Term
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Definition
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Term
| What is a commander’s evaluation for, and what does it consist of? |
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Definition
Commander’s Evaluation determines the proficiency and initial RL level of newly assigned crewmembers. It consists of a records review and possible a Proficiency Flight Evaluation (PFE).
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Chapter 2 (Commander's Evaluation) pdf 27, para 2-23) |
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Term
| Upon reporting to anew unit, how long does each crewmember have to present his or her flight records (IFRF and IATF) to the new unit? |
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Definition
14 calendar days
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Chapter 2 (Goal & Applicabilty) pdg 23, para 2-2) |
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Term
| If the initial RL cannot be determined by a records review or if the commander desires, the crewmember will undergo a proficiency flight evaluation (PFE). What tasks should the PFE include? |
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Definition
At a minimum the PFE should include base and mission tasks designated by the commander in the unit ATP SOP.
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Chapter 2 (Proficiency Flight Evaluation) pdf 27, para 2-25 |
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Term
| The ___________________ determines the initial RL of newly assigned crewmembers. |
|
Definition
Commander’s Evaluation
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Chapter 2 (Commander’s Evaluation) pdf 26, para 2-23 |
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Term
| The ATP training year is divided into semiannual training periods. When does the first training period begin for Active Army and USAR crewmembers |
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Definition
First day following their birth month
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Chapter 2 (Training Year) pdf 25, para 2-11) |
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Term
| What are the semiannual flying-hour requirements for FAC 3 personnel? |
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Definition
No crew duties authorized for FAC3
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Appendix A (Flight Hours Minimums) pdf 133. para A-1 |
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Term
| What are the semiannual flying-hour requirements for FAC 2 personnel? ______ hours, of which ______ hours must be flown in each crew station. |
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Definition
__6____ hours, of which ___2___ hours must be flown in each crew station.
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Appendix A (Flight Hours Minimums) pdf 133. para A-1 |
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Term
| What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 1 personnel? ______ hours, of which ______ hours must be flown in each crew station. |
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Definition
__12____ hours, of which ___4___ hours must be flown in each crew station.
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Appendix A (Flight Hours Minimums) pdf 133, para A-1 |
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Term
| FAC 1 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ____ aircraft hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flight simulator requirements. |
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Definition
20 hours
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Appendix A (Flight Hours Minimums) pdf 133, para A-2 |
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Term
| FAC 2 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ____ aircraft hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual simulator requirements. |
|
Definition
8 hours
Ref: TC 3-04.63: Appendix A (Flight Hours Minimums) pdf 133, para A-2 |
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Term
| According to the AR 95-23 when will a PFE be conducted? |
|
Definition
- At the discretion of the commander
- At the direction of HQDA
- By an IO or SO per the appropriate ATM
- To determine an individual's proficiency and/or currency
- To determine which phase of training isappropriate for entry into or continuation in the ATP.
Ref: AR 95-23, Chapter 4 (Hands-on performance test) Para 4-9, b. pdf 19 |
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Term
| After conducting a PFE the examiner will debrief the individual and record the event on DA form_______. |
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Definition
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Term
| According to AR 95-23,what are 4 hands-on evaluations that could be given to an UAC? |
|
Definition
Standardization Flight Eval (SFE),
Proficiency Flight Eval (PFE),
Post Mishap Eval (PME), Medical Eval (ME)
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Hands-on performance test) Para 4-9,a. b. c. d. pdf 19 |
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Term
| What are the currency requirements for Gray Eagle UACs? |
|
Definition
Perform every 60 consecutive days, a takeoff and landing while operating the UAS or an approved simulator. Perform every 120 consecutive days, a takeoff and landing while operating the UAS.
Ref: TC 3-04.63: (Apendix A) Currancy Requirments, pdf 133, para A-3 |
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Term
| According to 95-23, when will ground observers will be evaluated? |
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Definition
Semi- annually, according to the unit SOP and training program
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 24, para 4-27 d. |
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Term
| When does flying time start for a fixed-wing UAS? |
|
Definition
When the UAS begins to move forward on the takeoff roll (or takeoff launch for rail launch operations).
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 2 (Computation of flying time) pdf 12, para 2-6 |
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Term
| Units deployed for contingency operations, the first______commander may waive launch and recovery currency requirements. Prior to resuming launch and recovery duties, personnel must demonstrate proficiency to an IO. |
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Definition
| O-6 Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 18, para 4-2 (4) |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Commanders (LTC/O-5) and above may grant unit waivers and/or extensions, up to 180 days, to ATP requirements for units under their command during operational deployments |
|
Definition
FALSE.
O-6 and above
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 18, para 4-2 (4) |
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Term
| Commanders_________and above and the state Army aviation officer (SAAO) may grant unit waivers and/or extensions to ATP requirements (for up to 180 days) for units under their command, or state and/or territory affected by operational deployments. |
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Definition
O-6
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 18, para 4-2 (4) |
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Term
| Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first ____, and above, in the individual’s chain of command. |
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Definition
O-6
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 18, para 4-2 (4) b. |
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Term
| When UACs have not flown with the past_________days, they will receive refresher training prescribed in the appropriate UAS ATM. |
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Definition
180 days
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Readiness Levels) pdf 28 para 2-38 |
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Term
| Active Army UACs have 90 consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next. Readiness level progression will exclude days lost because of 5 reasons. List them. |
|
Definition
Leave approved by the Commander
TDY
Grounding of UAS
Ref: TC 3-04.60; (Readness Levels) pdf 18, para 2-33
Lack of equipment due to deployment / redeployment.
Medical or non-medical suspension
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-32) |
|
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Term
| How many days does an Active Army crew member have to progress for one RL level to the next? |
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Definition
90 days.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Readiness Levels) Progression pdf 28 para 2-33 |
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Term
| If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 for a training deficiency does he/she still have to satisfy all their RL 1 ATP requirements? |
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Definition
YES.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Readiness Levels 1) pdf 32 para 2-51 |
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Term
| briefing Officers and/or NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of _____ or above to identify, assess, and mitigate risk. |
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Definition
| NO. Ref: C Co Stands SOP; (1 Aug 15) G. Briefing Officer/NCOs (a) pdf 26 Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (Mission Approval Proccess) pdf 14, para 2-12 a. (2) |
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Term
| When could an individual deviate from the provisions outlined in AR 95-23? |
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Definition
During emergencies, to the extent necessary to meet that emergency.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 1 (Diviations) pdf 9, para 1-6 a. |
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Term
| Individuals who deviate from the provisions of AR 95-23, FAA regulations, or host-country regulations must report details of the incident directly to their _________. The incident must be reported within _____hours after it occurs. |
|
Definition
Unit Commander,
24 hours
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 1 (Diviations) pdf 9, para 1-6 b.
(AR 95-23 para 1-6c) |
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Term
| When conducting an evaluation, what are the 4 evaluation steps as outline in TC 3-04.63? |
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Definition
Introduction
Academic/Oral Evaluation topics
Flight Evaluation
DeBrief
Ref:
TC 3-04.63; Chapter 3 (Evaluation Sequence) pdf 52, para 3-43. 44. 56. 57. |
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Term
| List the 3 reasons Commanders prorate flying-hour/simulator minimums. |
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Definition
Is newly designated RL 1.
Has the primary UAS re-designated.
Changes duty position, which involves a change in the FAC level
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Flying Hours Requirements) pdf 35, para 2-70 |
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Term
| Commanders in the grade of______ and above will develop and publish policies and procedures for the mission approval process for those UAS units under their command. |
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Definition
O-5
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (Mission Approval Proccess) pdf 14, para 2-12 |
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Term
| Briefing Officers and/or NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of _____ or above to identify, assess, and mitigate risk. |
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Definition
O-5
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (Mission Approval Proccess) pdf 14, para 2-12 a. (2) |
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Term
| Self briefing is not authorized unless approved by the first officer in the grade of ______or above in the chain of command. |
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Definition
O-5
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (Mission Approval Proccess) pdf 15, para 2-12 b. (2) |
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Term
| At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a High Risk mission? |
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Definition
Brigade Commander
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (Mission Approval Proccess) pdf 14, para 2-12 a. (3) |
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Term
| At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a Moderate Risk mission? |
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Definition
Battalion Commander
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (Mission Approval Proccess) pdf 14, para 2-12 a. (3) |
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Term
| Commanders will implement the mishap prevention program set up by _________. |
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Definition
DA Pam 385-90
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Operations & Safety) pdf 16, para 3-5 |
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Term
| Procedures for reporting and investigating UAS mishaps are prescribed in ___________. |
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Definition
DA Pam 385-40
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Operations & Safety) pdf 16, para 3-6 a. |
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Term
| What form will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army UA or related personnel and equipment? |
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Definition
DA Form 2696
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Operations & Safety) pdf 17, para 3-9 |
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Term
| The commander will investigate when ATP requirements are not met. The commander will complete the investigation within ______ days of notification of the failure. |
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Definition
30
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 20, para 4-10 a. |
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Term
| After investigating why a crewmember failed to meet ATP requirements what actions can a commander take? |
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Definition
-Request a 30 day extension granted by commanders 0-5 and above
-Request a waiver granted by an 0-5
-Restrict the UAC from performing AC duties until requirements are met.
