonic synapse) and can influence the amount of NT released from the presynaptic terminal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| decreases NT release froom presynaptic membrane and less likely to get AP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| increases NT release from presynaptic membrane and more likely to get AP |
|
|
Term
| does the NT or receptor make the AP inhibitory/excitatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the 1 cholinergic NT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| what kind of regulation is ACh involved in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| nicotinic (brief opening and ALWAYS excitation) or muscarinic (slow-acting and can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on the tissue it's found in) |
|
|
Term
| what blocks the release of ACh causing paralysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is caused by the destruction of ACh receptors on skeletal muscle membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 amino acid NT? |
|
Definition
| glutamate, aspartate, GABA, glycine |
|
|
Term
| what is the primary NT in CNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do glutamate and aspartate do? |
|
Definition
| elicit neural plasticity in learning and development, contributes to cell death after injury to the CNS |
|
|
Term
| what is major inhibitory NT in CNS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| prevents excessive neural activity |
|
|
Term
| what 2 things activate GABA receptors? |
|
Definition
| benzodiazepines and barbituates |
|
|
Term
| What increases the presynaptic release of GABA reducing excessive muscle activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inhibitory and prevents excessive neural activity |
|
|
Term
| what inhibits glycine receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 monoamine NT |
|
Definition
| norepinhephrine, serotonin, and dopamine |
|
|
Term
| what is norepinephrine's main role? |
|
Definition
| increasing attention to sensory information (fight or flight) |
|
|
Term
| where is norepinephrine found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 receptors for norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
| alpha1, alpha2, beta1, beta2 |
|
|
Term
| is norepi excitatory, inhibitory, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are two disorders that involved excessive levels of norepi? |
|
Definition
| panic disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder |
|
|
Term
| How do MAO inhibitors affect norep? |
|
Definition
| increase they affect of norepi by decreasing the activity of monoamine oxidase (typically breaks down norepi) |
|
|
Term
| what blocks reuptake of norepi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do amphetamines do to norepi? |
|
Definition
| increase release and block reuptake |
|
|
Term
| what is serotonin's role in the body? |
|
Definition
| arousal level, mood, and suppressing sensory information |
|
|
Term
| is serotonin excitatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do anti-depression drugs do to serotonin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dopamine has an effect on what 3 things? |
|
Definition
| motor activity, congnition, and motivation |
|
|
Term
| is dopamine excitatory or inhibatory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 peptide NT? |
|
Definition
| endorphins, enkephalins, and substance p |
|
|
Term
| endorphins/enkephalins are excitatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| substance p is excitatory or inhibitory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 3 NT are associated with pain perception? |
|
Definition
| endorphines, enkephalins, substance P |
|
|
Term
| how many pairs of nerves are in the PNS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| of the 43 pairs of nerves in the PNS, ho0w many are cranial and how many are spinal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cell bodies are located where for the afferent division of the ANS? |
|
Definition
| dorsal root ganglia near spinal cord |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 subdivisions of efferent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transmits AP from CNS to skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
| where are the cell bodies located in SNS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| transmits AP from CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or glands |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 subdivisions of ANS? |
|
Definition
| parasymp, symp, and enteric |
|
|
Term
| where do the preganglionic fibers of the Sympa NS originate? |
|
Definition
| central portion of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| The preganglionic fibers leave the spinal cord between what two vertebrae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| after the preganglionic fibers leave spinal cord in symp NS, where do they project to? |
|
Definition
| sympathetic chain ganglia |
|
|
Term
| what 2 nerves from the symp NS don't synapse in the symp chain ganglia? |
|
Definition
| splanchnic and adrenal medulla |
|
|
Term
| what does the splanchnic nerve innervate? |
|
Definition
| pancreas, abdomen, and gut |
|
|
Term
| what cells is the adrenal medulla derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the adrenal medulla do? |
