Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the circuit Panels 1-4 located? |
|
Definition
Panel 1: Behind CA
Panel 2: Behind FO
Panel 3: CA Footwell
Panel 4: FO Footwell |
|
|
Term
| What is the danger area in front of the aircraft with the radar operating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many emergency exits are in the cabin? |
|
Definition
Four.
1. Main Cabin Door.
2. Service Door.
3. Left Overwing Exit
4. Right Overwing Exit. |
|
|
Term
| What is the max steering angle with the tiller? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many feet of pavement does it take to make a 180 degree turn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many degrees of steering do you get from the rudder pedals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many potable water tanks are serviceable on the CRJ 200? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are the water tanks protected from freezing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you see when an FMA mode goes from active to armed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Default lateral mode of the FD. If bank angle < 5 degrees, aircraft rolls level. If bank angle > 5 degrees, FD maintains the bank angle sensed at time of engagement. |
|
|
Term
| Pressing the speed button on the FCP does what? |
|
Definition
First Press: CLB or DES activated.
Second Press: IAS or MACH mode.
Third Press: Pitch mode |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between ALTS and ALT? |
|
Definition
ALTS: Preselected Altitude Mode (White)
ALT: Altitude Hold Mode; instructs FD to maintain the barometric altitude that existed a the moment of ALT selection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the ALT mode used for? |
|
Definition
| Maintains the barometric altitude that existed a the moment of ALT selection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between IAS mode and CLB or DES mode? |
|
Definition
IAS: Maintains the selected speed.
CLB: Maintains at least a 50 fpm climb.
DES: Maintains at least a 50 fpm descent. |
|
|
Term
| How do I select CLB or DES mode? |
|
Definition
| Select new altitude with the ALT knob and then press SPD button on the FCP. |
|
|
Term
| What do the 'Witness Lights' mean? |
|
Definition
| Status Indicator Lights; when the FCC's determine that conditions are correct for the selected mode, they send acknowledgement signals back to the FCP and illuminate the green lights on either side of the selected mode pushbutton. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when you climb through 31,600 ft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Sync button do on the control yoke? |
|
Definition
| FD Sync Switch; synchronizes vertical and lateral references to those currently flown (autopilot not engaged). |
|
|
Term
| Pushing TOGA's on go-around does what? |
|
Definition
1. Automatically activates the lateral and vertical go-around mode.
2.Command bars pitch to 10 degrees.
3. Autopilot disconnects. |
|
|
Term
| What does the AP XFER push button do? |
|
Definition
| Transfers autopilot to the opposite FD. |
|
|
Term
| What are the pneumatics from the APU used for? |
|
Definition
| Starting, Air Conditioning, Pressurization. |
|
|
Term
| What is the APU/LCV interlock? |
|
Definition
| Provides a second level of protection by preventing manifold pressure from entering the APU by interlocking the APU LCV with the 10th stage bleed switchlights. |
|
|
Term
| When do the APU gauges appear on ED2? |
|
Definition
| When the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is pressed in. |
|
|
Term
| How can I use the APU to provide air to just one pack if one is inop? |
|
Definition
Left pack inop: do nothing.
Right pack inop: open ISOL valve. |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum altitude at which the APU can be started? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used to provide 10th stage bleed air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used for an engine start? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Should the APU XFLOW pump fail, how will the APU be supplied fuel? |
|
Definition
| From the pressurized right engine fuel feed manifold via the APU negative-gravity relief valve. |
|
|
Term
| To prolong APU life the SOP recommends waiting _____ minutes prior to applying bleed air load. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the EICAS DOOR position shows amber dashes, what does that mean? |
|
Definition
| APU door position unknown. |
|
|
Term
| How does the APU maintain 100% RPM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the BTU? |
|
Definition
| Enables reversionary operation of COM 1 or NAV 1 in the event of total loss of AC Power. |
|
|
Term
| If RTU 1 fails, how do you tune COM1/NAV1? |
|
Definition
| Press 1/2 switch on RTU 2 and tune radios. |
|
|
Term
| What is the EMER switch for on the ACP? |
|
Definition
| Used only when a failure of the audio integrating system occurs; renders most ACP services inoperative. Headset is connected directly to NAV 1 and COM 1. |
|
|
Term
| What is the VOICE/BOTH switch for on the ACP? |
|
Definition
Allows pilot to separate the audio when monitoring the simulcast audio of a radio transmission.
