Term
| What is the relationship between bile acids and lipid digestion? |
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Definition
Bile acids are the major transporters of fat products in the intestine. They
- form mixed micelles with the fat products
- phospholipids, lysolecithin, FFAs, cholesterol, 2-MG, Vit A/D/E/K
- in order to solubilize them
- in order to transport them to intestinal cells for absorption
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Term
| What is the role of CCK in digestion? |
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Definition
CCK is stimulated by
- Release of chyme and FFAs into duodenal lumen (fat digestion)
- Release of AAs into duodenal lumen (protein digestion)
CCK once secreted by the intestine goes to 2 locations
- Intestinal lumen
- Blood→pancreas, gallbladder
In the PANCREAS, CCK stimulates release of fat-digesting hormones, protein-digesting hormones and bicarb:
- Trypsinogen
- Procolipase
- Lipase
- Esterase
- Pro-PLA2
- Chymotrypsinogen (protein-digesting)
- Proelastase (protein-digesting)
- Procarboxypeptidase (protein-digesting)
- HCO3- (neutralizes acid so enzymes can work)
In the INTESTINE, CCK stimulates secretion of
- Enteropeptidase
- Trypsinogen→Trypsin (causes activation of pancreatic zymogens in intestine)
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Term
| Vitamin A--Name the 3 types of retinol-binding proteins, and include their locations and the Vitamin A metabolites they bind. |
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Definition
- RBP = retinol (blood transport)
- CRBP = retinol (cytoplasm)
- CRABP = retinoic acid (produced in epithelial cells)
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Term
| Name 4 Vitamin A metabolites and their functions. |
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Definition
- Retinal = vision
- Retinol = gonads
- Retinol palmitate = storage form in liver
- Retinoic acid = embryonic development, epithelial cell growth/differentiation
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Term
| Light perception in the eye is based on ____ neurotransmitter release. Name the neurotransmitter and G protein type. |
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Definition
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Term
| The ultimate function of rhodopsin is to (open/close) Na+/Ca++ channels to (hyperpolarize/depolarize) the cell membrane to (increase/decrease) glutamate release--this release is interpreted as light perception. |
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Definition
Close
Hyperpolarize
Decrease |
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Term
| Name the 2 enzymes/proteins involved in inactivating metarhodopsin 2. |
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Definition
Rhodopsin kinase (for cessation)
Arrestin (for complete inactivation ~ prevents dephoshoprylation) |
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Term
| Name the pigment occurring in the rod cells of the retina that accept photons of light to mediate vision. Name the active form. |
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Definition
Rhodopsin
Metarhodopsin II |
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Term
| Name 3 major effects of Vitamin A deficiency. |
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Definition
Embryo (neural crest = craniofacial, cardiac, CNS/PNS)
Eye (night vision, keratinization of lens)
Infection (keratinization of skin/GI/GU/lungs→ cracking→ infection) |
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Term
| What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands? |
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Definition
Endocrine = ductless glands
Exocrine = glands that secrete into ducts |
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Term
| Name 2 mechanisms by which hormones exert their effects in cells. |
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Definition
1) Intracellular = go into cell and exert effects on genes
2) Extracellular = exert effects via 2nd messenger systems |
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Term
| Name 2 ways the hypothalamus influences the pituitary gland. |
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Definition
1) Neural = hypothalamohypophyseal tract
2) Humoral = hypophyseal portal system. Neuronal axons terminate in the median eminence, a site lacking the BBB, so hormones leak into here, which carries hormones via the portal plexus system to the anterior pituitary. |
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Term
| Name the 2 parts of the pituitary gland, their constituent parts, and their unique embryologic origins. |
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Definition
- Adenohypophysis (oral ectoderm invagination = Rathke's pouch)
- Pars distalis (big pouch)
- Pars intermedia (intermediate)
- Pars tuberalis (stalk)
- Neurohypophysis (neuroectoderm)
- Pars nervosa
- Pars infundibulum
NOTE: The 2 major components mentioned in most areas are the pars nervosa and pars distalis. |
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Term
| Name the cell types in the Neurohypophysis (2), Adenohypophysis (5), Pineal gland (2) |
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Definition
Neurohypophysis
- Neurons (axons)
- Pituicytes (neuroglia)
Adenohypophysis
- Somatotrophs (GH, STH, somatotropin)
- Mammotrophs (Prolactin)
- Gonadotrophs (LH, FSH)
- Thyrotrophs (TSH)
- Corticotrophs (ACTH)
Pineal Gland
- Pinealocytes