|
Definition
| secretes epineph and norepineph into bloodstream |
|
|
Term
| What % of cells in adrenal medulla secrete epinephrine? Norepinephrine? |
|
Definition
| 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
| what do the branches from the superior cervical chain ganglia in the sympa nerve system supply? |
|
Definition
| blood vessels to skin/skeletal muscles of the face; sweat glands of face; salivary glands; dilator muscle of iris; mueller's muscle (around eyes and helps levator lift eyelid); blood vessels that supply the lacrimal gland |
|
|
Term
| if the sympa NS is stimulated for lacrimal gland and salivary gland, do the eyes/mouth get more wet or dry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is horner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| any lesion that affects the sympa pathway to the eye |
|
|
Term
| signs of horner's syndrome |
|
Definition
| ipsilateral ptosis, miosis (constriction of pupils), anhidrosis (lack of sweating on same side) |
|
|
Term
| causes of preganglionic horner's syndrome |
|
Definition
| cerebral vascular accident (stroke), multiple sclerosis (degeneration of myelination on axons), pituitary tumor, pancoast's tumor (tumor of apex of lung), mediastinal mass (area between lungs), neck trauma, coronary bypass surgery, tyroidectomy |
|
|
Term
| causes of postganglionic horner's syndrome (not as serious) |
|
Definition
| head or neck trauma, migraine, vascular (diabetes, HTN), cluster headache, herpes zoster, internal carotid dissection (rip in wall and blood is turbulent going through) |
|
|
Term
| what is the first step in checking for horner's syndrome? |
|
Definition
| use 4 or 10% cocaine which blocks reuptake of norepinephrine. if not horner's, pupil will dilate. if it is horner's, pupil will not dilate. |
|
|
Term
| if no cocaine is available, what can you do instead to check for horner's? |
|
Definition
| use apraclonidine which is a glaucoma drug. it normally doesn't dilate the eye but it will cause dilation in patient with horner's. this is becaue when you get nerve damage, nerves become hypersensitive and things that normally wouldn't dilate the eye do dilate it. |
|
|
Term
| after you determine a patient has horner's, what do you do to determine where the damaged nerve is? |
|
Definition
| use 1% hydroxyamphetamine which stimulates release of norepi from postganlionic cell. no dilation will occur if damage is in postsynaptic nerve because norepi cannot be released from damaged nerve. if dilation occurs, it's preganglionic lesion. |
|
|
Term
| what 2 places do preganglionic fibers of the parasymp NS originate? |
|
Definition
| cranial nerve nuclei in brainstem and lateral parts of the sacral region of the spinal cord (S2-S4) |
|
|
Term
| what 4 nerves carry parasymp info? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasymp fibers in oculomotor (CN 3) supply what two muscles? |
|
Definition
| ciliary muscles and sphincter muscle of iris (constrict pupil) |
|
|
Term
| what 3 things do the parasymp fibers in the facial nerve (CN 7) supply? |
|
Definition
| lacriaml gland, mucus glands in nasal cavity, and sublingual salivary glands |
|
|
Term
| when the parasymp stimulates lacrimal gland and salivary gland, do you get wet or dry sensations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasymp fivers in glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) supply what one thing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasymp fibers in vagus nerve (CN 10) supply what 4 things? |
|
Definition
| cardiac plexus, pulmonary plexus, esophageal plexus, and digestive organs |
|
|
Term
| what is a vasovagal response |
|
Definition
| person faints, or feels faint, due to the lack of blood to the brain |
|
|
Term
| what causes a vasovagal response? |
|
Definition
| powerful emotions stimulating the vagus nerve (like fear of drops being put in eye or something coming close to eye) |
|
|
Term
| before a patient has a vagovasal response, what might they report? |
|
Definition
| weakness, lightheadedness, nausea, blurred vision, impaired hearing, near syncope |
|
|
Term
| if someone is about to have a vasovagal response, what should you do with them? |
|
Definition
| lay them down for 20 min. DO NOT let them stand up |
|
|
Term
| all postganlionic neurons of parasymp system are what kind of receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| almost all postganglionic neurons of sympa system or what kind of receptor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympathetic effect on arteries |
|
Definition
alpha constricts
beta dilates |
|
|
Term
| sympathetic effects on ciliary muscle |
|
Definition
| beta 2 possible slight relaxation |
|
|
Term
| sympathetic effect on pupil |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sympa effect on lacrimal gland |
|
Definition
| alpha: slight decreased tear production due to BV constriction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| alpha 1: BV constriction, slight viscouse saliva production |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| alpha 1: BV constriction, slight viscouse saliva production |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| alpha 1: BV constriction, slight viscouse saliva production |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
beta 1 and 2: increased contraction force