1. BOTH: Morse Code and voice message available.
2. VOICE: only voice signal is audible. |
|
|
Term
| What does the EMER switchlight on the FA call panel do? |
|
Definition
| Illimnates the EMER light on the Interphone Control Unit. |
|
|
Term
| What does the MECH CALL switchlight do? |
|
Definition
| Provides call function between the flight deck and the external services panel. |
|
|
Term
| What does the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch do? |
|
Definition
| Used to prevent the FMS from controlling the radios. In the INHIBIT position, the remote tuning function of the FMS is disabled. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the FDR EVENT button? |
|
Definition
| Used to highlight an event on the FDR recording. |
|
|
Term
| Which doors are NOT displayed on the DOORS synoptic page? |
|
Definition
| TRUs, External services panel, O2 panel, AC external panel, fuel door, potable water doors, DC external, high pressure air, low pressure air, rear equipment bay. |
|
|
Term
| What is the max load capacity of the door? ____ people or ____ lbs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the pressurization vent flap in the main cabin door? |
|
Definition
| To release residual pressure after landing. |
|
|
Term
| What are the possible sources of AC power? |
|
Definition
| IDG 1, IDG 2, APU, Ground Power. |
|
|
Term
| What are the sources of DC power? |
|
Definition
| TRU's, DC ground power, APU battery, Main Battery |
|
|
Term
| What is the job of the TRU's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Constant Speed Drive: Keeps the generators at constant speed.
Integrated Drive Generators: consists of two subcomponents, a CSD and generator. |
|
|
Term
| An IDG fault is generated by? |
|
Definition
| High oil temperature, low oil pressure. |
|
|
Term
| When will an IDG disconnect? Can you get it back? |
|
Definition
Automatically if CSD internal temperature is exceeded or shearing of the IDG dirve shaft due to over-torqued condition.
Manually via the IDG DISC switchlight on the ELECTRICAL POWER SERVICES control panel. It can only be reset on the ground with the engine shut down. |
|
|
Term
| Failure of AC Bus 1/2 results in the loss of which TRU's? |
|
Definition
AC BUS 1: TRU 1
AC BUS 2: TRU 2 & ESS TRU 2 |
|
|
Term
| ADG, when deployed, powers which electrical bus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when you pull the ADG handle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What hydraulic pump is powered directly by the ADG when deployed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch do? |
|
Definition
| It returns the the AC ESS BUS to the normal AC distribution system and returns hydraulic pump ACMP 3B to normal operations. |
|
|
Term
| Under normal conditions, IDG 1 powers which bus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| TRU 1 fails, what power source has priority backing it up? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What system charges the batteries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is normal AC power priority? |
|
Definition
| Onside, APU, Offside, External |
|
|
Term
| What has occurred if the AUTO XFER FAIL switch light has illuminated? |
|
Definition
| AUTO XFER function is disabled; a busses' ability to seek alternate power sources is inhibited. |
|
|
Term
| What does the AC ESS ALTN status message mean? |
|
Definition
| AC ESS BUS is not being powered by AC BUS 1. |
|
|
Term
| The AC essential bus is normally powered by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are the UTIL busses shed? |
|
Definition
Airborne: automatically when a generator fails and single generator operations occur.
