Term
| Why must steroid dosages be tapered off? |
|
Definition
Long term steroids suppress the endocrine system (hypothalamus, pituitary & adrenals) in their production of the bodies own steroids.
Thus the body needs time to start producing steroids on its own before removing all exogenous steroids. |
|
|
Term
| Name the two hormones released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary |
|
Definition
Vasopressin (Anti-diuretic hormone)
Oxytocin |
|
|
Term
| What is "adenohypophysis" |
|
Definition
| A big snobby word for anterior lobe of the pituitary |
|
|
Term
| Name the 6 hormones released by the anterior pituitary |
|
Definition
Lactogenic hormone (Prolactin)
Growth hormone
ACTH
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the action of Vasopressin |
|
Definition
Vasopressin acts on the kidney to promote resorption of water into the blood stream
Untested fun fact that might help you remember it's action:
Caffeine and alcohol suppress vasopressin secretion, hence why you gotta pee more when you consume them. |
|
|
Term
| How is Vasopressin involved in Diabetes Insipidus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hormone is known to stimulate uterine contraction and stimulate milk ejection from lactating women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism? |
|
Definition
Pituitary Tumours
(Adenomas) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of pituitary tumour tends to be diagnosed earlier, secretory or non-secretory? |
|
Definition
| Secretory-because they cause symptoms sooner that make the pt more likely to seek medical attention sooner. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 most common disorders that result from pituitary tumours? |
|
Definition
Hyperprolactinemia
Cushing's Disease (ACTH)
Acromegaly (GH) |
|
|
Term
| Name all 5 nerves that are most likely to be affected by a pituitary tumour, and why this is so. |
|
Definition
CN III, IV & VI
Maxillary Branch of V
Ophthalmic Branch of V
They are likely to be involved because they are all in the cavernous sinus. |
|
|
Term
| What is the best method for imaging microadenomae? |
|
Definition
| MRI with contrast (gadolinium enhancement) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 modes of treatment for a pituitary tumour |
|
Definition
1. Surgery-transphenoidal if small enough
2. Radiotherapy
3. Pharmacologic therapy |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common hormone to be out of whack in the case of a pituitary tumour? |
|
Definition
| Prolactin- 60% of pituitary tumours secrete prolactin |
|
|
Term
| Why might some antidepressants cause hyperprolactinemia? |
|
Definition
| Antidepressants that interfere with dopamine can cause hyperprolactinemia because dopamine itself is a prolactin inhibitor. |
|
|
Term
| How can hyPOthyroidism cause hyperprolactinemia? |
|
Definition
If the body senses low levels of thyroid hormone the hypothalamus will secrete thyroid releasing hormone.
The pituitary gland will, in response, release not only thyroid stimulating hormone but also prolactin.
This becomes a cycle since enough thyroid hormone is never produced and so the pituitary will continue to be stimulated and secrete TSH and Prolactin.
|
|
|
Term
| Name 5 clinical features of Hyperprolactinemia |
|
Definition
Amenorrhea
Galactorrhea (milk secretion)
Loss of libido
Visual field defects
Headaches |
|
|
Term
What sort of drug action could be used to treat hyperprolactinemia?
Give an example of such a drug |
|
Definition
Dopamine agonist-not only affects production but may decrease the size of the tumour.
Bromocriptine
Cabergoline |
|
|
Term
Your 27 yo pt Henry comes in complaining of recent changes that have occurred in his body over the last year. He feels like his tongue is large, his voice has changed, his limbs seem bigger and he experiences terrible headaches.
He also says he has high blood sugar levels.