beta 1: increased heart rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| beta 2: dilates bronchiole |
|
|
Term
| parasymp effect on arteries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasymp effect on ciliary muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| parasymp effect on lacrimal gland |
|
Definition
| muscarinic: increased tear production |
|
|
Term
| parasymp effect on salivary |
|
Definition
| muscarinic: BV dilation, thin saliva production |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| muscarinic: decreased rate of contraction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| muscarinic: constricts bronchiole |
|
|
Term
| beta blockers are used in treatment of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| phenylephrine stimulates what receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do you use when tou want to block cholinergic stimulation in the iris sphincter muscle and ciliary muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what causes myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
| body produces antibodies to nicotinic receptors on skeletel muscle cells. normal amounts of ACh are released, but receptors are insufficient to cause an AP. |
|
|
Term
| what are the ages of onset of myasthenia in men and women? |
|
Definition
women: 20-30 years
men: 60-70 years |
|
|
Term
| what are some muscle movements that are commonly affected in myasthenia? |
|
Definition
| eye movement and eylids are often affected first; facial expression; swallowing, chewing, and talking; proximal limb movement; respiration |
|
|
Term
| what are some opthalmic symptoms for myasthenia? |
|
Definition
| ptosis (progresses througout day and may involve one or both lids), double vision (gets worse throughout day) |
|
|
Term
| what are some opthalmic signs for myasethenia? |
|
Definition
| ptosis, ocular motility disorder and misalignment, saccades slow with fatigue, can open eyelids easily when patient tries to keep them closed indicating weak orbicularis muscle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| anticholinesterase medications: drugs that allow ACh to stay in the synaptic cleft longer; removal of thymus gland; immunisuppresive drugs |
|
|
Term
| what are the diff types of neuro-imaging |
|
Definition
| plain films (standard x-ray), CT/CAT (computer axial tomography), MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), angiography (look at blood vessels), CTA, MRA/V |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| divides superior from inferior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| divides posterior from anterior |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the benefit of looking at several different cuts of imaging? |
|
Definition
| get a sense of how much tissue is involved in the problem |
|
|
Term
| what is something called that is bright on a scan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why can't you use the word "enhancement"? |
|
Definition
| It means you looked at a scan before and after a contrast signal was used |
|
|
Term
| what are bright and dark spots referred to on CT scans? |
|
Definition
| hyperDENSE (bright) and hypoDENSE (dark) |
|
|
Term
| what are bright spots called on an MR scan? |
|
Definition
| hyperINTENSE (bright) and hypoINTENSE (dark) |
|
|
Term
| What are the benefits of plain film images? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are plain films used for? |
|
Definition
| bone and metal/dense objects |
|
|
Term
| what color does air show as in a plain film? |
|
Definition
| black. air where you don't expect to see it may indicate a fracture |
|
|
Term
| what does air appear as in soft tissue in plain film? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is contrast enhancement? |
|
Definition
| based on different attenuation of x-ray beam by various tissues (attenuation is the process of getting lighter) |
|
|
Term
| what does increased attenuation mean? |
|
Definition
| increase density, atomic number and electrons per gram. more attenuation= lighter image |
|
|
Term
| why should you do a plain film before an MRI in certain cases like a car accident? |
|
Definition
| determines if there are any metal pieces in the body. can't put person in MRI if they have metal in them because MRI is a big magnet... |
|
|
Term
| what are CAT/CT scans good for? |
|
Definition
| bone/calcium; blood (especially recent trauma and acute sub-dural, sub-arachnoid hemorrhage); meningiomas (tumors of covering of brain); fat; orbital muscles; mummies!! |
|
|
Term
| what is the scale rang on CT scans? what is darkest and what is lightest? |
|
Definition
| -1000 to +1000. -1000 is very black and +1000 is very light |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| generalized image of where you are located and let's you know where you're working at |
|
|
Term
| Bleeds show up light or dark in CT scans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would the CT scan look like for someone with thyroid myopathy? |
|
Definition
| The tendons behind the eye look like a brontasaurus (fat body and thin tendon) |
|
|
Term
| why might someone with throid myopathy come into our office? |
|
Definition
| eye being pulled down and seeing double all the time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enlargement of the ventricles |
|
|
Term
