Term
| What heart defect is associated with chromosomal 22q11 deletions |
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Definition
Tetrology of Fallot
Truncus arteriosus |
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Term
| What heart defect is associated with Down syndrome? |
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Definition
| ASD, VSD (endocardial cushion defects) |
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Term
| What heart defect is associated with congenital rubella? |
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Definition
| PDA (pulmonary artery stenosis) |
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Term
| What heart defect is associated with Turner's syndrome? |
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Definition
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Term
| What heart defect is associated with Marfan syndrome |
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Definition
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Term
What CN innervates the tongue:
taste in the anterior 2/3 |
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Definition
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Term
What CN innervates the tongue:
Taste in the posterior 1/3 |
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Definition
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Term
What CN innervates the tongue:
Motor |
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Definition
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Term
What CN innervates the tongue:
Sensation to the anterior 2/3 |
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Definition
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Term
| Sensation to the posterior 1/3 |
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Definition
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Term
What pathology fits the following phrase:
Antiplatelet antibodies |
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Definition
| Indopathic thrombocytopenic purpura |
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Term
What pathology fits the following phrase:
Bamboo spine on Xray |
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Definition
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Term
What pathology fits the following phrase:
antihistone antibodies |
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Definition
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Term
What pathology fits the following phrase:
Webbed neck, short stature |
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Definition
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Term
What pathology fits the following phrase:
Painful raised lesions on palms and fever |
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Definition
| Osler's nodes (infective endocarditis) |
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Term
What pathology fits the following phrase:
Dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis |
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Definition
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Term
| Assuming normal Gaussian distribution, and average is 35 with SD of 4, what percentage of people will be in the interval between 31 and 43? |
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Definition
(-1SD and +2SD)= 81.5%
(34% + 34% + 13.5%) |
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Term
| What conditions are associated with elevated ESR? |
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Definition
Nonspecific infection (osteomyelitis)
Inflammation (polymalgia rhematica)
Neoplasm |
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Term
| What are toxic side effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)? |
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Definition
| Convulsions, Cardiotoxicity, Coma |
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Term
| What antiseizure drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder? |
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Definition
Lamotrigine
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid |
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Term
| What are the sxx of organophosphate poisoning? |
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Definition
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bradycardia
Bronchospasm
Excitation of skeletal mm
Lacrimation
Salivation
Sweating
and abdominal cramping |
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Term
| What are the sxx of atropine overdose? |
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Definition
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet
Mad as a hatter
Bloated as a toad
Blind as a bat |
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Term
| What brain structure is responsible for extraocular movement during REM? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the pulse pressure in a patient with a systolic pressure of 150 and a MAP of 90? |
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Definition
MAP=1/3 sys + 2/3 diastolic
Diastolic =60
PP = 150-60 = 90 |
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Term
| What is the basic equation for Cardiac Output? |
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Definition
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Term
| What factors affect stroke volume? |
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Definition
| Afterload, Preload, Contractility |
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Term
| What heart sound is associated with dilated congestive heart failure? |
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Definition
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Term
| What heart sound is associated with chronic HTN? |
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Definition
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Term
| What gives rise to jugular venous a, c, and v waves? |
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Definition
a: atrial contraction
c: ventricular contraction
v: completed filling against closed tricuspid valve |
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Term
| What is the heart ejection fraction? |
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Definition
index of ventricular contractility
EF = SV/EDV |
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Term
| What physiology accounts for the automaticity of the AV and SA nodes? |
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Definition
| Phase 4 gradual Na conductance |
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Term
| With what type of congenital heart defect would increasing the afterload be beneficial? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where does the QRS complex fall in relation to valvular dynamics? |
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Definition
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Term
| When does isovolumetric contraction take place? |
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Definition
| during hte QRS after mitral valve closure, but before aortic valve opens |
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Term
What pathology matches the following statement:
Focal myocardial inflammation with multinucleate giant cells? |
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Definition
| Aschoff bodies (rheumatic fever) |
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Term
What pathology matches the following statement:
Eosinophilic, cytoplasmic globules in liver near nucleus |
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Definition
| Mallory bodies (alcoholic liver disease) |
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Term
What pathology matches the following statement:
Desquamated epithelial casts in sputum |
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Definition
| Curschmann's spirals (bronchial asthma; can result in whorled mucus plugs) |
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Term
| What are the two different kinds of 2nd degree AV block? |
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Definition
Mobitz type 1: PR interval is progressively prolonged until there is a dropped beat
Mobitz type 2: No prolongation of PR interval before dropped beat |
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Term
| What are normal BPs in the right and left ventricles |
|
Definition
Right: <25/5
Left: <130/10 |
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Term
| What substances act on smooth muscle myosin light-chain kinase? How does this affect BP? |
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Definition
CCBs inhibit calmodulin-Ca, thereby inhibiting myosin light-chain kinase-->No sm. m contraction, decrease BP
Epinephrine B2 and PGE2 inhibit cAMP thereby inhibiting myosin light-chain kinase-->No sm. m contraction, decrease BP |
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Term
| How would heart failure affect the Starling forces of fluid movement throughout capillaries? |
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Definition
| Back up of hydrostatic pressure increasing flow into the interstitium |
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Term
| How would liver failure affect the Starling forces of fluid movement throughout capillaries? |
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Definition
| Decreased oncotic pressure due to decreased production of liver proteins which prevents retention of fluid in the capillaries, and promotes fluid leaving and going into the interstitium |
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Term
| How would infection and toxins affect the Starling forces of fluid movement throughout capillaries? |