What do you suspect could be the issue? |
|
Definition
| Pt may be experiencing an over-production of Growth hormone -->Acromegaly |
|
|
Term
| What type of drug can be used to control acromegaly? |
|
Definition
Somatostatin analogues
Can only use Dopamine agonists to decrease the size of the tumour |
|
|
Term
2 drugs: Octreotide and Lanreotide
What are they used to treat? |
|
Definition
| These drugs are somatostatin analogues, thus they are used to treat acromegaly |
|
|
Term
| What drug choice can be tried in a pt with acromegaly who has not responded effectively to either surgery or somatostatin analogues? |
|
Definition
| Growth Hormone Antagonists |
|
|
Term
| What types of hormones are secreted from the adrenal cortex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 2 principle Glucocorticoids produced in the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the principle mineralocorticoid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hormone produced by the pituitary is a potent vasoconstrictor? |
|
Definition
Vasopressin
('presses' on the vessels) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypercortisolism (Cushing's syndrome) |
|
Definition
| Taking exogenous steroids |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of Cushing's disease ? (and spontaneous, endogenous Cushing's syndrome) |
|
Definition
A small ACTH producing tumour in the pituitary
It does not respond to the hypothalamus telling the pituitary to reduce production of ACTH.
Overstimulation of the adrenal glands causes hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
| Relate plasma levels of ACTH and cortisol in ACTH-independent Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
Low ACTH
High cortisol
in the plasma |
|
|
Term
| Describe what happens in Primary Hyperplasia -ACTH Independent Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
A neoplasm
(benign adenoma or malignant carcinoma)
in the adrenal cortex produces cortisol.
Independent of signals from the pituitary to reduce production. |
|
|
Term
| What happens in Ectopic ACTH Syndrome |
|
Definition
A neoplasm in some random place that produces ACTH
Most often are small cell carcinomas of the lung
|
|
|
Term
| Name 2 early manifestations of Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fatty moon face buffalo hump weakling comes into your office for an eye exam.
He doesn't turn out to be very bright so you decide to give him a nickname to help him remember what 'disorder' he has, what should it be? |
|
Definition
'Cushy' of course
Because he has a somewhat advanced case of Cushing's syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Why do pts with Cushing's syndrome often present with Hyperglycemia and glucosuria (and consequently polydipsia)? |
|
Definition
Glucocorticoids interrupt the breakdown of glucose.
Thus the pt experiences high levels of glucose in the blood. |
|
|
Term
| Why do pts with Cushing's syndrome often deal with the thinning of their skin? |
|
Definition
Their disorder causes the catabolism of proteins- this includes collagen.
If collagen is broken down it will affect the skin |
|
|
Term
| Explain the increased risk of infection and cases of acne in patients with Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
The excess of steroids in Cushing's syndrome suppresses the immune system.
Neutrophils circulate but all other signals are turned off, inhibiting the neutrophils from recognizing what to attack. |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 methods of Diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome |
|
Definition
1. Dexamethasone Suppression Test
2. Impaired glucose tolerance
3. MRI w/ contrast |
|
|
Term
| Describe Addison's disease |
|
Definition
Adrenal insufficiency
Often occurs after an adrenalectomy |
|
|
Term
| Describe Nelson's Syndrome |
|
Definition
| Removal of the adrenal glands makes a pituitary tumour grow rapidly. |
|
|
Term
| Differentiate between primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism |
|
Definition
Primary-a lesion cause the overproduction of aldosterone
Secondary-A condition causes the release of aldosterone as a by product. |
|
|
Term
| How might heart failure lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism? |
|
Definition
Heart failure causes lowered blood pressure.