| what is another term used for hydrocephalus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| who should you avoid using CT scans on and why? |
|
Definition
| children and pregnant women because it uses a very high dose of radiation |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 good reasons to use CT? |
|
Definition
| available in ER (fast, no danger from meatallic objects); relatively low cost (compared to MRI); different window widths used |
|
|
Term
| what cut is not available in CT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of contrast is used in CT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| who should you avoid giving the iodine based contrast to? |
|
Definition
| ppl with allergies to iodine and shellfish and to people with abnormal kidney function (because it's metabolized in the kidney) |
|
|
Term
| what does it mean if contrast crosses the BBB in a CT? |
|
Definition
| there is a break in the BBB because things don't just go through |
|
|
Term
| what kind of scan can you use for an autopsy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what color does air show up in a CT? Blood? |
|
Definition
| air= black and blood= white |
|
|
Term
| what are "windows" in CT scans? |
|
Definition
| manipulation of a volume of data based on ability to block xray beam... manipulates starting point |
|
|
Term
| why is MR premiere means for intracranial pathology evaluation? |
|
Definition
1) radiation exposure with CT
2) increased soft-tissue contrast with MR |
|
|
Term
| what does a CT rely on to work? |
|
Definition
| different attenuation of x-ray beam |
|
|
Term
| what does MR rely on to work? |
|
Definition
| response of tissue to applied magnetic field |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Anatomy studies (soft tissue) |
|
|
Term
| What do MRIs use to work/how do they work? |
|
Definition
| usese magnetic field affecting H+ atom alignment. No radiation. Followed by radiofrequency pulse to realign atoms. |
|
|
Term
| What are sagittal sections of MRIs used to see? |
|
Definition
| pituitary gland, corpus callosum, cervico-medullary junction, pineal gland |
|
|
Term
| what does "weighting" mean in terms of an MRI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what do T1 and T2 mean in MRIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In T1 images, is high H2O content dark (hypointense) or light (hyperintense)? |
|
Definition
| High H2O content is DARK (hypointense) |
|
|
Term
| Are CSF and vitreous light or dark on a T1 image? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| contrast can be used for T1 or T2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what substance is used for contrast in T1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is gadolinium good to use in regards to allergies? |
|
Definition
| it's not iodine based so less potential for allergic rxn |
|
|
Term
| how is gadolinium administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how does gadolinium work? |
|
Definition
| alters magnetic field and crosses disrupted BBB |
|
|
Term
| does gadolinium brighten or darken things? |
|
Definition
| brightens things so can see them |
|
|
Term
| what do you use gadolinium for? |
|
Definition
| suspected mass, inflammation, infiltration |
|
|
Term
| what are T2 images good at detecting/ what are they used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| can you use contrast in T2? why or why not? |
|
Definition
| No, becasue CSF and vitreous are already white |
|
|
Term
| what objects are bright in T2 images? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| rapidly flowing blood is black in T1, T2, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some advantages of CTs? |
|
Definition
| 1st day ischemic stroke (where blood and O2 don't get to a spot), 1st day cerebral or cerebellar hemmorhage, initial head injury, initial brain abcess, with ferrous metal, orbital bone fracture |
|
|
Term
| What are some advantges of MRIs? |
|
Definition
| Infarcts older than 1 day, cavernous sinus, brainstem/posterior fossa, demyelinating disease, chiasmal lesions, intracranial tumors |
|
|
Term
| what are some CT disadvantages |
|
Definition
| exposure to radiation, lower resolution, poorer visualization of most intracranial tissue (especially when surrounded by bone or other beam-hardening artifacts), artifacts (streak, motion) |
|
|
Term
| what are some disadvantages of MRI? |
|
Definition
| longer scan time, 50% higher cost, bone or calcium lesions not image well, metallic bodies (pacemakers, cochlear implants, stents), iron oxide in tattoos interfers, obesity, clautrophobia |
|
|
Term
| how do you study the orbit in imaging/ how do you order the tests? |
|
Definition
1) must specify if orbital study is required
2) need many fine cuts- coronal
3) if MRI- must do fat suppression, T2 or STIR... gadolinium is usually needed |
|
|
Term
| why are angiographys good? |
|
Definition
| can visualize small aneurysms and A-V malformations |
|
|
Term
| MRAs allows for imaging of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MRA creates and intensity difference between what two things? |
|
Definition
| flowing and stationary tissue |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| high-signal flowing blood (shows up on this whereas it shows up black on MRI and CT) |
|
|
Term