-Initiate proceedings for MOS requal
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 20, para 4-10 |
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Term
| True or False: Simulators may not be used to reestablish currency. |
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Definition
TRUE, unless authorized due to extreme environmental conditions
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 21, para 4-15 b. |
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Term
| Can an APART Standardization Flight Evaluation be conducted on the simulator? |
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Definition
YES, if approved by the first 0-5 or above in the chain of command on a case by case basis.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 19, para 4-9 a.
(ref: AR 95-23 para 4-9a). |
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Term
| DA form 5484 (mission brief sheet) will be retained in unit files with the corresponding risk assessment worksheet for at least ___________. |
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Definition
30 days.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 20, para 2-12 a (5). |
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Term
| No notice evaluations may be what kind of evaluations? |
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Definition
Written
Oral
Flight
Simulator
or combination
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 3 (Evaluations & Test) pdf 49, para 3-16 |
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Term
| During the mission approval process, are Briefing Officers authorized to brief missions, regardless of the level of mitigated risk? |
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Definition
YES.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 15, para 2-12(5)b(2) |
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Term
| Operators shall avoid overflying sensitive areas and wildlife conservation areas below _________. |
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Definition
2000 ft AGL
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 28, para 5-4 d. |
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Term
| According to AR-95-23 para (5-2C), for the purpose of flight planning, operators will obtain what weather information? |
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Definition
Departure, enroute, destination, and alternate (if used) weather information
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 20, para 2-12 a (5). |
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Term
| Warrant Officers who hold the MOS 150U and/or Officers holding a US Army aeronautical rating that _________ completed UAS qualification course _________ perform payload operator duties on a limited basis. |
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Definition
Have not/may
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 10, para 2-1 g(3). |
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Term
| The ultimate responsibility for obtaining a complete weather briefing is the ______________________. |
|
Definition
Operator
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 27, para 5-2c |
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Term
| What does the acronym APART stand for? |
|
Definition
Annual Proficiency And Readiness Test
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 19, para 4-7 |
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Term
| During RL progression if the exclusion period exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen? |
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Definition
UAC must re-start their current phase of RL progression
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 28, para 2-33 |
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Term
| If the exclusion period exceeds ____consecutive days for active army UAC's, operators must restart their current phase of RL progression. |
|
Definition
45
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 18, para 2-34 |
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|
Term
| TRUE OR FALSE. Concurrent days (example simultaneous medical suspension and TDY) may be added together to reduce semiannual flying hour minimums. |
|
Definition
FALSE
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 35, para 2-70 |
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Term
| Active army crewmembers have _______to progress from one RL to the next. |
|
Definition
90 days
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 28, para 2-33 |
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|
Term
| According to TC 3-04.63 the evaluation sequence consists of _____ phases? |
|
Definition
4
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 3 (Evaluation & Test) pdf 42, para 3-42 |
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Term
| When must a birth month closeout of the DA form 759 in the IFRF be completed? |
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Definition
Within 10 working days following the end of the birth month.
Ref: FM 3.04.300; Chapter 6 (Avn Flight Records Management) pdf 93, para 6-19 |
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Term
| The commander ___ and above will determine annual Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRNE) requirements . |
|
Definition
0-6
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 5 (Individual Aircrew Training Folder) pdf 42, para 5-9 |
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Term
| The UAS ________ assists the commander developing and executing the ATP. they also provide quality control; are the primary technical/tactical experts; provide training expertise and act as the advisor and subject matter expert for all UAS related issues. |
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Definition
SO
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 1 (Introduction) pdf 14, para 1-20 |
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Term
| Commanders use the DA Form _______ series to inform crewmembers of authorized duties, ATP flying hours, task, iterations, and evaluation requirements. |
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Definition
7120
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 5 (Individual Aircrew Training Folder) pdf 72, para 5-4 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Unit Trainers are authorized to evaluate. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| A UAC progresses from RL 3 to RL 2 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks? |
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Definition
Base Tasks (1000 series)
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 29, para 2-40 |
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Term
| A UAC progresses from RL 2 to RL 1 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks? |
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Definition
Mission (2000) and Additional (3000) series tasks.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 23, para 2-47 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander has up to 45 days to complete the investigation. |
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Definition
FALSE, 30 days
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 20, para 4-10 a. |
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Term
| According to AR 95-23, when waiver authority is not specified in specific paragraphs, waivers to provisions in Chapters 2 through 5 may only be granted by _____? |
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Definition
G 3/5/7/8
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 1 (General ) pdf 9, para 1-7 |
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Term
| The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the local level and consists of ___ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. |
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Definition
50
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Evaluation & Test) pdf 49, para 3-19 |
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Term
The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of 50 objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. Operators must pass this exam
with a passing score of _____. |
|
Definition
90%
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Evaluation & Test) pdf 49, para 3-19 |
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Term
| A FAC 3 demonstrated proficiency in Base tasks to an IO/SO initially within 90 days of being designated FAC 3, how often must he now demonstrate his proficiency in Base Tasks to an IO/SO? |
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Definition
Annually
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 26, para 2-18 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A commander can change a UAC’s FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements. |
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Definition
FALSE
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 23, para 2-13 |
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Term
| The __________ is the primary training manager and trainer for his/her unit. |
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Definition
Commander
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 1 (Introduction) pdf 12, para 1-11 |
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Term
| IAW TC 3-04.63, can a Local Area Orientation be conducted in a simulator? |
|
Definition
No, LAO must be flight.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 37, para 2-79 |
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Term
| In areas where extreme environmental conditions preclude safe operation of the UAS for periods excluding 120 consecutive days is currency waiverable by the ACOM commander? |
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Definition
No, currency cannot be waived, but the use of the simulator can be authorized to maintain currency for up to 180 days with ACOM commanders approval.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 21, para 4-15 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A UAC who is not current may perform MC duties. |
|
Definition
TRUE
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 22, para 4-21 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A medically grounded UAC can perform MC duties. |
|
Definition
TRUE
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 37, para 2-79 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. Graduates of the UAS qualification course who are on their first utilization tour can be designated RL 2 or RL 1 based on a records review. |
|
Definition
FALSE
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 27, para 2-26 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Aerial demonstrations in support of civil or military official functions are considered Special Use Missions. |
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Definition
TRUE
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Operations & Safety) pdf 16, para 3-3 |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Static demonstrations not on a military installation are considered Special Use Missions. |
|
Definition
TRUE
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 3 (Operations & Safety) pdf 16, para 3-3a |
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|
Term
| What (re) training requirements apply when a crewmember returns to an operational flying position after not having flown within the previous 180 days? |
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Definition
Must be designated RL3 and receive refresher training.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 26, para 2-26 |
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Term
| If a crewmember is initially designated RL 1, and more than______ months remain in the crewmembers training year, they must complete at least one iteration of each task in each mode indicated on their list. |
|
Definition
6
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 36, para 2-73 |
|
|
Term
| If a crewmember is initially designated RL 1, and less than ____months remain in the crewmembers training year, the crewmember will not have task and iteration requirements unless specified by the commander. |
|
Definition
6
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 36, para 2-73 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. During a training deficiency, ATP requirements met while RL2/3 will be applied to RL 1 requirements. |
|
Definition
| TRUE Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 32, para 2-51 |
|
|
Term
| Is simulator use authorized to conduct a Post Accident Flight Evaluation? |
|
Definition
Yes
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 3 (Evaluations & Tests) pdf 48, para 3-11) |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A UAC must complete a local area orientation before progressing to RL 2? |
|
Definition
FALSE (RL 1)
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 30, para 2-47 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Simulator requirements for a FAC 3 UAC canbe waived. |
|
Definition
FALSE. Should not be waived.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 25, para 2-18 |
|
|
Term
| What must a UAC do once his currency has lapsed to reestablish currency? |
|
Definition
Complete a PFE according to the ATM.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; (Appendix A) pdf 133, para A-4 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Unit trainers are not authorized to credit those hours they fly while performing their duties toward their semiannual flying hour minimums. |
|
Definition
FALSE
Ref: TC 3-04.63; (Appendix A) pdf 133, para A-1 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. FAC Levels and RL levels do not apply to UAS ground crewmembers. |
|
Definition
TRUE, FAC only apply to UAS flying positions.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 25, para 2-13 |
|
|
Term
| On the DA Form 7120-1-R, what does the “E” in the task and iteration section indicate? |
|
Definition
Mandatory for Annual Evaluation
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 5 (Individual Aircrew Training Folder) (IATF) pdf 78, para 5-9 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE: FAC 3 personnel do not have currency requirements, and they are not subject to readiness levels. |
|
Definition
TRUE
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 32, para 2-18 |
|
|
Term
| Any aircraft parked outside of C Co hangar must be at what minimum distance from any permanent structure on Libby Army Airfield? |
|
Definition
125 feet.
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 8 Aircraft Separation, pdf 56 |
|
|
Term
| In accordance with C.co SOP, UAS operations will be suspended as soon as possible when thunderstorms and lightning are within what distance? |
|
Definition
25 NM
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 3 (1) pdf 63 |
|
|
Term
The C.Co SOP requires how much separation between aircraft altitude and the floor of R2303C? |
|
Definition
500 feet
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 8 Aircraft Separation (e) pdf 56 |
|
|
Term
| According to the C.Co SOP, what VFR cloud clearance and visibility is required while operating in R-2303ABC airspaces? |
|
Definition
The Cloud Clearance and Visibility requirements for Class E airspace.