- Interstitial cells (astrocyte-like)
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Term
| Name the hormones released by the neurohypophysis, adenohypophysis and their target tissues. |
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Definition
Neurohypophysis =
- ADH = kidney
- OT = uterus, breast
Adenohypophysis =
- GH, Somatotropin, STH = bone growth
- Prolactin = mammary glands
- LH = ovaries, testicular IC cells
- FSH = follicles, spermatogenesis
- TSH = thyroid
- ACTH = adrenal cortex
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Term
| Does the anterior pituitary have its own blood supply? |
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Definition
| No, all of the blood it gets first passes through the hypothalamus. This can result in ischemic damage with sudden losses of pressure = postpartum pituitary necrosis |
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Term
| Anything special about the pars intermedia? |
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Definition
| Yup. It's rudimentary in adults, but it also seems to secrete MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone). |
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Term
| Name the hormones secreted by the pineal gland. |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the visual system have to do with the pineal gland? Describe both the anatomic and visual effects. |
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Definition
Anatomic = the pineal gland's neural input is from the superior cervical ganglion (visual system).
Physiologic = visual input INHIBITS melatonin release. Thus, greater amounts of melatonin are released at night. |
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Term
| Visual input (inhibits/stimulates) melatonin release. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the neurologic pathway by which vision affects melatonin release in the pineal gland. |
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Definition
| Retina→Suprachiasmatic nucleus→SNS neurons (SC)→Superior cervical ganglion→Pineal gland |
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Term
| Name the hormones secreted by the thyroid and parathyroid gland. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| A bag of thyroid follicles full of colloid, which is actually thyroglobulin. The follicles are lined by round cells. Pretty little bracelets :P |
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Term
| What do the thyroid colloid follicles contain? |
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Definition
| They contain thyroglobulin, the stored form of thyroid hormone. Thyroid follicles are pretty unique in that the thyroglobulin in the colloid is the stored, inactive form. Upon TSH binding to the thyroid, this colloid is endocytosed into follicular cells around the follicles. The thyroglobulin is then activated. |
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Term
| What bone cell types are affected by the thyroid gland and parathyroid glands? |
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Definition
Thyroid = Osteoclast (inhibition), via Calcitonin
Parathyroid = Osteoclast (stimulation), via PTH |
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Term
| Name the classic triad of Grave's disease. |
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Definition
- Goiter
- Exophthalmos
- Dermatopathy
- Pre-tibial myxedema = scaly skin on shins
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Term
| Which is the most potent form of thyroid hormone, T3 or T4? |
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Definition
| T3. Its effects are faster and more powerful. |
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Term
| Explain the function of rT3. |
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Definition
| rT3 is the inactive form of thyroid hormone, so in a fasting state (when you you don't want to increase metabolism), it serves as an outlet for storing excess hormone until it's needed. |
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Term
| What is the effect of excess blood iodide on the amount of iodide intake into the cell? What is the name of this effect? |
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Definition
Wolff-Chaikoff effect--Iodide trapping is inhibited when blood iodide is high.
Reason: protects against short-term fluctuations in in thyroid function due to dietary iodine intake.
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Term
| What is organification of iodine? |
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Definition
| Organification describes the binding of iodide to organic compounds and synthesis into thyroxine, after it has entered the follicular lumen, via the follicular cell. |
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Term
| Name 2 enzymes in the thyroid hormone production pathway that could be affected by inherited enyzme defects, causing hypothyroidism. |
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Definition
- Peroxidase
- Thyroid-specific deiodinase
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Term
| If there is a circadian rhythm of TRH and TSH release, why don't T3/T4 levels also reflect these rhythms? |
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Definition
Thyroid hormones are the most sluggish of the hormones; plus the circadian rhythms only affect the hypothalamo-pituitary axis--so, T3/T4 levels tend to dampen the diurnal rhythm obvious in TSH levels.