| MRA cannot detect aneurysms smaller than what size? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| in CTA, what is injected into the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| high-speed spiral CT scanning and computer-assisted generation of images of large to medium-sized arteries. shows relation of bone to vessels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| patient is moved at a constant rate through the scanning field during a single breath-hold |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| exams are quick, less radiation and contrast are used, and patients with aneurysm clips or implanted stimulators can be scanned |
|
|
Term
| what are some disadvantages of CTA? |
|
Definition
| sensitivity of CTA in aneurysm detection may be limited by surgical slips or clot from recent SAH, aneurysms of PICA (posterior inferior cavernous artery) and cavernous sinus are more difficult to image, cannot resolve small vessels, patients may have adverse reactions to iodinated contrast |
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which 2 ventricles are connected to form which ventricle? |
|
Definition
| 2 lateral are connected in the middle to form the 3rd ventricle |
|
|
Term
| where is the CSF produced? |
|
Definition
| choroid plexus (inner layer) |
|
|
Term
| what does the brain float in? why is this important? |
|
Definition
| in the CSF so it's not banging on hard objects |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 horns of the lateral ventricle? |
|
Definition
| frontal, occipital, temporal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| network of capillaries embedded in connective tissue (3 layers of cells: capillary wall, CT, epithelium). formed from blood by filtration, active transport, facilitated transport and is very similar to plasma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.clear and colorless
2.regulates extracellular environment
3.supplies water, amino acids, glucose, ions to extracellular fluid
4.protects CNS (shock absorber)
5.removes metabolites from brain (probable) |
|
|
Term
| How does the CSF circulate? |
|
Definition
| it is made in the choroid plexus (floor of lateral ventricles and roof of 3rd and 4th ventricles). flows from lateral ventricles into third ventricle via the interventricular foramina and from third ventricle into the fourth via the cerebral aqueduct. the CSF exits the fourth ventricle through the lateral (luschka) and medial (magendie) foramina, entering the subarachnoid space. |
|
|
Term
| describe the 3rd ventricle |
|
Definition
a pair of c-shaped "horns"
horns are: anterior/frontal, occipital/posterior, inferior/temporal
extend into each hemispheric lobe |
|
|
Term
| where are the lateral ventricles located |
|
Definition
below is thalmus (superior to thalmus)
above is corpus callosum (inferior to corpos callosum)
outside wall is caudate nucleus (part of limbic system)
the 2 sides connct through third ventricle |
|
|
Term
| how are the lateral ventricles associated with the visual pathway? |
|
Definition
| The LGN sits near inferior horn and the optic radiations (fibers going back to occipital lobe) follow the LAT ventricle back to posterior horn |
|
|
Term
| where is the third ventricle located |
|
Definition
in midline of diencephalon
walls are thalamus and hypothalamus |
|
|
Term
| what midbrain canal connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why are the 3rd ventricles bigger in older people? |
|
Definition
| brain matter starts to shrink and ventricles expand to fill space |
|
|
Term
| what happens when you have an obstruction in a narrow canal like the cerebral aqueduct? |
|
Definition
| fluid can't drain and pressure builds up |
|
|
Term
| describe location of fourth ventricle |
|
Definition
*space between pons and medulla anteriorly
* cerebellum posteriorly
* inferiorly continuous with central canal of spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| the 4th ventricle drains into subarchnoid space via: |
|
Definition
| two lateral foramina (luschka) and midline opening (magendie) |
|
|
Term
| what is a Danny Walker cyst? who is susceptible to them? |
|
Definition
blocks the 4th ventricle
kids are susceptible to them |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| cisterns are a continuation of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the largest cistern is located where? |
|
Definition
| lumbar cistern located betwen L2 and S2 |
|
|
Term
| where is CSF drawn using a spinal tap? |
|
Definition
| lumbar cistern between L2 and S2 |
|
|
Term
| adults produce how much CSF daily? what does that equate to per min? |
|
Definition
| 1 pint per day and is about .5 mL per minute |
|
|
Term
| how many mL are in the subarachnoid space and how many in lumbar sac? |
|
Definition
| 90 mL in subarachnoid space and 30 mL in lumbar sac |
|
|
Term
| how long does it take for complete CSF circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why would the ventricles swell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| symptoms of hydrocephalus in children |
|
Definition
| vomiting, failure to thrive (don't develop at normal rate), delay of developmental milestones, irritability, sunset sign (looks like a sunset) |
|
|
Term
| what causes hydrocephalus |
|
Definition
1) excessive production of CSF (or tumors in the chorodial plexus which are rare)
2) blockage of CSF circulation (this is big one!)