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 8 Aircraft Separation (6) pdf 56 |
|
|
Term
| According to the C.Co SOP, for pattern operations with multiple UAS, second and subsequent flights cannot go to “High Power” on C-Band transmitters until the preceding flights have attained what altitude? |
|
Definition
2000 feet AGL
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 8 Aircraft Separation (g) pdf 56 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. According to the C.co SOP, in-flight troubleshooting the Air Vehicle during flight must be done only at pattern altitude or above. |
|
Definition
FALSE. Trouble shooting can only occur once the aircraft is chocked and secure, or above 2000 ft AGL.
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 15 Trouble Shooting (d) |
|
|
Term
| According to the C.co SOP, for operations that will arrive between Sunset and Sunrise, how long must the Ground Observer must be in place prior to that operation? |
|
Definition
30 minutes
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 11 Ground Observers (B) pdf 11 |
|
|
Term
| According to the C.Co SOP, when will IATF entries be made after completion of an event? |
|
Definition
As soon after the event as possible, but not later than the following day.
C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Sec 11 Flight Records (b) IATF: (4) pdf 33 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lines that depict elevations on a map.
Ref: FM 3-25.26; para 10-2) |
|
|
Term
What are three of the five major terrain
features on a map? |
|
Definition
Hill, Saddle, Valley, Ridge, Depression.
Ref: FM 3-25.26; para 10-6 |
|
|
Term
What are two of the three minor terrain
features on a map? |
|
Definition
Draw, Spur, Cliff.
Ref: FM 3-25.26; para 10-6 |
|
|
Term
| What are the two supplementary terrain features? |
|
Definition
Cut, Fill.
Ref: FM 3-25.26; para 10-6 |
|
|
Term
| What are the minimum visibility and cloud clearance for operations within Class D airspace? |
|
Definition
3 statute miles, 1000ft above, 500ft below,
2000ft horizontal. |
|
|
Term
According to 95-23, at takeoff, the aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of-
(fixed wing) |
|
Definition
| VFR (day) - 30 minutes at cruise, VFR (night) or IFR – 45 minutes at cruise. Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 27 para. 5-2b(2)(a,b)) |
|
|
Term
| Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival through ______ after estimated time of arrival. |
|
Definition
1 hour.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 27 para. 5-2 c. |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. VFR flight is authorized in Class A airspace provided there is 5 SM visibility. |
|
Definition
| FALSE Ref: Instructor Guide (24 Jul 15) pg. 34 *VFR Weather Minimums |
|
|
Term
| Class B basic VFR weather minimums? |
|
Definition
| Clear of Clouds and 3 SM visibilty. Ref: Instructor Guide (24 Jul 15) pg. 34 *VFR Weather Minimums |
|
|
Term
| Class C basic VFR weather minimums? |
|
Definition
| 1000’ Above, 500’ Below, 2000’ Horizontal and 3 SM Ref: Instructor Guide (24 Jul 15) pg. 34 *VFR Weather Minimums |
|
|
Term
| Class D basic VFR weather minimums? |
|
Definition
| 1000’ Above, 500’ Below, 2000’ Horizontal and 3 SM Ref: Instructor Guide (24 Jul 15) pg. 34 *VFR Weather Minimums |
|
|
Term
| Class E (below 10,000 MSL) basic VFR weather minimums? |
|
Definition
| 1000’ Above, 500’ Below, 2000’ Horizontal and 3 SM Ref: Instructor Guide (24 Jul 15) pg. 34 *VFR Weather Minimums |
|
|
Term
| Class E (above 10,000 MSL) basic VFR weather minimums? |
|
Definition
| 1000’ Above, 1000’ Below, 1 SM Horizontal and 5 SM Ref: Instructor Guide (24 Jul 15) pg. 34 *VFR Weather Minimums |
|
|
Term
| Name two types of weather forecasts. |
|
Definition
TAF (Terminal Aerodrome forcast)
Ref: AC 00-45F; Chapter 7 (Aviation Weather Services pdf 245, para 7.2
FA (Area Forecast)
Ref" AC 00-45FChapter 7 (Aviation Weather Services pdf 224, para 7.1 |
|
|
Term
| ___________Area - flight prohibited unless authorized by using agency; usually for National Security, can be for other reasons. |
|
Definition
| Prohibited Area Ref: AR 95-2; Chapter 4 (Special Use Airspace) pdf 24, para 4-22 |
|
|
Term
| __________Area - may contain unseen hazards to flight and is designated by vertical, lateral, and time restrictions. Must obtain permission to enter when VFR Joint use or Sole use; joint use ATC clears for you, sole use you must get clearance. |
|
Definition
| Restricted Area Ref: AR 95-2; Chapter 4 (Special Use Airspace) pdf 22, para 4-11 |
|
|
Term
| ___________Area - hazards to non-participating aircraft same as restricted area, but extends out from the coast 3-12 nautical miles. |
|
Definition
| Warning Area Ref: AR 95-2; Chapter 4 (Special Use Airspace) pdf 24, para 4-23 |
|
|
Term
| ___________Area - contains high volume of pilot training, flight is not restricted but caution is advised. |
|
Definition
| Alert Area Ref: AR 95-2; Chapter 4 (Special Use Airspace) pdf 24, para 4-25 |
|
|
Term
| ___________Area - used to separate/segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic. |
|
Definition
| Military Operations Area (MOA) Ref: AR 95-2; Chapter 4 (Special Use Airspace) pdf 24, para 4-22 |
|
|
Term
| What weight and balance classification is Gray Eagle? |
|
Definition
| Class 2 Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 7 (Weight & Balance) pdg 30, para 7-2 |
|
|
Term
| For Weight and Balance purposes, the MQ-1C is classified as a Class 2 aircraft. There are 5 events that would require a class 2 aircraft to be re-weighed, name two of the five reasons. |
|
Definition
*Overhauls or major airframe repairs have been accomplished. *Modifications of 1 percent or greater of the UAs basic weight have been applied. *Any modifications or component replacements (including painting) have been made for which the weight and center of gravity cannot be accurately computed. *Weight and center of gravity data records are suspected to be in error. *The period since the previous weighing exceeds 24 months for a class 2 UA.
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 7 (Weight & Balance) pdg 32, para 7-7 |
|
|
Term
| Each unmanned aircraft will be weighed when the period since the previous weighing reaches ____ months for a Class 2 unmanned aircraft |
|
Definition
24
Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 7 ( ) pdf , Para 7-7) |
|
|
Term
| On what form would an individual find out when the next scheduled maintenance is due on the aircraft? |
|
Definition
| 2408-18 Ref: DA Pam 738-751; Chapter 2 (Aircraft Logbook Forms & Records) pdf 80, para 2-14 |
|
|
Term
| The Army Aviator’s Flight Records form is also known as a DA form? |
|
Definition
| 2408-12 Ref: DA Pam 738-751; Chapter 2 (Aircraft Logbook Forms & Records) pdf 62, para 2-8 |
|
|
Term
| The __________is responsible for accurately completing the DA Form 2408-12 |
|
Definition
| UAC Ref: DA Pam 738-751; Chapter 2 (Aircraft Logbook Forms & Records) pdf 62, para 2-8 c. (1) a. |
|
|
Term
| What form is used to permanently record all individual crewmember evaluations, summaries of DA Form 4507-R and any other change in crewmember status or other significant events? |
|
Definition
| DA form 7122 Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 5 (Individual Aircrew Training Folder) pdf 81, para 5-12 |
|
|
Term
| According to the FM 3-04.300, what DA form series is used to maintain flight records and provide the unit commander a means to track total hours while monitoring compliance with aircrew training programs (ATPs)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Crewmember flight records folder. Ref: AR 95-23; Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 12, para 2-7 |
|
|
Term
| When must a crewmember certify/sign the DA Form 7120-3-R? |
|
Definition
No later than the last day of a crewmember's birth month to certify that the CM has or has not completed ATP requirements.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 5 (Individual Aircrew Training Folder) pdf 80, para 5-11 e. |
|
|
Term
| When must a crewmember certify/sign the DA Form 7120-R? |
|
Definition
before the crewmembers first flight at the beginning of the training year, after the commander.