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Term
| Name the 3 thyroid transport proteins and their relative affinities/capacities. |
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Definition
- TBG = 70%; hi-affinity, low-capacity
- Albumin = 20%; low-affinity, high-capacity
- TBPA/Transthyretin = 10%; intermediate
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Term
| How does the body deal with an increase in the amount of thyroid-binding proteins, and why is this significant? |
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Definition
It's significant because only the unbound form of thyroid hormone is available for affecting cells.
The body deals with an increase in the amount of thyroid binding proteins (eg, in pregnancy!!!) by:
- Decreasing excretion rate
- Increasing production rate
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Term
| The primary determinant of the overall metabolic rate of the body is ____ |
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Definition
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Term
| Explain the effect of thyroid hormone on protein metabolism in the body. |
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Definition
NET protein use→muscle wasting, wt. loss, weakness
- Med concentrations = increased synthesis
- Hi concentrations = increased breakdown
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Term
| Explain the effects of thyroid hormone on lipid metabolism in the body. |
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Definition
NET lipolysis
- (TG, CE synthesis also increased)
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Term
| Explain the effect of thyroid hormone on carbohydrate metabolism in the body. |
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Definition
CATABOLIC = glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, glucose oxidation.
On GLUCOSE:
- Increased GI absorption
- Increased peripheral uptake (by insulin)
On GLYCOGEN:
- Increased glycogenesis (small amounts)
- Increased glycogenolysis (large amounts)
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Term
| Name the effects of thyroid hormone on 3 organs. |
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Definition
- Heart = increased BP/HR, etc.
- Upregulates Beta-1 receptors (not amount of catecholamines!!)
- CNS = development
- Path = cretinism = severe irreversible mental retardation
- Skeleton = maturation
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Term
| Name 1 full-body effect of thyroid hormones |
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Definition
- Calorigenic effect = energy metabolism, heat production
- via increased Na/K ATPase
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Term
| What does a starvation state do to levels of thyroid hormone? |
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Definition
| DECREASES it!!! Decrease BMR in low-energy states! |
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Term
| Name some enzymes/proteins intracellular thyroid hormone causes coding for. |
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Definition
Oxidative enzymes (G3PDH) Mitochondrial UCP
Na/K ATPase
Growth hormone
Beta-1 receptors |
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Term
| List the main components of bone. |
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Definition
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Term
| List the main bone manifestations of osteoporosis, osteomalacia, rickets, and von Recklinghausen's syndrome (in terms of their effects on bone). |
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Definition
Osteoporosis = decreased overall bone mass (collagen, mineral, cells)
Osteomalacia/Rickets = decreased bone mineral
von Recklinghausen's = hyperparathyroidism-induced decreased bone mineral with increased cysts (decalcification, cystic brown tumor lesions with fibrosis)
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Term
| List the main causes of osteoporosis, osteomalacia, rickets, and von Recklinghausen's. |
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Definition
Osteoporosis = decreased estrogen→increased OCs, decreased OBs
Osteomalacia = decreased Vitamin D (adults)→hypocalcemia→increased PTH→increased OCs
Rickets = decreased Vitamin D (children)→hypocalcemia→increased PTH→increased OCs
von Recklinghausen's = increased PTH→increased OCs |
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Term
| What is the main similarity and difference between osteomalacia and rickets? |
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Definition
Similiarity = both caused by Vitamin D deficiency
Difference =
- Osteomalacia = ↓ Vitamin D in mature bone (adults)
- Rickets = ↓ Vitamin D in growing bone (kids)
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Term
| List the main causes of osteomalacia. |
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Definition
Osteomalacia = vitamin D absorption/metabolism problems, so:
- chronic renal failure
- Malabsorption
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Term
| List the main causes of rickets. |
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Definition
- Decreased intake = due to decreased nutrition/sunlight (nutritional rickets)
- Decreased production = 1-OHase defect (Type 1 HVDRR)
- Decreased cell uptake = Vitamin D receptor defect (Type 2 HVDRR)
- DNA-binding domain
- Hormone binding domain
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Term
| Can patients with Hereditary Hypocalcemic Vitamin D-Resistant Rickets (HVDRR) be treated with physiologic replacement of 1,25 (OH)2D3? |
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Definition
Type 1 HVDRR = Yes
Type 2 HVDRR =
- DNA-binding domain = NO
- Hormone-binding domain = Yes
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Term
| Distinguish the lab difference between HVDRR Types 1 and 2. |
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Definition
HVDRR 1 = high 25(OH)D3, low 1,25(OH)2D3
HVDRR 2 = high 1,25(OH)2D3 |
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Term
| What is the difference between senile and post-menopausal osteoporosis? |
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Definition
- Senile = old people. Due to aging (decreased OBs).