3) poor secretion of CSF into venous sinuses (scarring from meningitis or hemmorhage)
4) structural (born with cysts or misformed canals)
5) bleeding
6) infection
7) neoplasm (growth like tumor)
8) vascular
9) trauma |
|
|
Term
| how do you help hydrocephalus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| fluid drains into one of these and gets reabsorbed |
|
|
Term
| what encloses the optic nerve and what surrounds it? |
|
Definition
| the meninges enclose the optic nerve and the CSF surrounds it |
|
|
Term
| ___ fuses with ____ at the optic nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what space surrounds the nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what happens if there is increased intracranial pressure? |
|
Definition
1) pressure on Central Retinal Vein (CRV) will cause the loss of spontaneous venous pulsation (will see this in the optic nerve)
2) pressure on axons within optic nerve will stop axoplasmic flow thus contributing to edema |
|
|
Term
| what are spontaneous venous pulsations |
|
Definition
| imbalance between pressure inside and outside vein wall |
|
|
Term
| spontaneous venous pulsation is seen in what % of normal eyes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| spontaneous venous pulsation is lost when the intracranial pressure is over what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why, when you look at the optic nerve, do you see th spontaneous venous pulsation/why is it needed? |
|
Definition
| need pressure in eye to get vein out into brain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| elevated intracranial pressure compresses CRV which causes edema and elevation of optic nerve head |
|
|
Term
| how can you tell if someone has papilledema by looking in the bakc of the eye |
|
Definition
| optic nerve outline is kind of fuzzy and it looks raise a bit and blood vessels look like corkscrews |
|
|
Term
| what causes an increase in brain pressure? |
|
Definition
| tumor or mass, generalized brain swelling, obstruction of CSF flow or absorption, increase in CSF production |
|
|
Term
| what is the flow of CSF after leaving the brainstem? |
|
Definition
| CSF continues into subarachnoid space, through arachnoid villi, through dura, and to the sagittal sinus |
|
|
Term
| how much CSF is usually in the central spinal canal |
|
Definition
| normally a negligible amount |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 clinical implications of blocked CSF |
|
Definition
| hydrocephalus (particularly lateral ventricles), increased intracranial pressure (ICP), loss of spontaneous venous pulsation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is something you should also consider if a patient's ICP is high? |
|
Definition
| Pseudotumor cerebri aka Benign idiopathic (specific to you) intracranial hypertension. this is likey a meningeal absorption defect and it is slow, no dilation of ventricles. |
|
|
Term
| what are other symtpoms of hydrocephalus (maybe more for adults) |
|
Definition
| headache, difficult with vertical gaze (and brining their eyes together), paranaud's syndrome (sylvian aqueduct syndrome), problems with: gait, balance, incontinent (retain urine) |
|
|
Term
| how is a lumbar puncture/spinal tap done |
|
Definition
| patient is in lateral recumbent position (laying down on side with knees to chest) and a syringe is place into lumbar cistern (connected to a meter). the CSF exits resulting in movement on the pressure meter. The CSF flows into manometer until level steady |
|
|
Term
| what are the normal values for an adult. what about if they are overweight? |
|
Definition
| less than 200 if they are normal and about 250 for overweight |
|
|
Term
| what are the normal CSF pressures for infant, child, and older child? |
|
Definition
infant: 40-50
child: 40-100
older child: 150 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| series of membranes that cover brain. brain is supended within skull by three membrane CT covering |
|
|
Term
| what is the function of the meninges |
|
Definition
| stabilize, anchor, and cushion the brain |
|
|
Term
| what is within the meningeal layers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 layers of meninges |
|
Definition
dura mater (closest to bone)
arachnoid (middle)
pia mater (right next to brain) |
|
|
Term
| what does dura mater mean |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the dura mater made out of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the outer periosteal layer of the dura mater is attached to what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the meningeal arteries are located where |
|
Definition
| out periosteal layer of dura mater |
|
|
Term
| the inner meningeal layer is attached to what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the two layers of dura are fused except where they split to form what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| yes, it is pain sensitive because of CN V (trigeminal) and CN X (vagus) |
|
|
Term
| the middle fossa is innervated by what cranial nerve |
|
Definition
middle fossa: middle of brain
cranial nerve V (trigeminal) |
|
|
Term
| the posterior fossa is innervated by what nerve |
|
Definition
CN X (vagus)
postior: brain stem and occipital |
|
|
Term
| what does the dura get its blood supply from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is located between 2 layers of dura, between bone and dura, and between dura and arachnoid? |
|
Definition
| no space. only potential spaces if something is forced in to separate these tissues |
|
|
Term
| the only true space between the meninges is where |
|
Definition
| between arachnoid and pia |
|
|
Term
| what are 2 potential spaces in cranial meninges |
|
Definition
epidural (extradural) space: between cranium and periosteals layer of dura