The body will respond by telling the kidney to release renin and a consequent cascade occurs that results in oversecretion of aldosterone. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause for the development of Addison's disease? |
|
Definition
| Automimmune adrenalitis causes destruction of the adrenal glands. |
|
|
Term
| What sort of GI disturbances are associated with Chronic adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
Anorexia
Nausea & vomiting
diarrhea
Weight loss
|
|
|
Term
| Name 4 clinical features of chronic adrenal insufficiency |
|
Definition
GI disturbances
Hypotension
Hyperpigmentation
Weakness/Fatigability |
|
|
Term
| Which type of cells live in the adrenal medulla? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a pheochromocytoma? |
|
Definition
| A neoplasm composed of chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 common symptoms of a pheochromocytoma |
|
Definition
Headache
Sweating
Palpitations |
|
|
Term
| What is the proper name for the '10% Tumour' and why is it called this? |
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma
They are called this because they do so many things 10% of the time
eg. 10 %are malignant, 10% are in children, 10% are bilateral etc. |
|
|
Term
| Name the substance that is the precursor for thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) |
|
Definition
| Thyroglobulin- is located in follicles within the thyroid. |
|
|
Term
T/F
Mumsi has a goiter, it is MOST likely that she has an overactive thyroid. |
|
Definition
False
Most goiters are associated with hypothyroidism. |
|
|
Term
| Explain how the majority of thyroid hormone is found circulating in the blood. |
|
Definition
| 95% of all thyroid hormone is bound by TBG-thyroid binding globulin and this is how it circulates. |
|
|
Term
| Why does increased T3 and T4 cause a hypermetabolic state? |
|
Definition
There is only so much TBG in the body, thus excess thyroid hormone means there will be lots of unbound T3 and T4 .
Thyroid hormone that is not bound by TBG upregulates carb metabolism, lipid catabolism and protein synthesis, thus the overall metaboilc rate is increased.
|
|
|
Term
| Name 5 causes for thyrotoxicosis and identify which one is very rare. |
|
Definition
1. Thyroid hyperplasia due to Graves'
2. Ingestion of too much Thyroid hormone
3. Hyperfunctional, multinodular goiter
4. Hyperfunctional thyroid tumour
5. Pituitary tumour (most rare) |
|
|
Term
| Which gene is associated with Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity is Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
| Type II-Antibody dependent |
|
|
Term
| Describe how antibodies are involved in Graves' disease |
|
Definition
Antibodies are developed against the TSH receptors.
They bind to the TSH receptor sites in the thyroid and cause overstimulation. |
|
|
Term
| Compare the plasma levels of T3/T4 and TSH in a pt with Graves' disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 7 signs of Graves' ophthalmopathy |
|
Definition
Exophthalmos
EOM weakness
Diplopia
Lid retraction
Lid edema
Keratitis
Compressive optic neuropathy |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 therapy options for Graves' disease |
|
Definition
Medication
Surgery
Radioactive iodine treatment |
|
|
Term
| What drug type is used to treat the adrenergic manifestations of Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
Beta-blockers
they help to 'calm' the system down, lower the HR, BP, tremor etc. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the general mechanism of action of antithyroid drugs. |
|
Definition
Drugs like Methimazole inhibit the oxidation of iodine.
This decreases the amount of iodine that is available for thyroid hormone synthesis and therefore decreases thyroid hormone levels. |
|
|
Term
| Name the drug of choice in anti-thyroid treatment of Graves' disease. |
|
Definition
Methimazole
Propylthiouracil is an older option. |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of drug therapy in the treatment of Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
<20% of pts experience remission with this method
The drugs have side effects such as:
-Rash
-Agranulocytosis
-Hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the risk of surgical therapy in the treatment of Graves' disease? |
|
Definition
There is a risk that the thyroid will no longer produce enough-->hypothyroidism
Also damage to the laryngeal nerve is a risk |
|
|
Term
| Compare hormone plasma levels of TRH, TSH and T4/T3 is a pt with primary hypothyroidism |
|
Definition
The hypothalamus and pituitary secrete normally but the thyroid just does not respond in primary hypothyroidism.
Thus there will be high levels of TRH and TSH but low levels of T4/T3 |
|
|
Term
| Compare plasma levels of TSH and T3/T4 in patients with secondary hypothyroidism |
|
Definition
Low levels of both TSH and T3/T4
(TRH levels may or may not be low, depending on whether the problem is with the hypothalamus or the pituitary) |
|
|
Term
| Which character from the hundred-acre wood is best associated with hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
Eeyore of course.