- Post-menopausal = women. Due to decreased estrogen (increased OC activity, decreased OB activity)
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Term
| Describe histology of osteoporosis. |
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Definition
| Decreased thickness of cortical and trabecular bone. |
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Term
| Name the anatomic sites that are most prone to damage in osteoporosis. |
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Definition
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Term
| Diagram the roles of estrogen, cytokines, and signaling pathways (RANKL/OPG) in osteoporosis. |
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Definition
| See "Bone Remodeling," Dr St John's "Normal Cartilage and Bone" Lecture from MSS block. (or my own picture of it...) |
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Term
| Describe the pathology of osteomalacia. |
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Definition
Normal = (note normal thickness of osteoid)
http://content.edgar-online.com/edgar_conv_img/2005/12/21/0000950134-05-023569_A15650A1565002.GIF
Osteomalacia = widened osteoid seams
http://www.scielo.br/img/revistas/abem/v54n2/02f2.jpg
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Term
| Name the causes of hypercalcemia. |
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Definition
C = Carcinoma
H = HHM
I = Intoxication of Vitamin D, immobilization
M = Milk-alkali syndrome,
P = Paget's disease
S = Sarcoidosis |
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Term
| Name the causes of hypocalcemia. |
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Definition
- PTH =
- Low supply = hypoparathyroidism
- End-organ resistance = pseudohypoparathyroidism
- Vitamin D
- Low supply = rickets, Type 1 HVDRR
- End-organ resistance = Type 2 HVDRR
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Term
| Name the 3 types of hyperparathyroidism by cause. |
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Definition
- Primary = increased tissue
- Adenoma, Hyperplasia, Carcinoma
- Secondary = ↓ Ca→↑ PTH
- Renal disease, Malabsorption
- Tertiary = long-standing ↓ Ca→↑ PTH→ autologous PTH secretion
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Term
| Describe the genetics of primary hyperparathyroidism. |
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Definition
- 95% of primary hyperparathyroidism is sporadic
- 5% of primary hyperparathyroidism is familial = MEN-1, MEN-2, FHH
- MEN-1 = most. loss of MEN-1 gene from chromosome 11q13
- MEN-2 = activating mutation of RET proto-oncogene (TYK receptor) on chromosome 10q.
- Adenomas
- PRAD1 gene defect coding for cyclin D1 (tumor suppressor)
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Term
| Describe FHH (causes, S/S). |
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Definition
Cause = resistance to Calcium receptor (CaR)
S/S = hypercalcemia, hypOcalciuria!
- Hypocalciuria because calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is not feedback-inhibited.
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Term
| Describe HHM (cause, effect) |
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Definition
- Cause = PTHrP binds to PTH receptors on bone and acts just like PTH, but is NOT feedback-inhibited.
- Effect = hypercalcemia
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Term
| Name the 3 histopathologic lesions causing primary hyperparathyroidism and their characteristics. |
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Definition
- Adenoma = solitary (usually). Thin wispy capsule. No fat. Lower glands especially!!!
- MUST bx all glands to distinguish between adenoma vs. hyperplasia.
- Hyperplasia = all glands (usually). chief cell hyperplasia.
- Carcinoma = vascular invasion + capsule invasion!