Ref: TC 3-04.63; Chapter 5 (Individual Aircrew Training Folder) pdf 77, para 5-8) |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DCMA) form 644? |
|
Definition
| Request for Contractor Flight Approval. |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DD) form 2627? |
|
Definition
| Request for Government Approval for
Aircrew Qualification and training. |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1, what is (DD) form 2628? |
|
Definition
| Request for Approval of Contractor Crewmember. |
|
|
Term
IAW AR95-20/DCMA 8210.1,
what is the (DD) 1821 form (s)? |
|
Definition
Contractor Crewmember Record
(DCMA 8210.1 para 4.2.3) |
|
|
Term
| When making turns of greater than 3 degrees, taxi speeds and turn rates should be limited to what? |
|
Definition
| 5 knots ground speed, 20 degrees per second. Ref: DTM -10; Chapter 5, Section V (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1099, para 5-15 |
|
|
Term
| What is the MQ-1C (2.0) maximum ramp weight? |
|
Definition
| 3600 lbs. Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 5, Section IV (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1098, para 5-11 |
|
|
Term
| At what point should the AO declare a fuel emergency? |
|
Definition
| If it becomes apparent that the aircraft will land with less than 30 lbs. Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 5, Section I (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1092, para 5-9 |
|
|
Term
| What is the MQ-1C landing gear operating speed (VLO)? |
|
Definition
| 105 KIAS Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 5, Section V (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1099, para 5-15 |
|
|
Term
| What is the Maneuvering Speed ( Va) for the MQ-1C? |
|
Definition
| 130 KIAS or 180 KTAS whichever is lower. Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 5, Section V (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1099, para 5-15 |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum tailwind allowed for ATLS landings, IAW AWR and TM-10? |
|
Definition
| 8 kts, 6 kts gust spread Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 5, Section VII (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1103, para 5-27 |
|
|
Term
| What is the Never exceed speed (Vne) for the MQ-1C? |
|
Definition
| 130 KIAS or 180 KTAS whichever is lower. Ref: DTM -10; Chapter 5, Section V (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1099, para 5-15 |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum runway length required at or below 9000 ft DA? |
|
Definition
| 4500 ft. Ref: DTM -10; Chapter 5, Section VII (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1103, para 5-28 |
|
|
Term
| Aircraft will not be intentionally flown into known or forecast ___________turbulence or into known ___________ turbulence. |
|
Definition
| extreme / severe Ref: DTM -10; Chapter 5, Section IV (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1098, para 5-13 |
|
|
Term
| Aircraft will not be flown into ________ or _________ severe icing conditions. |
|
Definition
| known or forcast Ref: DTM -10; Chapter 5, Section VII (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1102, para 5-26 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Wind Shear, Overcast, Skies Clear, Mist |
|
|
Term
| Explain this weather report: “08020G38KT” |
|
Definition
Winds are from 080 degrees (mag) at 20 kts
gusting to 38 knots. |
|
|
Term
| Anytime an operational limit is exceeded, what must crewmembers do at the end of the flight? |
|
Definition
| Appropriate entry shall be made on
DA Form 2808-13-1. Ref: DTM -10; Chapter 5, Section I (Operating Limits & Restrictions) pdf 1091, para 5-3 |
|
|
Term
In the MQ-1C TM, Warnings, Cautions and Notes emphasize important and critical instructions.
What is the definition for a “Warning”? |
|
Definition
| Identifies a procedure, practice, condition, statement, etc. which if not strictly observed, could result in injury to, or death of, personnel or long term health hazards to the person performing that procedure. Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 2, Section VII (UAS Description & Operation) pdf 584, para 2-73 b. (1) a. |
|
|
Term
In the MQ-1C TM, Warnings, Cautions and Notes emphasize important and critical instructions.
What is the definition for a “Caution”? |
|
Definition
| Identifies an essential operating or maintenance procedure, practice, condition, statement, etc., which – if not strictly observed – could result in damage or destruction of equipment, or loss of mission effectiveness. Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 2, Section VII (UAS Description & Operation) pdf 584, para 2-73 b. (1) b. |
|
|
Term
| What is the Immediate Action procedure
for Engine Out? |
|
Definition
Knobs Mode - select (AO) Altitude - As Requried (AO)
Altitude - As Requried (AO)
Ref: DTM-CL (Checklist EP) pdf 135, E1 Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 9, Section I (Emergency Procedures) pdf 1447, para 9-4 |
|
|
Term
| When the aircraft is in the Automatic Take-off and Landing System (ATLS) and 'Engine Out' occurs at a range less than __________ or within _________ from touchdown point, the operator should continue the landing approach. |
|
Definition
| 300ft AGL or within 1800ft Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 9, Section I (Emergency Procedures) pdf 1447, para 9-4 (NOTE) |
|
|
Term
| What is the Immediate Action for Oil Temperature Low? |
|
Definition
Knobs Mode - Select (AO)
Altitude - As Required (AO)
Airspeed - As Required (AO)
Ref: DTM-CL (Checklist EP) pdf 138, E4
Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 9, Section I (Emergency Procedures) pdf 1451, para 9-10 |
|
|
Term
| During the extended emergency checklist procedure for 'Dual Alternator Failure', step 7 directs you to monitor battery voltage. Where can you monitor the battery voltage? |
|
Definition
SSCD, Electrical System Status Ref: DTM-CL (Checklist EP) pdf 142, E8
Ref: DTM -10, Chapter 9, Section I (Emergency Procedures) pdf 1455, para 9-23 |
|
|
Term
| What AR covers flight restrictions
due to exogenous factors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define the medical term “exogenous”. |
|
Definition
| Caused by factors or an agent outside the
organism or system. |
|
|
Term
| How long will you be restricted from flying duties after an immunization shot? |
|
Definition
| 12 hours Ref: 40-8, pdf 6, para 6, (2) d. |
|
|
Term
| There are four classes of a Flight Duty Medical Exam (FDME). Which class is required for military UAS personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for ____ hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia and for a minimum of ____ hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental. |
|
Definition
| 48, 12 Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 6, (2) b. |
|
|
Term
| If you have a reaction to that any immunization shot, how long will you be restricted from flying duties? |
|
Definition
| Until cleared by the flight surgeon or APA. Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 6, a. (1) |
|
|
Term
| Following blood donation (200 cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours. |
|
Definition
| 72 Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 6, (2) f. |
|
|
Term
| Following plasma donation, aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of ____ hours. |
|
Definition
| 24 Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 6, (2) f. |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors. |
|
Definition
| TRUE Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 6, (2) f. |
|
|
Term
| Aircrew members requiring corrective lenses in order to achieve 20/20 vision will be restricted from flying duties unless they are wearing either _________ or _________ which provide 20/20, or better, near and far vision bilaterally. |
|
Definition
| SPECTICLES OR CONTACT LENSES Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 7 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of vision? |
|
Definition
| Mesopic, Photopic, Scotopic Ref: TC 3-04.93; Chapter 8 (Vision) Section II, pdf 101, para 8-12 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A crewmember can wear contact lenses during flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mission Brief is at 0500 for a 0700 takeoff, what time do you have to stop drinking alcoholic beverages the night prior? |
|
Definition
| (1700) Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of 12 hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain. Ref: 40-8; pdf 6, para 6 (2) c. |
|
|
Term
| The non-specific response of the body to any demand placed upon it is known as________. |
|
Definition
STRESS
Ref: TC 3-04.93; Aeromedical, Chapter 3, pdf 47, para 3-1 |
|
|
Term
| Any stimulus or event that requires an individual to adjust or adapt in some way emotionally, physiologically, or behaviorally is known as a ________. |
|
Definition
| STRESSOR Ref: TC 3-04.93; Aeromedical, Chapter 3, pdf 47, para 3-3 |
|
|
Term
| What type of stressor would life events be? |
|
Definition
Psychosocial
Ref: TC 3-04.93; Aeromedical, Chapter 3, pdf 47, para3-4) |
|
|
Term
| What type of stressor can be remembered by using the acronym DEATH which stands for drugs, exhaustion, alcohol, tobacco, and hypoglycemia? |
|
Definition
Physiological
Ref: TC 3-04.93; Aeromedical, Chapter 3, pdf 49, para 3-17) |
|
|
Term
| What type of stressor is described by how one perceives a given situation or problem? |
|
Definition
Cognitive
Ref: TC 3-04.93; Aeromedical, Chapter 3, pdf 53, para 3-39) |
|
|
Term
| What type of stressor consists of stress caused by altitude, airspeed, hot or cold environments, aircraft design, airframe characteristics, and instrument flight conditions? |
|
Definition
Environmental
Ref: TC 3-04.93; Aeromedical, Chapter 3, pdf 48, para 3-16) |
|
|
Term
| There are four types of response to stress
IAW TC 3-04.93 name them. |
|
Definition
| Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive, Physical. Ref: TC 3-04.93; Chapter 3 (Strees & Fatigue in Flying Ops) pdf 47, para 3-3 |
|
|
Term
Stress-coping mechanisms are psychological and behavioral strategies for managing the external and internal demands imposed by stressors.
What are the 4 coping mechanisms/strategies? |
|
Definition
Avoiding Stressors
Changing Thinking
Learning to Relax
Ventilating Stress Ref: TC 3-04.93; Chapter 3 (Strees & Fatigue in Flying Ops) pdf 56, para 3-60 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 “self-imposed stressors”? |
|
Definition
Drugs, Exhaustion, Alcohol, Tobacco, Hypoglycemia
(DEATH) Ref: TC 3-04.93; Chapter 8 (Strees & Fatigue in Flying Ops) pdf 117, para 8-77 |
|
|
Term
| What is indicative of a normal reaction to stress? |
|
Definition
| Rapid and exact response the limits of the students experience and training. (2008 IPH 1-9) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of Fatigue? |
|
Definition
Acute, Chronic, Motivational exhaustion (burnout)
Ref: TC 3-04.93; Chapter 3 (Strees & Fatigue in Flying Ops) pdf 57, para 3-65 |
|
|
Term
| _________ is the state of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from prolonged mental or physical work, extended periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environments, or loss of sleep. |
|
Definition
| FATIGUE Ref: TC 3-04.93; Chapter 3 (Strees & Fatigue in Flying Ops) pdf 57, para 3-65 |
|
|
Term
| What is the NOHD for the LASER Designator with unaided vision? |
|
Definition
| 39 km Ref: DTM-10; Chapter 4 (Common Sensor Payload) pdf 836, para 4-6 |
|
|
Term
| What is the NOHD for the LASER designator when using magnifying optics? |
|
Definition
| 82 km Ref: DTM-10; Chapter 4 (Common Sensor Payload) pdf 836, para 4-6 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four fundamental forces acting on an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Lift, Weight, Thrust, Drag Ref: FM 3-04.203; Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 298, para 7-121 |
|
|
Term
| Newton’s law of ___________________ states the force required to produce a change in motion of a body is directly proportional to its mass and rate of change in its velocity. This means motion is started, stopped, or changed when forces acting on the body become unbalanced. |
|
Definition
Acceleration
Ref: FM 3-04.203; Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 49, para 1-83 |
|
|
Term
| A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an external force is the definition of which of Newtons laws? |
|
Definition
| Inertia Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 17, para 1-1 |
|
|
Term
| "For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" is the definition of which of Newtons laws? |
|
Definition
| Action / Reaction Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 17, para 1-4 |
|
|
Term
| Ailerons on a conventional aircraft operate in opposite directions. To bank an aircraft to the right, the left aileron is ______________________ while the right aileron is ____________________________. |
|
Definition
Lowered / Raised
Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 316, para 7-221 |
|
|
Term
| Bernoulli’s principle says as velocity of airflow increases, static pressure _________. |
|
Definition
| Decreases. Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 18, para 1-5 |
|
|
Term
| Air in motion equal to and opposite the flight-path velocity of the airfoil is the definition of__________. |
|
Definition
Relative Wind.
Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 23, table 1-1 (Airfoil Terminolgy) |
|
|
Term
| For a fixed wing aircraft, the angle between the airfoil chord line and longitudinal axis or other selected reference plane of the airplane is the definition of _________________. |
|
Definition
Incidence Angle.
Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 23, table 1-1 (Airfoil Terminolgy) |
|
|
Term
| A ______ is a basic maneuver in which the aircraft loses altitude in a controlled descent with little or no engine power; forward motion is maintained by gravity pulling the aircraft along an inclined path, and the descent rate is controlled by the aviator balancing the forces of gravity and lift. |
|
Definition
| Glide Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 309, para 7-176 |
|
|
Term
| With a _______, the aircraft glides farther because of the higher groundspeed; with a ______, the aircraft does not glide as far because of the slower groundspeed. |
|
Definition
| tailwind, headwind Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 309, para 7-180 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Variations in weight do not affect the glide angle provided the aviator uses the correct airspeed. |
|
Definition
| TRUE. Since it is the lift over drag (L/D) ratio that determines the distance the aircraft can glide, weight does not affect the distance. Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 309, para 7-180 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. The glide ratio is based only on the relationship of the aerodynamic forces acting on the aircraft. The only effect weight has is to vary the time the aircraft glides. The heavier the aircraft the higher the airspeed must be to obtain the same glide ratio. |
|
Definition
| TRUE Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 309, para 7-181 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. If two aircraft having the same L/D ratio, but different weights, start a glide from the same altitude, the heavier aircraft gliding at a higher airspeed arrives at the same touchdown point in a shorter time. Both aircraft cover the same distance, but the lighter aircraft takes a longer time. |
|
Definition
| TRUE Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 309, para 7-181 |
|
|
Term
| The ___________ corresponds to an attack angle resulting in the least drag on the aircraft and giving the best lift-to-drag ratio (L/Dmax). |
|
Definition
| Best Glide Speed Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 7, (Fixed-Wing Aerodynamics and Performance) pdg 309, para 7-184 |
|
|
Term
| IAW FM 3-04.203 Fundamentals of Flight, there are 2 types of pressure associated with fluid/air flow. What are the 2 types of pressure? |
|
Definition
| Static and Dynamic. Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 19, para 1-6 |
|
|
Term
| As velocity of the airflow increases, does static pressure above and below the airfoil increase or decrease? |
|
Definition
| Decrease. Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 19, para 1-7 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Relative Wind is the airflow relative to an airfoil. Movement of an airfoil through the air creates relative wind. Relative winds moves in a parallel but opposite direction to movement of the airfoil. Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 24, para 1-21 |
|
|
Term
| _________is the angle between the airfoil chord line and resultant relative wind. |
|
Definition
| Angle of Attack Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 27, para 1-27 |
|
|
Term
| The _____________ pressure differential on the upper and lower surfaces produces about 75% of the aerodynamic force, called lift. |
|
Definition
| Static Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 19, para 1-7 |
|
|
Term
| 25% of lift is produced as a result of ________/_________ from the downward deflection of air as it leaves the trailing edge of the airfoil and by the downward defection of air impacting the exposed lower surface of the airfoil. |
|
Definition
| Action / Reaction Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 19, para 1-7 |
|
|
Term
| _______is the force opposing the motion of an airfoil through the air. |
|
Definition
| Drag Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 45, para 1-65 |
|
|
Term
| Name the three types of Drag. |
|
Definition
| Profile, Induced, Parasite Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 45, para 1-67 |
|
|
Term
| What type of drag is the dominant type at high speeds? |
|
Definition
| Parasite Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 45, para 1-69 |
|
|
Term
| _________drag is incurred from the nonlifting portions of the aircraft. |
|
Definition
| Parasite Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 45, para 1-69 |
|
|
Term
| _________drag is incurred as a result of production of lift. |
|
Definition
| Induced Ref: FM 3-04.203, Chapter 1 (Theory of Flight) pdf 45, para 1-71 |
|
|
Term
| There are seven colors used on a military map.
Name them. |
|
Definition
Black
Red-Brown
Blue
Green
Brown
Red
Other Ref: FM 25-26 Chapter 3 (Marginal Info & Symbols) pdf 26, para 3-5 |
|
|
Term
| There are three types of north used on maps.
What are they? |
|
Definition
True North
Magnetic North
Grid North Ref: FM 25-26 Chapter 6 (Direction) pdf 67, para 6-2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A back-azimuth is the opposite direction of an azimuth. Ref: FM 25-26 Chapter 6 (Direction) pdf 67, para 6-3 |
|
|
Term
| What does the acronym HIRTA stand for? |
|
Definition
| High Intensity Radio Transmission Area. Ref: TC 3-04.93 ATM, Chapter 2, pdf 31, para 2-49 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| "Fratricide is the employment of friendly weapons and munitions with the intent to kill the enemy or destroy his equipment or facilities, which results in unforeseen and unintentional death or injury to friendly personnel." Ref: Call Handbook No 92-4 Chapter 1 (Introduction) pdf 6 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 primary causes of fratricide? |
|
Definition
| Lack of positive ID, Lack of situational awareness and other. Ref: Call Handbook No 92-4 Chapter 2 (Cause & Effect) pdf 12 |
|
|
Term
| What does the acronym SALUTE stand for when reporting on targets? |
|
Definition
| Size, Activity, Location, Unit/uniform, Time, Equipment Ref: FM 3-04.126 Appendix D (Briefing, Reports & Formats) D8, pdf 265 |
|
|
Term
| What does METT-TC stand for? |
|
Definition
| Mission, Enemy, Time, Troops and support, Terrain and weather, Civil Considerations Ref: TC 3-04.63 Chapter 7 (Unit Task Development) pdf 104, para 7-19 |
|
|
Term
| MIJI reports must be reported to higher headquarters as soon as practicable. What does MIJI stand for? |
|
Definition
| Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, and Interference. Ref: FM 3-04.126 Appendix D (Briefing, Reports & Formats) D16, pdf 268 |
|
|
Term
| The 2 methods of tactical airspace control are _______and_______. |
|
Definition
| Positive and Procedural. Ref: FM 3-52 Airspace Control, Chapter 1 (Airspace Control Operational Context) pdf 10, para 1-21 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. SPINS highlights, modifies, or supplements data contained in the ATO. |
|
Definition
| TRUE Ref: FM 3-52 Airspace Control, Chapter 3 (Airspace Control - Planning & Preparation) pdf 27, para 3-10 |
|
|
Term
| ___________ altitude or __________ levels are used principally to separate fixed and rotary winged aircraft. |
|
Definition
| Coordinating or Coordination. Ref: FM 3-52 Airspace Control, Chapter 1 (Airspace Control Operational Context) pdf 10, para 1-21 |
|
|
Term
| How many keypads are in a killbox? |
|
Definition
| Nine. Ref: FM 3-52 Airspace Control, Appendix B pdf 71, para B-12 |
|
|
Term
| When dealing with tactical airspace, what are SPINS? |
|
Definition
| Special INStructions Ref: FM 3-52 Airspace Control, Chapter 3 (Airspace Control - Planning & Preparation) pdf 27, para 3-10 |
|
|
Term
| The 3 types of airspace separation
in Tactical Airspace are? |
|
Definition
| Vertical, Lateral and Time. |
|
|
Term
| What does the acronym LASER stand for? |
|
Definition
| Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation |
|
|
Term
| What are the four things that affect the amount of IR energy an object will radiate? |
|
Definition
| Reflectance, Absorbtance, Transmittance, Emissivity Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 189, para 4-65 |
|
|
Term
| Which characteristic does the following statement describe? The ratio of radiant energy that, having entered a body, reaches its farther boundary. |
|
Definition
| Transmittance Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 189, para 4-65 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infrared Radiation Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 188, para 4-64 |
|
|
Term
| Thermal Imaging Systems (TISs)/Forward Looking Infrared (FLIR) operations depend on the ability of the system to detect temperature difference. What is the lowest thermal difference that can be resolved called? |
|
Definition
| Minimum Resolvable Temperature (MRT) Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 196, para 4-94 |
|
|
Term
| _______is a natural phenomenon that occurs twice a day. In the morning and evening, targets without internal heating come to a relative equal temperature with the surrounding background environment. |
|
Definition
| IR Crossover Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 198, para 4-104 |
|
|
Term
| The electromagnetic energy spectrum includes the range of wavelengths, such as gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, IR, microwaves, and radio waves or frequencies of electromagnetic radiation. Where does infrared begin in the electromagnetic spectrum? |
|
Definition
Begins right after (below) the visible light color red.
Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 188 para 4-61 |
|
|
Term
| Does the Sun emit energy across the entire electromagnetic spectrum or just the visible light spectrum? |
|
Definition
YES. Entire electromagnetic spectrum.
Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 188, para 4-64 |
|
|
Term
| The strobe lights are required to be on... |
|
Definition
when UAS engines are operating,except when there may be other hazards to safety.
Ref: AR 95-23 UAS Flight Regulations; Chapter 2 (Unmanned Aircraft System Management) pdf 13, para 2-10 b. |
|
|
Term
| IAW AR 95-23, when do aircraft position
lights need to be on? |
|
Definition
| Between official sunset and sunrise. Ref: AR 95-23 UAS Flight Regulations; Chapter 2 (Unmanned Aircraft System Management) pdf 13, para 2-10 c. |
|
|
Term
| IAW FM 3-04.203, which of the following is NOT a variable affecting the ability to see with thermal imaging systems? a) FLIR sensor optimization b) Aviator’s proficiency and capabilities c) Humidity d) Visible light |
|
Definition
| d) Visible light Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 4 (Rotory / Winged Night Flight ) pdf 195, para 4-93 |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of Icing? |
|
Definition
| Clear, Rime, Mixed. Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 8 (Fixed-Wing Enviormental Flight ) pdf 339, para 8-4 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 levels of intensity for Icing? |
|
Definition
| Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe. Ref: FM 3.04-203 Chapter 8 (Fixed-Wing Enviormental Flight ) pdf 340, para 8-7 |
|
|
Term
| If a flight is to be made into known or forecast moderate icing conditions, the aircraft must be equipped with ___________ or ___________. |
|
Definition
| Adequate operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment. Ref: AR 95-23 UAS Flight Regulations. Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules ) pdf 27, para 5-2 c. (1) |
|
|
Term
| When there are intermittent (destination) weather conditions, ________ weather will apply. |
|
Definition
Predominant
Ref: AR 95-23 UAS Flight Regulations. Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules ) pdf 27, para 5-2 c. (4) |
|
|
Term
| Factors affecting Perception |
|
Definition
| Goals and values, Self concept, Physical organism, Opportunity and time, element of Threat. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 2 (The Learning Process) pdf 2-6 |
|
|
Term
| The Basic elements of communication are composed of three elements, what are they? |
|
Definition
| Source, Symbol, and Receiver. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 3 (Effective Communication) pdf 3-2 , (IPH 2008 3-2) |
|
|
Term
| Barriers to effective communication? |
|
Definition
| Lack of common experience, interference, confusion between symbol an symbolized object, overuse of abstractions. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 3 (Effective Communication) pdf 3-4 |
|
|
Term
| Interference is composed of 3 factors. Hearing loss would be an example of which factor. |
|
Definition
| Physiological
. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 3 (Effective Communication) pdf 3-6, (2008 IPH 3-6) |
|
|
Term
| According to the Aviation Instructor’s Handbook (2008) what barrier to effective communication is considered probably the greatest single barrier to effective communication? |
|
Definition
| Lack of Common Experience
. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 3 (Effective Communication) pdf 3-4, (2008 IPH 3-4) |
|
|
Term
| Which defense mechanism is it when a person places uncomfortable thoughts into inaccessible areas of the unconscious mind? |
|
Definition
| Repression. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 1 (Human Behavior) pdf 1-6 |
|
|
Term
| According to the Aviation Instructor’s Handbook (2008), ___________________ is probably the most significant psychological factor affecting flight instruction. |
|
Definition
| Anxiety. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 1 (Human Behavior) pdf 1-8 |
|
|
Term
| Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs |
|
Definition
Self-Actualization, Cognitive and Aesthetic, Self Esteem Love & Belongingness, Safety and Security,
Physiological needs. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 1 (Human Behavior) pdf 1-4 |
|
|
Term
| 8 common defense mechanisms? |
|
Definition
| Repression, Denial, Compensation, Rationalization, Reaction Formation, Fantasy, Displacement, Projection. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 1 (Human Behavior) pdf 1-6, fig 1-4 |
|
|
Term
| IAW with the IPH there are 4 steps in the teaching process. The first step is preparation. What are the following three steps? |
|
Definition
| Presentation, Application, Review and Evaluation/Assessment. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 4 (The Teaching Process) pdf 4-4 |
|
|
Term
| List the 4 essential teaching skills. |
|
Definition
People Skills, Subject Matter Expertise,
Management Skills, Assessment Skills. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 4 (The Teaching Process) pdf 4-4 |
|
|
Term
| Which obstacle to learning during flight instruction does the following statement describe? Students can become uninterested when they recognize that the instructor has not prepared for the instruction being given, or when the instruction appears to be deficient, contradictory, or insincere. |
|
Definition
| Apathy. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 8 (Techniques of Flight Instruction) pdf 8-5 |
|
|
Term
| Charactoristics of an effective assessment? |
|
Definition
| Flexibility, acceptable, specific, thoughtful, comprehensive, objective, constructive, organized. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 5 (Assessment) pdf 5-3 |
|
|
Term
| Learning can be defined in many ways, one of the ways defined in the IP handbook is: A change in the __________ of the learner as a result of _______________. |
|
Definition
| behavior, experience. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 2 (The Learning Process) pdf 2-2 |
|
|
Term
| What are the four basic levels of learning? |
|
Definition
| Rote (G6) , Understanding (G8), Application (G1), Correlation (G2). Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Glossary |
|
|
Term
| Which level of learning is that level at which the student becomes able to associate an element which has been learned with other segments or blocks of learning? |
|
Definition
| Correlation. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Glossary pdf G-2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cognitive, Affective, Psychomotor. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 2 (The Learning Process) pdf 2-12 |
|
|
Term
| ___________ is probably the most dominant force that affects a student's progress and ability to learn. |
|
Definition
| Motivation. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 2 (The Learning Process) pdf 2-30 |
|
|
Term
| Name the 4 principles of crew coordination.
(CSEP) |
|
Definition
Communicate timely and effectively.
Sustain a climate of ready and prompt assistance.
Effectively manage, coordinate, and prioritize planned actions, unexpected events, and workload distribution.
Provide situational aircraft control, obsticle avoidance, and mission advisories. Ref: TC 3-04.63 Aircrew Training Manual: Chapter 4 (Aircrew Coordination) pdf 60, para 4-5 |
|
|
Term
| Name the 4 objectives of Crew Coordination.
(EEEC) |
|
Definition
Establish and maintain team relationships.
Establish and maintain efficient workloads.
Exhange mission information.
Cross-monitor performance. Ref: TC 3-04.63 Aircrew Training Manual: Chapter 4 (Aircrew Coordination) pdf 65, para 4-26 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. It is mandatory that Aircrew coordination will be evaluated during APART. Ref: TC 3-04.63 Aircrew Training Manual: Chapter 1 (Introduction) pdf 19, para 1-50 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 steps to the Risk Assessment process according to the TC 1-696? |
|
Definition
| Identify Hazards, Assess Hazards, Develop Controls, Implement Controls, Supervise and Evaluate. Ref: TC 3-04.63: Chapter 6 (Risk Management) pdf 95, para 6-16 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 hazardous attitudes? |
|
Definition
Anti-authority, Impulsivity, Invulnerability,
Macho, Resignation. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 8 (Techniques of Flight Instruction) pdf 8-17 |
|
|
Term
| Fuel requirements: At takeoff, a fixed wing aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of— |
|
Definition
| VFR: 30 minutes at cruise, Night: 45 minutes at cruise, IFR: 45 minutes at cruise. Ref: AR 95-23 UAS Flight Regulations: Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 27, para 5-2 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. IFF Mode C is required for VFR
operations in Class D airspace. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander will complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of the failure. After investigating, the UAS unit commander may authorize up to one 30–day extension. This may be granted by__________________. |
|
Definition
Commanders 0–5 and above.