Perhaps Tigger is Hyperthyroid..... |
|
|
Term
| The pt in your chair has told you they have hypothyroidism, what common ocular disease are they at a higher risk for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe Cretinism |
|
Definition
Hypothyroidism that develops in infancy and early child due to a lack of iodine in the diet. This can refer to either the child's diet/metabolism or the diet of the pregnant mother.
Results in impaired skeletal and CNS development |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in parts of the world that have sufficient iodine in the diet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the action of antibodies in Hashimoto's Thyroiditis |
|
Definition
| Autoantibodies block TSH receptors in the thyroid, preventing the secretion of thyroid hormone and causing the thyroid to hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
| Why might pts present with high levels of thyroid hormone when they are initially developing Hashimoto's thyroiditis? |
|
Definition
| At the beginning of the disorder the autoantibodies are beginning to destroy the thyroglobulin follicles, resulting in the release of thyroid hormone. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between regular insulin and Insulin Lispro/Glulisine |
|
Definition
| Insulin Lispro and Glulisine are extremely fast acting injectable insulins, they work in about half the time of regular insulin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transient hyperthyroidism at the beginning of development of Hashimoto's thyroiditis |
|
|
Term
| What is meant by a 'hot' nodule? |
|
Definition
| A nodule that takes up radioactive iodine is termed 'hot.' |
|
|
Term
Multiple Nodules vs. Solitary nodules
Which finding is more likely to be neoplastic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hot vs. Cold nodules
Which is more likely to be benign? |
|
Definition
| Hot nodules are most likely benign |
|
|
Term
Young vs. old pts
Nodules on which patients are more likely to be neoplastic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nodules on
Males vs. Females
Which is more likely to neoplastic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans and psychic moans'
Which disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the parathyroid gland differ from all other endocrine glands? |
|
Definition
| It is not controlled by the hypothalamus, rather it responds to calcium levels in the blood. |
|
|
Term
| Name the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism |
|
Definition
| Surgical Removal of the parathyroid gland |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Associated with hypoparathyroidism
Tapping on the facial nerve in front of the ear causes contraction of the facial muscles and upper lip, due to low calcium levels
|
|
|
Term
| Describe Trousseau's sign |
|
Definition
| Increased BP (using BP cuff) causes carpal spasm |
|
|
Term
| What is the name for 'pre-diabetes'? |
|
Definition
Metabolic Syndrome
aka Insulin-resistance syndrome |
|
|
Term
| how is Metabolic syndrome treated? |
|
Definition
Education/diet/exercise
Control of BP, FPG and smoking cessation |
|
|
Term
| Which is more prevalent, Type 1 or Type 2 Diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the basic cause of Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 |
|
Definition
| Autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas-the body can no longer produce insulin. |
|
|
Term
What type of Diabetes Mellitus is a slow progressive form of DM 1 that is sometimes misdiagnosed as DM2.
Patients affected by this tend to be nonobese and >35yo |
|
Definition
| Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults |
|
|
Term
| What antibodies indicate a positive test for Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA) |
|
Definition
| Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase Antibodies |
|
|
Term
| Describe the basic difference between Diabetes Mellitus Type 1 and Type 2 |
|
Definition
| Type 1 is antibody positive and Type 2 is antibody negative (no islet cell antibodies are produced) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
PPARs=Peroxisome Proliferator-Activated Receptors
They control the entry of sugar and fat into cells
Currently a big area of Diabetes research |
|
|
Term
| Describe the major factor in Obese Diabetes Mellitus Type 2 |
|
Definition
| There is decreased uptake and use of glucose in the body tissues. |
|
|
Term
| Describe 3 Hypothesis for what occurs in the body to cause tissue resistance in Obese DM2 |
|
Definition
1. Decreased number of insulin receptors on cells
2. Decreased insulin activity after binding to cells
3. Decreased PPAR activity |
|
|
Term
| In addition to tissue resistance, what else is a factor in high blood glucose levels in Obese DM2 |
|
Definition
Reduced/impaired insulin secretion also contributes to high blood glucose levels as well as tissue resistance.