subdural space: between dura and arachnoid |
|
|
Term
| what could cause potential spaces in meninges |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what causes an epidural hematoma (when blood leaks in) |
|
Definition
| traumatic head injury, often fracture to temporal bone, rupture of middle meningeal artery |
|
|
Term
| where is an epidural hematoma located? how fast does it occur? |
|
Definition
located between bone and dura
slowly develops because it's hard to separate these two |
|
|
Term
| what causes a subdura hematoma |
|
Definition
| shearing forces sever VEINS connecting to dural sinuses. could happen from violent shakes like in shaken baby syndrome |
|
|
Term
| where is a subdura hematoma located |
|
Definition
| between dura and arachnoid |
|
|
Term
| what are the two types of subural hematomas |
|
Definition
chronic: develops slowly (weeks)
acute: faster leak and often other intracerebral injuries are evident too |
|
|
Term
| what is the falx cerebri and where is it located |
|
Definition
* folds on inner layer of dura
* lies in longitudinal fissure
* extends from crista gall to tentorium cerebelli
* partially separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres (superior sagittal sinus outer border and inferior sagittal sinus at free border) |
|
|
Term
| what is the tentorium cerebelli and where is it located |
|
Definition
* separates the middle cranial fossa from the posterior cranial fossa
* infratentorial compartment contains cerebellum and brainstem
* transverse sinus along outer border
* straigh sinus where falx meets tentorium |
|
|
Term
| tent-like appearing images in the tentorium indicate what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does arachnoid mater stand for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the arachnoid mater made of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the cells of the arachnoid mater are joined together by what kind of junctions? what is this for? |
|
Definition
| tight junctions. to control passage of substances |
|
|
Term
| how is the arachnoid connected to the pia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| aracnoid granulations protrude into what and what do they do? |
|
Definition
| protrude into superior sagittal sinus and reabsorb CSF |
|
|
Term
| where is the subarachnoid space located |
|
Definition
| between arachnoid and pia |
|
|
Term
| at does the subarachnoid space contain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what passes through the subarachnoid space |
|
Definition
| cerebral arteries and veins (for cerebrum) |
|
|
Term
| pools of CSF in the subarachnoid space are called.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what two things can cause a subarachnoid hematoma |
|
Definition
| hemorrhagiv stroke (blood vessle breaks and blood pumped out... most severe but less common) and aneurysm bleed "aschemic stroke" (blood doesn't get to where it needs to go) |
|
|
Term
| it a patient has a subarachnoid hematoma, what might they complain about/say |
|
Definition
| "worst headache of my life" |
|
|
Term
| how do you determine if it's a subarachnoid hematoma |
|
Definition
* CT shows blood in subarachnoid space
* spinal tap shows blood in CSF |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
delicate CT layer
tightly adherent to brain and spinal cord surfaces
follows gyri and sulci
separates brain from CSF (which runs in subarachnoid space) |
|
|
Term
| what is the arterial system called that supplies the brain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the anterior system of the brain is supplied by what general structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the posterior system of the brain is mostly supplied by what |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the venous system? it draws blood from where to where? |
|
Definition
system of sinuses
draws blood from head to jugular |
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Term
| about what % of ppl have a complete circle of willis |
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Definition
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Term
| the circle of willis connects what two things |
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Definition
| anterior and posterior circulation |
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Term
| what are the 5 main arteries of the CoW |
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Definition
| Anterior cerebral arteries, Middle cerebral arteries, Posterior cerebral arteries, Anterior communicating arteries, Posterior communicating arteries |
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Term
| what 3 big structures are located in the head of CoW |
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Definition
| pituitary gland, optic chiasm, cavernous sinus |
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Term
| what artery goes to eyeball |
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Definition
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Term
| what is the flow from heart to internal carotid artery? |
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Definition
| aortic arch to common carotid to internal/external carotid |
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Term
| what are the 4 segments of the internal carotid artery |
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Definition
| cervical, petrous, cavernous, supraclinoid/intracranial |
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Term
| describe cervical segement of the internal carotid |
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Definition
vertical straight, then goes into bone of head and bend into brain and goes into cavernous sinus.