Ground: Single generator, flaps out of zero position, service and main cabin door closed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the speed limit for a deployed ADG? |
|
Definition
WET ADG:
DRY ADG: 250 KIAS |
|
|
Term
| What protects the APU from being back-flushed with air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens when a PACK HI TEMP caution message is displayed? |
|
Definition
| Respective pack is automatically shut down. |
|
|
Term
| How many pressure controllers do we have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you switch between pressure controllers? |
|
Definition
| Press the PRESS CONT switch on the CABIN PRESS panel twice. |
|
|
Term
| What is RAM air used for? |
|
Definition
| Cooling for air-to-air heat exchangers. Ventilation and EFIS/EICAS cooling. Also cools hydraulic fluid. |
|
|
Term
| Explain Flight Abort mode. |
|
Definition
| Alleviates the pilot from having to reset the landing elevation when aborting a flight to return to the takeoff airfield. Armed during the first 10 minutes after takeoff if the the aircraft altitude is less than 6000 feet. If a descent of 1000 fpm is initiated, the cabin altitude will return to pre-pressurization altitude. |
|
|
Term
| Explain pre-pressurization mode. |
|
Definition
| Activated when thrust levers advanced for takeoff on the ground. Allows outflow valves a controlling position to eliminate pressure bumps. Pressurized to 150 feet below field elevation; spring-loaded closed if no-bleed takeoff. |
|
|
Term
| What is a normal cabin pressure climb/descent rate? |
|
Definition
Climb: 300-500 fpm
Descent: 300 fpm |
|
|
Term
| What does a BLEED MISCONFIG caution message indicate? |
|
Definition
| Engine and/or wing anti-ice on and APU not operating. |
|
|
Term
| How do you control the cabin in the MANUAL mode? |
|
Definition
| Press MAN switch on CABIN PRESS control panel. Select UP to raise cabin pressure or DN to lower it. Set rate via the RATE control knob. |
|
|
Term
| Which side of the plane has 3 Pax O2 masks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The 10th stage system provides pressure for what systems? |
|
Definition
| Air Conditioning and pressurization. |
|
|
Term
| The 14th stage system provides pressure for what systems? |
|
Definition
| Wing/Cowl Anti - Ice, Thrust Reversers |
|
|
Term
| Do the 14th stage bleed valves fail open or closed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Automatic switching of the cabin pressure controller occurs when? |
|
Definition
1. Failure of the active controller.
2. Three minutes after landing. |
|
|
Term
| What areas do I have fire detection vs detection/extinguishing? |
|
Definition
Detection: Engines, Jetpipe, Pylons, APU, Main Landing Gear, Cargo Bay, Lavatory
Extinguishing: Cargo, Lavatory, Engine Core |
|
|
Term
| What happens when you push an ENG FIRE push light? |
|
Definition
1. Both RH and LH squibs armed; BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight illuminate.
2. Fuel feed SOV closes.
3. Bleed air SOV closes.
4. Hydraulic SOV Closes.
5. Generator tripped off. |
|
|
Term
| How do I fire the extinguishing bottles? |
|
Definition
| Press BOTTLE 1/2 PUSH TO DISCH switchlight. |
|
|
Term
| Do we need AC power on the aircraft to extinguish a fire? |
|
Definition
| No. Extinguishers powered by DC Emergency Bus. |
|
|
Term
| How do the Cargo Smoke detectors work? |
|
Definition
| Two installed in ceiling. |
|
|
Term
| How does the smoke detection and fire extinguishing system work in the lav? |
|
Definition
| Ceiling mounted smoke detector. When smoke detected, SMOKE TOILET amber message on EICAS, "Smoke" aural warning. Halon released to waste bin when heat-sensitive capsules melt. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when a cargo fire is detected? |
|
Definition
| When smoke is detected, red CARGO SMOKE message on EICAS, triple chime, "Smoke" aural warning, cargo bay ventilation interrupted. |
|
|
Term
| What is the procedure at the gate for a cargo overheat? |
|
Definition
1. Keep cargo door closed and load live animals just prior to closing the door.
2. If CARGO OVHT caution message displayed with door closed, leave cargo air conditioning switch on until ready for takeoff.
3. Prior to takeoff, switch to FAN mode and ensure CARGO OVHT message extinguishes.
4. Thirty minutes after takeoff, switch to the COND AIR position. |
|
|
Term
| What is a PCU runaway? How do I know I have one? |
|
Definition
When a power control unit actuates on its own; characterized by uncommanded movements of aileron, elevator, or rudder.
Aileron: through breakout switch then PLT ROLL CMD or CPLT ROLL CMD advisory message and illuminates green ROLL SEL glareshield light of pilot who should take control. |
|
|
Term
| What is an Aileron Jam? How do I know I have one? |
|
Definition
| Unable to move ailerons due to jam. Unable to change heading. |
|
|
Term
| What step must be taken first in the event of an aileron control jam? |
|
Definition
| Pull the ROLL DISC handle. |
|
|
Term
| What message would be displayed if one of the flap power drive unit motors failed? |
|
Definition
| Flaps halfspeed Status message. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the aileron flutter dampers? |
|
Definition
Ground: provide gust lock protection.