This impairment is possibly due to the hypothalamus becoming desensitized to high glucose levels. |
|
|
Term
| In Obese DM2 hepatic glucose production is increased, why does the body do this when blood sugar levels are already high? |
|
Definition
| The insulin is not working to get the sugar into the cells, so the body does not recognize that there is already enough sugar in the blood. Thus it tries to fix the problem of starving cells by stimulating the liver to produce glucose. |
|
|
Term
| There is an unapproved category of Diabetes for pts who have type 2 but are antibody positive, what is the name of this category? |
|
Definition
DM 1.5 or DM3 or Double Diabetes
Sometimes incorrectly referred to as LADA
|
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the form of Type 2 Diabetes that is caused by single-gene disorder? |
|
Definition
| Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the age and size of the majority of people who have Maturity-onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) |
|
Definition
| They are generally thin and young (<30) adults |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the treatment plan for MODY pts |
|
Definition
Pts with Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young can be easily controlled with low dose insulin, diet or oral agents.
They may have to eventually go on higher doses of insulin
|
|
|
Term
| Why is it important for all pregnant women to get their glucose levels tested? |
|
Definition
Developing Gestational Diabetes is a risk for all women, not just women who are overweight.
These pts may require insulin until after the baby is born.
|
|
|
Term
| Describe how uncontrolled Diabetes can lead to Ketoacidosis |
|
Definition
If the body does not have insulin it can not use glucose for metabolism.
Instead the body will use glycogen in the liver for fuel and eventually will metabolize free fatty acids to ketones.
Too many ketones-->ketonemia, ketouria and ketoacidosis |
|
|
Term
| Why are uncontrolled Diabetics more at risk for respiratory or other types of infections? |
|
Definition
The body's high glucose levels make it easier for microorganisms to grow.
WBC activity is decreased |
|
|
Term
Diagnosing Diabetes
In terms of a 'casual plasma glucose' levels, what amount would be diagnostic of Diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diagnosing Diabetes:
What are the Fasting plasma glucose levels diagnostic of Diabetes? |
|
Definition
| >126 mg/dL on 2 or more occasions |
|
|
Term
| What HbA1c levels are indicative of Diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test) Level is suggestive of Diabetes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 1st and 2nd major causes of death in patients with DM1 |
|
Definition
1. Renal Failure
2. Myocardial infarction |
|
|
Term
| What is the first clinical sign of nephropathy? |
|
Definition
Microalbuminuria-protein in the urine.
Kidney must be damaged if it is spilling protein into the urine. |
|
|
Term
| Why is it so important for Diabetic pts to remove other risk factors like smoking and obesity? |
|
Definition
Diabetes causes accelerated atherosclerosis and decreased NO activity in the endothelium which results in thinner blood vessels.
These complications lead to major risk of macrovascular disease |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 signs that a Diabetic also has Peripheral Vascular Disease |
|
Definition
Diminished blood flow to the extremities can be seen by:
1. Leg pain relieved by rest
2. Cold feet/low pulse
3. Nocturnal leg pain relieved by dangling legs/walking
4. Loss of hair on foot/toes |
|
|
Term
| Explain how a Diabetic pt could have ulcerations/infections on their feet and be unaware of it? |
|
Definition
| The ischemia can be accompanied by peripheral neuropathy. Thus patients can eventually lose sensation in their feet. |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 Common ocular complications of Diabetes mellitus |
|
Definition
Cataracts
Retinopathy
Glaucoma |
|
|
Term
| Define 'AGE's and describe why they form |
|
Definition
AGE=Advanced Glycosylated End-products
Form when glucose levels in the blood are so high that lots of the proteins get glycated |
|
|
Term
| Explain why Diabetics are at risk for accelerated atherosclerosis |
|
Definition
| When blood glucose levels get high AGEs form (Advanced Glycosylated End-proucts). These AGEs are sticky and they can trap LDLs. |
|
|
Term
| Why are a lot of Diabetic pt's placed on low-dose aspirin? |
|
Definition
There is increased Thromboxane A2 synthesis, which stimulates platelet adhesion.