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 20, para 4-10 (1) (a). |
|
|
Term
| A new crew member signs in to your unit reports for duty, to your unit- 2/13th Avn. Reg. on 30 Sep 2013. This is the same date of his flying status orders. By what date does he have to turn in his records? |
|
Definition
| 14 Oct 2013 (14 calendar days) Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 2 (Training) pdf 12, para 2-7 a. |
|
|
Term
| What record(s) does the newly reporting crew member have to turn in? |
|
Definition
IFRF / IATF
Ref: AR 95-23: Chapter 2 (Training) pdf 12 para 2-7 |
|
|
Term
| A new crew member signs in on 30 Sep 2013, and then turns in his records on 05 October 2013. By what date does the commander have to complete the process of evaluating the new crewmember? |
|
Definition
(14 Nov 2013):
The records review and any required PFE must be completed within 45 calendar days from sign in. Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM: Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 26, 2-23 para |
|
|
Term
| A new crew member is designated RL-1 on 15 Feb 2013. His birth date was 30 Sep 1996. He is a FAC 2. What is his (prorated) simulator flight time requirement for the first semiannual period? |
|
Definition
| .666 hours (1 hour) Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM: Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 26, 2-18 para |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 characteristics of an effective assessment? |
|
Definition
| Flexible, Acceptable, Specific, Thoughtful, Constructive, Objective, Comprehensive, Organized |
|
|
Term
| During the 2012 World Series, a Phillies fan saw that the close play at first base was clearly an “out.” The Tampa Bay fan next to him saw that the base runner was “safe by a mile.” This difference in perceptions may be a result of the two fans having different what? |
|
Definition
| Goals and Values
. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 2 (The Learning Process) pdf 2-7 |
|
|
Term
| A golfer is alone. He is trying to lower his handicap. He takes a bucket of balls, and a five iron. He stands 50 yards from the hole, and one after another, he hits each golf ball towards the same hole in exactly the same way, until the movement becomes automatic. What type of practice is this? |
|
Definition
| Blocked. Ref: FAA-H-8083-9 AHB Chapter 2 (The Learning Process) pdf 2-22 |
|
|
Term
| In the middle of the darkest night of the year, Fred walks from Hangar 5 to the shelter without using a flashlight. There is no moon, and no ambient light. What type of vision allows him to do this? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Following local anesthesia, for how long
is a crew member grounded? |
|
Definition
| 12 Hours Ref: 40-8, pdf 6, para 6, (2) d. |
|
|
Term
| Following a blood donation of 207 cc, for how long is a crew member grounded? |
|
Definition
| 72 hours (200 cc or more) Ref: 40-8, pdf 6, para 6, (2) f. |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. An army crew member who gets treatment from a chiropractor is required to report this immediately to their flight surgeon or APA. |
|
Definition
TRUE
Ref: AR 40-8 para 4b(4). |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Army Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of 12 hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Aircrew members requiring corrective lenses in order to achieve 20/20 vision will be restricted from flying duties unless they have in their possession either spectacle or contact lenses which provide 20/20, or better, near and far vision bilaterally. The crewmember may or may not use the spectacle or contact lenses at his/her discretion. |
|
Definition
FALSE
Ref: AR 40-8 para 7. |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Army Aircrew use of herbal dietary aids is prohibited unless cleared by the flight surgeon or APA. |
|
Definition
TRUE
Ref: AR 40-8 para 6c. |
|
|
Term
| Self briefing is not authorized unless approved by the first officer in the grade of _____. |
|
Definition
0-5 or above in the chain of command.
Ref: AR 95-23, UAS Flight Regulations, Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 14, para 2-12 |
|
|
Term
| Procedures for reporting and investigating UAS mishaps are prescribed in ___________. |
|
Definition
DA Pam 385-40
Ref: AR 95-23, UAS Flight Regulations, Chapter 3 (Operations & Safety) pdf 16, para 3-6a) |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. For UAC’s who fail to meet ATP requirements: the commander (O-3) will investigate, and complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of the failure. After investigating, the commander may grant a waiver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. During the mission approval process, Briefing Officers may only brief missions having a level of mitigated risk that is “moderate” or “low”, without special authorization from the commander. |
|
Definition
FALSE
Ref: AR 95-23, UAS Flight Regulations, Chapter 2 (UAS Management) pdf 14, para 2-12(5)b(2) |
|
|
Term
| Army UAS Operators shall avoid overflying sensitive areas and wildlife conservation areas below _________. |
|
Definition
2000 ft AGL
Ref: AR 95-23, UAS Flight Regulations, Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 28, para 5-4 d. |
|
|
Term
| During RL progression if the exclusion period exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen when an operator has not RL progressed within the required period? |
|
Definition
| UAC must re-start their current RL progression. |
|
|
Term
| In accordance with the Flight and Ground Operations SOP, UAS operations will be suspended as soon as possible when thunderstorms and lightning are within what distance? |
|
Definition
25 NM
Ref: C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Annex C, para. D. General: 3) Lighting/Thunderstorms pdf 63, pg. 62 |
|
|
Term
| According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will annual IFRF closeouts occur? |
|
Definition
No later than 10 days after the birth month period.
Ref: C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Section 11. Flight Records, D. General: (a) IFRF: pdf 33, para a. (5) |
|
|
Term
| According to the Charlie Company Flight and Ground Operations SOP, when will IATF entries be made? |
|
Definition
As soon after the event as possible,
but not later than the following day.
Ref: C Co SOP (1 Aug 15) Section 11. Flight Records, D. General: (b) IATF: pdf 33, para (4) |
|
|
Term
| What category of Terrain Feature is a Draw? |
|
Definition
Minor
Ref: FM 3-25.26, page 10-13 |
|
|
Term
TRUE or FALSE. According to AR 95-23, destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated
time of arrival plus or minus 1 hour. |
|
Definition
FALSE
- ETA plus one hour.
Ref: AR 95-23, UAS Flight Regulations, Chapter 5 (Flight Procedures & Rules) pdf 28, para 5-2 c. (5). |
|
|
Term
| __________________________ occurs when a portion of the LASER beam energy is scattered by obscurants along the laser to target LOS and the missile to target LOS, resulting in reduced LASER energy to the seeker. |
|
Definition
| Attenuation Ref: FM 3-04.155, UAS Operations: Chapter 2 (Employment) pdf 63, para 3-54 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 5 steps to the Risk Assessment
process according to the TC 3-04.63? |
|
Definition
| Identify Hazards, Assess Hazards, Develop Controls, Implement Controls, Supervise and Evaluate. Ref: Chapter 6 (Risk Management) pdf 91, para 6-3 |
|
|
Term
| According to the 2008 IPH (Para. 8-17) there are 5 hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot’s ability to make sound decisions and exercise authority properly. |
|
Definition
Anti-authority, Impulsivity ,
Invulnerability, Macho, Resignation
(Ref: 2008 IPH 8-17) |
|
|
Term
| Which obstacle to learning during flight instruction does the following statement describe? “Students can become uninterested when they recognize that the instructor has not prepared for the instruction being given, or when the instruction appears to be deficient, contradictory, or insincere”. |
|
Definition
Apathy
(Ref: 2008 IPH 8-5) |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. IAW TC 1-696, a Local Area Orientation may be conducted in a simulator. |
|
Definition
FALSE
(IAW TC 1-696 para 2-30) |
|
|
Term
| In the remarks section of a METAR what does the abbreviation TSNO mean? |
|
Definition
| ThunderStorm information NOt available |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. SPINS highlights, modifies or supplements data contained the the ACO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to TC-1-696, certain events on the DA Form 7122-R require the commander's approval and signature. What are these events? |
|
Definition
Nonmedical suspensions, Flight (or other proficiency) suspensions, Crew member's return to duty after these two previous events extensions or waivers.
Ref TC 1-696 para. 5-21 |
|
|
Term
| Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first______or above, in the individual's chain of command. |
|
Definition
| O-6 Ref: AR 95-23, Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 18, para 4-2 b. |
|
|
Term
| What must happen when an operator has not progressed within the required time period? |
|
Definition
| Commander will investigate. Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 29, para 2-38 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. While perfoming IO/SO duties evaluating an APART standardization flight, IOs/SOs may credit this event as part of their APART standardization flight evaluation requirements. |
|
Definition
| FALSE Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 3 (Evaluations & Tests) pdf 51, para 3-36 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. IAW AR95-23 the first commander, O-3 or above in the chain of command may, on a case by case basis direct use of a compatible UAS flight simulator if circumstance preclude safe, affordable, or timely evaluation the UAS (except for these EO duties requiring takeoff and landing) performance evaluation.) |
|
Definition
| FALSE Ref: AR 95-23, Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 19, para 4-9 a. (3) |
|
|
Term
| Is mode C transponder required in class D airspace? |
|
Definition
| NO, however it is required at Libby AAF. |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum sky condition that is
considered a ceiling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is NOT part of the ATP? RL progression, APART, Currency requirements,
Tasks and iterations? |
|
Definition
| Currency requirements. Ref: AR 95-23; UAS Flight Regulations, Appendix D. pdf 42, para D-4 (Note) |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. When a crew member is reclassified to RL2 or RL3 because of a flight deficiency, the crewmwmber needs to demonstrate profiency in all base and mission tasks. |
|
Definition
| FALSE Ref: Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 29, para 2-37 |
|
|
Term
| Active army UACs have ______ consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next. |
|
Definition
| 90 Ref: Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 28, para 2-34 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Units deployed for contingency operations, the first O-5 commander may waive launch and recovery requirements for forward site personnel when conducting split base operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which series of tasks must a UAC demonstrate proficiency from RL3 to RL2. |
|
Definition
| Base tasks. (1000 Series) Ref: Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 28, para 2-33 |
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. When ATP requirements are not met the commander will complete the investigation within 45 days of notification of the failure. |
|
Definition
| FALSE Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 29, para 2-38 |
|
|
Term
| When is a post mishap evaluation mandatory before a crew member can continue
performing flight duties IAW 95-23? |
|
Definition
| Any class A or B mishap. Ref: AR 95-23; UAS Flight Regulations, Chapter 4 (Training) pdf 20, para 9-4 c. |
|
|
Term
| UAS operator's manual written examination. This open book exam is prepared at the unit level and consists of _______ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operators manual. |
|
Definition
| 50 Ref: Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 3 (Evaluations & Test) pdf 49, para 3-19 |
|
|
Term
| Briefing Officers/NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of ______ or above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In tactical airspace, a killbox consists of ______ keypads. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A commander can change a UACs FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements. |
|
Definition
| FALSE Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 25, para 2-13 |
|
|
Term
| A UAC progressing from RL2 to RL1 must demonstrate proficiency in what series tasks? |
|
Definition
Mission tasks (2000) and any
Additional tasks (3000) selected by the commander. Ref: Ref: TC 3-04.63 ATM, Chapter 2 (Aircrew Training Program) pdf 28, para 2-33 |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the "Self Destruct" system? |
|
Definition
| It's designed to destroy the aircraft in the event friendly recovery of the aircraft is unlikely. Ref: DTM-10, Chapter 2 (UAS Description & Operation) pdf 431, para 2-38 |
|
|
Term
| At what point during the Self Destruct sequence will the aircraft lose controllabilty and the crypto zeroized? |
|
Definition
| At 3000 Feet AGL Ref: DTM-10, Chapter 2 (UAS Description & Operation) pdf 431, para 2-38 b. |
|
|
Term
| _______Area: Hazards to non-participating aircraft same as restricted, but extends out from the coast 3-12 nautical miles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______Area: Contains high volume of pilot training. Flight is not restricted but caution is advised. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______Area: Contains military training activities and is separated from IFR traffic. No restrictions but caution is advised. |
|
Definition
| Military operations area (MOA) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of airspace separation in tactical airspace? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the parts to an APART. |
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Definition
| 50 question written examination on operators manual; and Standardization Flight Evaluation. |
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Term
| What must occur before Commanders can use FAC 3 operators in combat operations? |
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Definition
| Provide refresher or mission training. |
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. A UAC must complete a local area orientation before pregressing to RL2. |
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Definition
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Term
| What must a UAC do to re-establish currency if his currency has lapsed? |
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Definition
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Unit trainers are authorized to credit those hours they fly while performing their duties toward their semi-annual flying hour requirements? |
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Definition
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. RL progression tasks evaluated in a more demanding mode may be credited toward completion of each task required by the ATM. "N" is considered the most demanding mode, followed by "D" and SM". |
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Definition
FALSE.