Flight: prevent aileron flutter when all hydraulic fluid lost a the PCU. |
|
|
Term
| How to I know which hydraulic system powers a given flight control surface (i.e. rudder)? |
|
Definition
| Flight control page on EICAS 2. |
|
|
Term
| What does the ROLL/PITCH DISC handle do? |
|
Definition
| Isolates the jammed aileron or elevator and provides pilot with reduced control. Illuminates the amber ROLL SEL lights for the ailerons. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the yaw damper? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Moves stabilizer to compensate for changes in airspeed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the SECU? |
|
Definition
| To combine the control wheel signals with other information to determine the required spoileron deflection for any given aircraft condition. |
|
|
Term
| If the GLD's fail to deploy on landing, how do we deploy them manually? |
|
Definition
| Deploy flight spoiler control handle. |
|
|
Term
| What is monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system? |
|
Definition
| Parking brake, trims (3), Flaps, Spoilers, Autopilot. |
|
|
Term
| What are the aural/visual/tactile elements of the stall protection system? |
|
Definition
Tactile: stick shaker, stick push.
Visual: CONT IGN status message, STALL switchlights flash red
Aural: warbler sound |
|
|
Term
| If the PFD fails, how do I put my PFD on my MFD? |
|
Definition
| Display Reversionary Panel switch to PFD 1/2. |
|
|
Term
| On the speed tape, what is the green line? What are the checkerboards? |
|
Definition
Green Line: Low-Speed Awareness Cue which is 25% above shaker speed.
Checkerboards: High-Speed/Flap Overspeed Cue and Low-Speed Cue |
|
|
Term
| When is my radio altimeter displayed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the Mach Transducers used for? |
|
Definition
| Used to supply primary MACH data to the Stall Protection System computer for MACH compensation of the stall margin. |
|
|
Term
| What is the trend vector and how does it work? |
|
Definition
| Tells you where your airspeed will be in 10 seconds. |
|
|
Term
| If your DCP fails, how can you still control what is displayed on your MFD? |
|
Definition
| Use DSPL CONT switch to operative DCP on Source Select Panel. |
|
|
Term
| Where are the standby pitot and static ports located? |
|
Definition
| Standby pitot probe on left side of fuselage; standby static ports on both sides. |
|
|
Term
| How do I get the advisory VNAV 'snowflake' to appear? What does it do? |
|
Definition
| White needles and a visual approach selected on FMS; Enable Advisory VNAV on FMS Perf page. |
|
|
Term
| when does the PFD declutter? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft upset or unusual attitudes (pitch +30/-20 or roll > 65 degrees) Clears all nonessential info from the PFD. |
|
|
Term
| When windshear information is activated on the PFD, what does the Alpha Margin Indicator (AMI) indicate? |
|
Definition
| Maximum pitch allowed before the stick shaker is activated. |
|
|
Term
| What are fuel ejectors? How do they work? |
|
Definition
| Ejectors create motive flow when high-pressure fuel from EDPs is passed through venturi-shaped nozzle of the ejector. As fluid velocity increases, low pressure is created, providing suction which moves the fuel out of the tank. Transfer (center to wings), Scavenge (wings to collectors), Main (collectors to engines). |
|
|
Term
| What are the backups if the fuel ejectors fail? |
|
Definition
| DC Electric Boost Pumps backup Main Ejectors. Gravity flow backs up the Scavenge Ejectors. There is no backup for the Transfer Ejectors. |
|
|
Term
| How does the aircraft balance fuel between the wing tanks? |
|
Definition
| When an imbalance > 200 lbs exists between the wing tanks, the FSC starts the XFLOW/APU pump. Fuel is taken from both wing tanks, the low tank crossflow valve is opened, and the low tank is filled until it exceeds the other tank by 50 lbs. |
|
|
Term
| How do we get fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks? |
|
Definition
| Two TRANSFER EJECTORS transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks. When either wing tank drops to 94%, the fuel system computer opens the respective fuel transfer valve. When the wing tank is full,the valve is closed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the electrical boost pumps? |
|
Definition
| The boost pumps provide fuel for engine start and in case of a Main Ejector failure. |
|
|
Term
| Can the ejectors/boost pumps supply enough fuel pressure to keep the engines running? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the collector tanks? |
|
Definition