Aspirin counteracts this process. |
|
|
Term
| What results from activation of Protein Kinase C |
|
Definition
Increased:
-Endothelial proliferation
-Angiogenesis
-Vascular permeability |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 Downsides in using Exogenous insulin to treat Diabetes |
|
Definition
1. Possible Hypoglycemia
2. Has to be injected
3. May cause weight gain |
|
|
Term
| How are the insulins Glargine and Detemir different from the other insulins |
|
Definition
They have a longer duration of action than the others (24 hr control)
Also, they are more painful when injected than the others. |
|
|
Term
| What is NPH and how is it used? |
|
Definition
NPH=Neutral Protamine Hagedorn
It is a mix of regular insulin with protamine zinc insulins. It causes the insulin to be bound to zinc.
This makes it so the insulin is absorbed more slowly and thus is longer acting |
|
|
Term
| What is Pramlintide acetate (Symlin) and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
It is a synthetic Amylin analog.
Amylin is a substance that is normally secreted with insulin, it slows gastric emptying.
It is given to DM1 and DM2 patients who need better control |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Incretins are proteins in the body that promote a sense of satiety and also promote the release of insulin from the pancreas.
GLp-1 is an Incretin |
|
|
Term
| What are Exenatide (Byetta) and Liraglutide (Victoza)? |
|
Definition
| They are drugs that are Incretin mimetics |
|
|
Term
| Describe the action of Gliptins |
|
Definition
Gliptins are Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors
ie. Gliptins block the enzymes that degrade Incretins.
This in turn stimulates the pancreas to secrete more insulin and causes decreased hepatic glucose production |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis and increase glucose uptake by the tissues, in short they decrease insulin resistance. |
|
|
Term
| Give an example of a Biguanide |
|
Definition
Metformin is the #1 Biguanide
Also have Glucovance and Avandamet (which have metformin in them) |
|
|
Term
| Why are biguanides preferred over the traditional option, sulfonylureas? |
|
Definition
| Sulfonylureas were known to cause weight gain whereas biguanides can allow the pts to lose weight. |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the action of Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) |
|
Definition
| They are basically insulin sensitizers, they increase the action of insulin in the tissues |
|
|
Term
| Describe the action of Intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitors |
|
Definition
| These drugs slow the breakdown of carbohydrates and decrease glucose absorption |
|
|
Term
| Name the 2 Intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the action of Sulfonylureas |
|
Definition
| They stimulate the release of insulin from beta cells as well as enchance beta cell sensitivity to glucose. |
|
|
Term
| What disadvantage is associated with sulfonylureas, making it no longer the number one choice in treatment |
|
Definition
| It is associated with increased risk for cardiac-related death. |
|
|
Term
| Explain why Meglitinide is only active for a certain length of time and then becomes inactive even if it is still in the blood stream. |
|
Definition
Meglitinide stimulates the release of insulin from functioning beta cells, but only in the presence of glucose.
Once the glucose is depleted the drug is no longer active. |
|
|
Term
| What advantage does Meglitinide have compared to other drugs that stimulate secretion of insulin. |
|
Definition
| Since Meglitinide becomes inactive once glucose is depleted it does not induce hypoglycemia. |
|
|
Term
| What is a disadvantage of islet cell transplant into the liver. |
|
Definition
| Although these transplants have a high success rate they require the pt to be on immunosuppressants for the rest of their lives. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Primary Hyperaldosteronism due to an aldosterone secreting adrenal adenoma
This is the most common form of Primary hyperaldosteronism |
|
|