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Term
| What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
| Surgical ablation (radical neck dissxn, thyroid surgeries) |
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Term
| Describe pseudohypoparathyroidism and associated labs. Does PTH injection change labs? |
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Definition
- PTH G protein mutation→end-organ resistance
- Labs = hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia.
- (PTH injection→no change in these labs or in urinary cAMP)
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Term
| Predict Calcium and PTH levels for: Primary hyperparathyroidism, Malignancy & hypercalcemia, Hypoparathyroidism, Chronic renal failure |
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Definition
- Primary hyperparathyroidism
- Malignancy & hypercalcemia
- Hypoparathyroidism
- Chronic renal failure
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Term
| Describe the S&S of primary hyperparathyroidism. |
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Definition
Stones & bones...
- Bone disease = mild decalcification - osteoporosis
- Renal stones
- GI abnormalities = ulcers, pancreatitis, gallstones
- Metastatic calcifications = leads to CRF if in kidney
- In gastric mucosa, kidney, lungs, systemic arteries, pulm veins
- von Recklinghausen disease of bone = late-stage hyperparathyroidism. General bone decalcification + osteitis fibrosa cystica + multiple fx + renal stones
- Osteitis fibrosa cystica = fibrosis + cysts (X-ray) + brown tumors (hemorrhage) + lots multi-nucleated OCs
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Term
| Describe the pathology of secondary hyperparathyroidism. |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the uses of B6 (pyridoxine) |
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Definition
- Catecholamine synthesis (L-dopa→Dopamine)
- Transaminase reactions
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Term
| Explain the effects of Epi/NE on carbohydrate metabolism (include adrenergic receptors). |
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Definition
- alpha-1 receptor = increased liver glycogenolysis
- beta-2 = more comprehensive:
- increased liver/muscle glycogenolysis
- increased gluconeogenesis
- decreased glycogenesis
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Term
| Explain the effects of NE/Epi on fat metabolism. |
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Definition
- alpha-2 receptor = decreased lipolysis
- beta-2 receptor = increased lipolysis
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Term
| Explain the effect of NE/Epi on hormone secretion. |
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Definition
- Alpha-2 receptor = decreased insulin, glucagon
- Beta-2 receptor = increased insulin, glucagon
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Term
| What is the biggest difference between beta-2 receptors and the other adrenergic receptors? |
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Definition
- Beta-2 receptors are activated by Epi only.
- Beta-2 receptors are NOT innervated by sympathetic nerves.
- Beta-2 receptors are located on bronchial smooth muscle and skeletal muscle.
- Thus, Epi can cause vasodilation in certain tissues while NE/Epi cause vasoconstriction in other vessels.
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Term
| Where are Beta-3 receptors and what do they do? What stimulates them? |
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Definition
| Beta-3 receptors are on adipose cells. Stimulation causes lipolysis. Only NE can stimulate adipose cells. |
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Term
| Is the affinity of Epi for beta-2 the same as it is for alpha-2, and does this have any implications for BP regulation? |
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Definition
Epi has higher affinity for beta-2 receptors>alpha-2 receptors.
At low doses, Epi decreases blood pressure.
At high doses, Epi increases blood pressure. |
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Term
| Name 2 diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma. |
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Definition
Urinary catecholamines, metanephrine.
Plasma metanephrine. |
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Term
| Name the alpha/beta agonists/blockers. |
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Definition
Alpha-1 agonist = phenylephrine
Alpha-1 antagonist = phenoxybenzamine (pheochromocytoma Tx)
Beta-1 agonist = dobutamine
Beta-2 agonist = albuterol
Beta antagonists = olol's |
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Term
| Name the locations of GLUT-2 (organ, side of cell). |
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Definition
Facilitated diffusion in:
- Small intestine (blood side)
- Pancreas (blood side)
- Liver (blood side)
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Term
| Name the transporters that transport glucose in the intestinal cell (include type of transporter, molecule transported, and side of cell). |
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Definition
Lumen side:
- SGLT-2 (sodium-glucose transporter) = active transport/Na+ cotransporter
- GLUT-5
Blood side;
- GLUT-2 (facilitated diffusion)
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