| Tanks that supply fuel to the engine. Fuel is collected from the wing tanks through scavenge ejectors. |
|
|
Term
| If Boost Pumps are pressed in, when will the pumps turn on? Which ones will turn on? |
|
Definition
| When fuel computer detedts low fuel feed pressure in either feed manifold. Both turn on. |
|
|
Term
| How do I get fuel to the APU? |
|
Definition
| From both wing tanks via the XFLOW pump. From the right tank through negative-gravity relief valve. |
|
|
Term
| During automatic cross flow, the low tank will be filled to what level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When will a FUEL IMBALANCE caution message be generated? |
|
Definition
| Imbalance greater than 800 lbs between wing tanks. |
|
|
Term
| When would we use the gravity cross flow? How does it work? |
|
Definition
| When powered crossflow does not operate normally, or is unable to correct a fuel imbalance. Select GRAVITY XFLOW on the fuel control panel, the gravity crossflow SOV opens and a green advisory message is displayed on EICAS. Fuel flows through the gravity manifold and the wing tanks are balanced by gravity. Fuel movement between wing tanks can be increased by sideslipping the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| How would you manually transfer/balance fuel in flight? |
|
Definition
| Select AUTO OVERRIDE switchlight to MAN on the fuel control panel (inhibits the automatic feature of the powered crossflow system). Select the desired L/R crossflow shutoff valve switchlight to open the xflow valve and start theXFLOW/APU pump. |
|
|
Term
| Can you fuel the center tank over the wing? |
|
Definition
| Yes, inboard cap on the right wing (outboard is R Main). No on the 700/900. |
|
|
Term
| How do you use the magnetic fuel level indicators? |
|
Definition
| Release measuring stick from the housing, uncorrected tank quantity is indicated on the stick. Refer to inclinometers on CBP-2 to determine aircraft pitch and roll deviation from the level position. FCOM Volume 2 provides a chart that permits the stick reading to be corrected for deviation from level. SOP APP A: Call MX control. |
|
|
Term
| How is the fuel heated prior to going into the engine? |
|
Definition
| Fuel/oil heat exchanger located on the engine. The fuel is heated by the hot engine oil as it passes through the heat exchanger. |
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic system is the largest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is hydraulic system 1/2/3 cooled? |
|
Definition
| 1 & 2 share a common heat exchanger which uses RAM air. 3 does not require cooling because its components are not near any appreciable heat sources (engines). |
|
|
Term
| With hydraulic switches set to AUTO, when do the ACMP's come on? |
|
Definition
| Respective bus is powered, associated generator is operating and flaps > zero. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary power source (in flight) for hydraulic ACMP 1 and 2 respectively? |
|
Definition
ACMP 1B is powered by AC BUS 2/GEN 2.
ACMP 2B is powered by AC BUS 1/GEN 1. |
|
|
Term
| What is normal hydraulic pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator? |
|
Definition
| Satisfies the instantaneous demands of aircraft systems and dampens out pressure surges within the system. |
|
|
Term
| How can you shut off the flow of hydraulic fluid to an Engine Driven Pump? |
|
Definition
| Shut down engine or via applicable ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight. |
|
|
Term
| Which hydraulic pump is powered in the event of a total electrical failure? How is it powered? |
|
Definition
| ADG will power 3B directly from the ADG BUS regardless of switch position. |
|
|
Term
| What systems would you lose if you lost hydraulic system #3? |
|
Definition
| LDG gear normal extension and retraction, nose wheel steering and inboard brakes. |
|
|
Term
| Explain cross-side logic (i.e. loss of a generator has what effect on the hydraulic system). |
|
Definition
| The ACMP B pumps for Sys 1 & 2 are powered by the cross-side generator. In the event of a generator malfunction, the cross-side ACMP is load shed but the EDP (A pumps) continue to power the system. |
|
|
Term
| How do ice detectors work? |
|
Definition
| The probes vibrate at high frequency. Ice accumulations on the probe dampen the frequency of the vibration and the microprocessor signals the data concentrator unit (DCU) which generates an ICE caution message indicate. The probes are deiced for 5 sec every 60 sec. |
|
|
Term
| What does the ICE caution message indicate? Advisory message? |
|
Definition
Caution: Ice detected and both cowl and wing anti-Icing are not selected ON or the wings are not warm enough.