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Definition
| increased capillary permeability |
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Term
| How would lymphatic blockage affect the Starling forces of fluid movement throughout capillaries? |
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Definition
| increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure |
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Term
| Outline the mechanism by which the kidney regulates BP |
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Definition
1. JG apparatus senses low BP
2. Stimulates the production of renin
3. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
4. AngI travels to the lungs where it is converted to angII by ACE
5. AngII causes direct vasoconstriction at angII receptors
6. Ang II goes to the adrenal cortex where it stimulates aldosterone production
7. Aldosterone goes back to the kidneys and increases the retention of Na and H2O to increase BP |
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Paroxysms of increased sympathetic tone: anxiety, palpitations, diaphoresis |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Age of onset b/n 20 and 50 |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Elevated serum creatinine and abnormal urinalysis |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Abdominal bruit |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
BP arms > legs |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Fam Hx of HTN |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Tachycardia, heat intolerance, diarrhea |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Hyperkalemia |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Episodic sweating and tachycardia |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
abrupt onset in pt younger than 20 or older than 50 with depressed serum K levels |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Central obesity, moonshaped face, hirsutism |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Normal urinalysis, normal serum K |
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Definition
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Young individual with acute onset tachycardia |
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Definition
| Stimulant abuse (cocaine...) |
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Hypokalemia |
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Definition
| Renal artery stenosis, Hyperaldosteronism |
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Term
What would you most suspect the cause of HTN to be in a pt with the following clinical clues:
Proteinuria |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Orthostatic HoTN with first dose |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Ototoxic (especially with aminoglycosides) |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Hypertrichosis |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Cyanide toxicity |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Bradycardia, impotence, asthma exacerbation |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Reflex tachycardia |
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Definition
| Nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate, DHP CCBs, Hydralazine |
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Cough |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Avoid in patients with sulfa allergy |
|
Definition
| Loop and thiazide diuretics |
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Possible angioedema |
|
Definition
| ACE inhibitor (excess bradykinin) |
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Possible development of drug induced lupus |
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Definition
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Term
What antihypertensive class or drug fits the following side effect:
Hypercalcemia, hypokalemia |
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Definition
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Term
| Which antihypertensives are safe to use during pregnancy |
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Definition
Hydralazine is 1st line for pregnancy
Methyldopa, Labetalol, Nifedipine |
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Term
| While on an ACE inhibitor, a patient develops a cough. What is a good replacement, and why doesn't it have the same side effect |
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Definition
| ARB, does not inhibit breakdown of bradykinin |
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Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
SE= facial flushing |
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Definition
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Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
SE= elevated LFTs and myositis |
|
Definition
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Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
GI discomfort, bad taste |
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Definition
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Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
Best effect on HDL |
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Definition
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Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
Best affect on triglycerides |
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Definition
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Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
Best effect on LDL/cholesterol |
|
Definition
| HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (-statins) |
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|
Term
Which lipid lowering agent:
Binds C.diff toxin |
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Definition
| Cholestyramine (Bile acid resin) |
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Term
| A 50 year old man starts a lipid-lowering agent. After his first does, he develops a rash, pruritis, and diarrhea. What is he likely taking? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| How can the flushing reaction that occurs with Niacin be prevented? |
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Definition
| Take with aspirin. Decreases with long term use |
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Term
| What is the MOA of cardiac glycosides (digoxin, digitoxin) |
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Definition
| Direct inhibition of Na/K ATPase leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchanger/antiport. Increased intracellular Ca leads causes postitive inotropy. Stimulates vagus nerve. |
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Term
| An abdominal aortic aneurysm is most likely a consequence of what process? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are the 5 deadly causes of acute chest pain? |
|
Definition
Aortic dissection
Unstable angina
Myocardial infarction
Tension pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolus |
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Term
| A pt with poorly manages HTN has acute, sharp, substernal pain that radiates to the back and progresses over a few hours. Death occurs in a few hours. Dx? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
ST segment elevation only during brief episodes of chest pain |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Patient is able to point to localize the chest pain using one finger |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Chest wall tenderness on palpation |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Rapid onset chest pain that radiates to the scapula |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Rapid onsel chest pain in a 20 year old an associated with dyspnea |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Occurs after heavy means and is relieved by antacids |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Sharp pain lasting hours-days and somewhat relieved by leaning forward |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Pain made worse by deep breathing/motion |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Chest pain in a dermatomal distribution |
|
Definition
| Shingles (Herpes Zoster Virus) |
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Most common cause of non-cardiac chest pain |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Acute onset dyspnea, tachycardia, and confusion in a hospitalized patient |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the most likely cause of chest pain in the following scenario:
Pain began the day following an intensive new exercise program |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract conveys touch, vibration, and pressure sensation? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract conveys voluntary motor command from motor cortex to body? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract conveys motor command from motor cortex to head/neck? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract conveys alternate routes for the mediation of voluntary movement? |
|
Definition
| reticulospinal tract and rubrospinal tract |
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract conveys pain and temperature sensation? |
|
Definition
| lateral spinothalamic tract |
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract is important for postural adjustments and head movement? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which spinal tract conveys proprioceptive information for the cerebellum? |
|
Definition
| dorsal and ventral spinocerebellar tracts |
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