The provision pertaining to the more demanding mode of flight does not apply. TC 1-696 2-14, Bullet #4. |
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Term
| How many days does a commander have to complete the commander's evaluation? |
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Definition
| 45 calendar days after the crew member signs in to the unit or after the effective date of the crew member’s flying status orders, whichever occurs last. |
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Term
| What must be turned in by a crew member to the commander or designated represintitive upon signing into the unit? |
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Definition
| individual aircrew training folder (IATF) and individual flight record folder (IFRF), if applicable. |
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Term
| Hidden Valley Ranch Salad Dressing (Hill Valley Ridge Saddle Depression) is an example of what kind of Mnemonic? |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the 5 hazardous attitudes. |
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Definition
| Resignation, Anti-authority, Impulsivity, Invulnerability, Macho |
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Term
| 'A person fakes a belief opposite to the true belief because the true belief causes anxiety' is the definition of what defense mechanism? |
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Definition
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Term
| 'A subconscious technique for justifying actions that otherwise would be unacceptable' is the definition of what defense mechanism? |
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Definition
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Term
| 'Results in an unconcious shift of emotion, affect, or desire from the original object to a more acceptable, less threatening substitute.' is the definition of what defense mechanism? |
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Definition
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Term
| 'Occurs when a student engages in daydreams about how things should be rather than doing anything about how things are.' is the definition of what defense mechanism? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which defense mechanism is it when a person places uncomfortable thoughts into inaccessable areas of the unconcious mind? |
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Definition
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Term
| TRUE or FALSE. Never exceed speed (Vne) for the MQ-1C is 130 KTAS or 180 KIAS whichever is lower. |
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Definition
FALSE.
130 KIAS or 180 KTAS whichever is lower. |
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Term
| For the MQ-1C If a lost link is detected, the flight computer will wait a fixed period of time, before engaging lost link procedures. What is that fixed period of time? |
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Definition
| From 2 to 5 seconds based on datalink type lost. |
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Term
| IAW AR 40-8 is self-medication authorized? |
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Definition
| YES. Self-medication is permitted only in accordance with the over-the-counter medication aeromedical policy letter (APL). |
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Term
| Which of the responses to stress (Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive, Physical) "can adversely effect one's work performance, decrease motivation, and increase the likelihood of conflict insubordination, and violance in the workplace"? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which of the responses to stress (Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive, Physical) is "can significantly effect ones thought process. It can decrease attention and concentration interferes with judgement and problem solving"? |
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Definition
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Term
| _______is "when the seeker is looking for scatter laser energy, it must be able to "see" the reflecting surface. When a laser designates a surface that the seeker can't see, the reflections are blocked or reflected away from the seeker head." |
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Definition
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Term
| ______ is "The result of motion of the designator or the beam developed by the designator around the intended aim point." |
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Definition
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Term
| _______ is "caused by placing the laser spot too high on the target so that beam divergence and jitter cause the spot or a portion of the spot to spill over onto the terrain behind the target." |
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Definition
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Term
| ________ "applies to a portion of the laser beam energy reflected off the atmospheric particles in the laser back toward the designator while the remainder of the laser energy penertates toward the target." |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the 6 elements of a call for fire in the order of which they are transmitted. |
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Definition
Observer ID, Warning Order, Target location, Target description, Method of engagement,
Method of fire and control. |
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Term
| Which of the 4 factors that determine the amount of IR energy does the following statement describe- "The ratio of radiant energy that, having entered a body, reaches its farther boundry"? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 4 kinds of stressors? |
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Definition
| Phisiological, Phycosocial, Environmental, Cognitive. |
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Term
| If AOA is increased beyond a critical angle of attack, flow across the top of the airfoil will be disrupted, boundry layer separation will occur, resulting in what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 4 responses to stress? |
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Definition
| Physical, Emotional, Behavioral, Cognitive. |
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Term
| Maslow's Hierarchy of needs? |
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Definition
(bottom to top)
Physiological, safety and security, Love and belongingness, Self esteem, Cognitive and asthetic, Self actualization. |
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Term
| Out of concrete, soil, water, and vegetation, which items do not crossover with each other? |
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Definition
| Soil and concrete do not cross over with vegetation. |
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Term
| ________the demonstration performance method is divided into 5 phases. Name them. |
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Definition
| Explanation, demonstration, student performance, instructor supervision, evaluation. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
| Readiness, Exercise, Effect, Primacy, Intensity, Recency |
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Term
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Definition
| Disuse, Retrieval failure, Suppression or repression Interference, Fading |
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Term
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Definition
| Deliberate, Random, Blocked |
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Term
| Aeronautical decision making. |
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Definition
| Perceives, Process, Perform |
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Term
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Definition
| Lecture, Discussion, Guided discussion, Problem based, Group learning, Demonstration-performance method, E-learning. |
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Term
| How long does the commander or their designated representitive have to complete the comanders eval after the crewmember signs in to the unit? |
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Definition
45 calender days
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-25) |
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Term
| A minimum of ____ hours (___ in each crew station) must be completed in the flight simulator for FAC 1 and FAC 2 operators. |
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Definition
4 hours 2 in each crew station
(TC 3-04.63 para A-2) |
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Term
| What are the semiannual simulator flying hour requirements for FAC 1? |
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Definition
24 hours, 8 in each crew station
(TC 3-04.63 para A-2) |
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Term
| What are the semiannual simulator flying hour requirements for FAC 2? |
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Definition
12 hours, 4 in each crew station
(TC 3-04.63 para A-2) |
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Term
| What are the semiannual simulator flying hour requirements for FAC 3? |
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Definition
6 hours, 2 in each crew station
(TC 3-04.63 para A-2) |
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Term
| According to AR 95-23 when will a post mishap be administered? |
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Definition
when a crewmember is involved in a Class A or B mishap or Class C at the discretion of the commander.
(AR 95-23 para 4-9) |
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Term
| In areas where extreme environmental conditions may preclude safe operation of UAS for periods exceeding ____ consecutive days, authorization for use of compatible simulators for maintaining AO currency up to ___ days may be granted. |
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Definition
120/180
(AR 95-23 para 4-15) |
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Term
| ATP commanders may impose nonmedical suspensions no longer than ___ days |
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Definition
60 days
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-55) |
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Term
| UAS operators holding an SO/IO qualification MUST become an AC in their primary UA no later than ___ days after they progress to RL 1, after assignment to the unit, or mobilize with UA available, whichever occurs first. |
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Definition
180
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-97) |
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Term
| The 180 day IO/SO AC requirement will exclude days lost to: |
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Definition
-TDY or deployment to a location where the crewmember is unable to fly
-Medical or nonmedical suspension from flight
-Grounding of UA by HQDA
-Leave approved by the unit commander
-Aircraft non-availability due to movement to deployment,redeployment, and UA preset/reset
-Documented flight cancellations due to weather and/or maintenance that have had a significant impact on flight ops.
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-98) |
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Term
| When prorating semiannual flying requirements a commander may reduce flying-hour minimums by 1 month for each __ period that the crew member was unable to fly |
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Definition
30 day
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-70) |
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Term
| Commanders may prorate semiannual minimums for days lost due to what? |
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Definition
-TDY or deployment to a location where the crewmember is unable to fly
-Medical or nonmedical suspension
-Grounding of UA by HQDA
-Leave approved by the command
-Aircraft non-availability due to movement deploy or reset/preset
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-70) |
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Term
| USAR and ARNG crewmembers have ______ to progress from one RL to the next. |
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Definition
1 year
(TC 3-04.63 para 2-32) |
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Term
| What are the three types of contour lines? |
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Definition
Index, intermediate, supplementary
(FM 3-25.26 para 10-2) |
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