vertical portion
in the neck |
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Term
| describe petrous portion of ICA |
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Definition
sharp horizontal bend
enters temporal bone |
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Term
| describe cavernous segment of ICA |
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Definition
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Term
| describe supraclinoid/intracranial segment of ICA |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the acronym used for the branches of the ICA |
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Definition
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Term
| what are the 5 branches off the ICA |
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Definition
| Opthalmic, posterior communicating, anterior chorodial, anterior cerebral, middle cerebral |
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Term
| describe the opthalmic branch of the internal carotid |
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Definition
| tiny, skinny and goes to the eyeball and supplies almost everything in eye |
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Term
| describe the anterior chorodial |
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Definition
| small and goes backwards to supply chorodial plexus and around thalamus area |
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Term
| what are the 4 vascular areas |
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Definition
| anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, posterior cerebral artery, deep cerebral blood supply |
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Term
| what two things make up the deep cerebral blood supply |
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Definition
| lenticulostriate arteries and anterior chorodial artery |
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Term
| describe the anterior cerebral artery |
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Definition
| sweeps back over corpus callosum; supplies most of anterior medial surface; medial portion of parietal lobe |
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Term
| describe the middle cerebral artery |
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Definition
| travels with the sylvian fissure; supplies most of the lateral convexity of the brain (but not much of medial) |
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Term
| describe the posterior cerebral artery |
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Definition
| curves back around the brainstem; can cause problem with vision; supplies inferior and medial temporal lobe and occipital cortex (little portion of lateral) |
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Term
| describe the lenticulostriate arteries |
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Definition
| from middle cerebral artery; supplies basal ganglia and internal capsule |
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Term
| describe the anterior chorodial artery |
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Definition
| from ICA; supplies hippocampus, basal ganglia, thalamus (LGN), and posterior internal capsule (takes all fibers from brain and compresses down to brainstem) |
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Term
| what is a transient ischemic attack |
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Definition
| mini stroke; symptoms last about 10 min; temporary brain ischemia (not enoug blood to brain); positive (flashes of light, tingling) or negative (darkness, numbness) signs; will have double vision; will have full blown stroke if this happens and not caught; can take place in any blood vessel in brain |
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Term
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Definition
| "cardiovascular accident"; inadequate blood supply causes infarction (death) of tissue... permanent disability |
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Term
| what are the 2 types of strokes |
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Definition
hemorrhagic: intracerebral or subarachnoid(this is worse type of stroke)
Ishemic: something cutting blood supply off to part of brain |
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Term
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Definition
| embolic or thrombotic infarct |
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Term
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Definition
| piece of material (clot) comes from differ part of bloodstream and lodges in vessel of brain |
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Term
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Definition
| blood clot formed in that area |
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Term
| middle cerebral artery stroke symptoms |
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Definition
| aphasia (left hemisphere... can't talk); hemi-neglect (right hemisphere... can see both sides in vision but ignore one side); hemianopia (1/2 vision gone); sensory loss in face and arm; weakness of face and arm; contralateral deficits |
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Term
| anterior cerebral artery stroke symptoms |
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Definition
| leg weakness; behavior abnormalities (cuz frontal lobe controls behavior); contralateral deficits |
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Term
| posterior cerebral artery stroke symptoms |
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Definition
| usually only have vision loss; hemianopia; contralateral deficits |
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Term
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Definition
| loss of blood where vascular areas overlap; region between cerebral artery territories; most susceptible to ischemia; proximal arm and leg weakness; aphasia |
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Term
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Definition
| usually severe loss fo vision in 1 eye; atherosclerotic disease; thrombi can cause embolus distally; result in TIA or infarcts; amaurosis fugax (loss of blood causing loss of vision over about 10 min time... then will go away) |
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Term
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Definition
| dilation of arterial wall; as it grows it compresses structures much as a tumor would; can rupture subarachnoid hemorrhage (sudden and worse HA of life; sudden death) |
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Term
| arteriovenous malformation |
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Definition
| congential connection between artery and vein (not supposed to); "steals" blood from adjacent brain tissue; may rupture and bleed |
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Term
| superficial structures of the brain drain to waht two things |
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Definition
| superior sagittal sinus and cavernous sinus |
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Term
| where is the superior sagittal sinus located |
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Definition
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Term
| what things go through cavernous sinus |
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Definition
| internal carotid and cranial nerves of eye except number 2 |
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Term
| deep structures in the brain drain to what |
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Definition
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Term
| what is a confluence of sinuses |
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Definition
| where sinuses come together |
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Term
| everything eventually drains to what... |
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Definition
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Term
| everything eventually drains to what... |
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Definition
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Term
| sagittal sinus thrombosis |
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Definition
| associated with hypercoagulable state; obstruction of venous drainage raised ICP; hemorrhages; decreased perfusion and infarcts; seizures; HAs and papilledema |
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Term
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Definition
| tight junctions between capillary endothelium prevents large molecules from exiting the capillary; tight junctions in arachnoid cell layer have same function; excludes many pathogens from the CNS |
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Term
| necessity of constant blood flow |
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Definition
| brain cannot store glucose or oxygen efficitenly; oxygen consumption increases from brainstem to cerebral hemispheres (cerebral cortex is more vlubnerable than brainstem) |
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Term
| 2 ways autoregulation can occur |
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Definition
1) CNS can regulate own blood supply (blood pressure; metabolites)
2) dilation of arteries with (low blood pressure, oxygen, or pH; high CO2 or lactic acid) |
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