Advisory: Indicates ice detected and wing/cowl anti-ice systems ON. |
|
|
Term
| What does the amber arc on the N2 gauge indicate? |
|
Definition
| WING anti-ice switch is ON. The N2 gauge arcs, pointers and digital readouts turn amber up to 77.9% This is a function of switch position only, to remind the pilot that N2 core speed should be kept at a higher rpm when the wing anti-icing is on to ensure an adequate flow of bleed air from the engine. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the NORM operation of the wing anti-ice. |
|
Definition
| Wing anti-ice valves modulated to maintain a constant wing leading edge temperature; responds to signals from anti-ice temperature controller. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the STBY operation of the wing anti-ice. |
|
Definition
| Temperature controller is bypassed; wing anti-ice valves are either fully open or closed to maintain the leading edge temperature at a lower value than in normal mode. |
|
|
Term
| What surfaces are anti-iced with bleed air? |
|
Definition
| Wing leading edge, Cowls, T2 probes. |
|
|
Term
| What does the WING OVHT warning message indicate? |
|
Definition
| Hot leading edge. Also failure of the wing anti-ice valves to close during thrust reverse operations. |
|
|
Term
| What does an ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message indicate? |
|
Definition
| Bleed air leak detected in left or right fuselage or wing anti-ice ducts. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the wing/cowl anti-ice during reverse thrust operations? |
|
Definition
Wing: wing anti-ice valve closes.
Cowls: cowl anti-ice valve remains open. |
|
|
Term
| What does CMD indicate on the Anti-Ice synoptic page? |
|
Definition
| Indicates the position of the anti-ice switches and not necessarily the actual position of the valves. Shows what the switches are "commanding" the valves to do since the valves fail open. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the pressure relief valve in the engine cowl? |
|
Definition
| Provides overpessure protection should the pressure regulating function of the cowl anti-icing valve fail. |
|
|
Term
| How are the EICAS screens cooled? |
|
Definition
| Two display fans under the flight compartment floor, fan1 (flight) & fan2 (ground) that switch automatically based on WOW. If one fails the other can be selected manually (DSPLY FAN switch to FLT ALTN or GND ALTN). If both fail, a 3rd (STBY) can be selected. |
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Term
| What are the different kinds of messages displayed on the EICAS? What accompanies each message? |
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Definition
Warning: Red warning message on ED1, Triple chime, Master warning light, Aural warning.
Caution: Yellow message on ED2, Single Chime, Caution light.
Advisory: Green Message on ED2
Status: White Message on ED2 |
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Term
| Which messages can be boxed? |
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Definition
| Caution Messages, Status messages. |
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Term
| If ED2 fails, how can I get a status page? |
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Definition
1. Select EICAS on either Display Reversionary Panel (displays on MFD). or
2. Rotate EICAS knob on the Source Select Panel to ED1 unlock ED1. Pressing the STAT button will display the status page on ED1. |
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Term
| Pushing the master warning switch light does what? |
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Definition
| Silences the aural alerts, cancels master warning switchlights and resets CAS for future faults. |
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Term
| Which 4 buttons are always active on the ECP? |
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Definition
| PRI (displays Primary page on ED2), CAS (page/box/recall caution msgs), STAT (displays status page on ED2, page/box/recall status msgs), STEP (view synoptic pages) |
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Term
| What is the purpose of the AUDIO WARNING DISABLE switches on the copilot's side console? |
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Definition
| Disable and Silence aural warnings from a faulty DCU. |
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Term
| Are some EICAS messages inhibited during certain phases of flight? |
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Definition
1. INITIAL TAKEOFF: N1>79%, WOW, <100 kts (removed <67.6% OR final takeoff)
2. FINAL TAKEOFF: N1>79% and >100kts (removed N1<67.6% OR >400 AGL OR 30 secs grnd to air)
3. LANDING: <400 AGL AND gear DN/locked (removed 30 secs air to grnd OR >400 AGL for 3 secs) |
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Term
| How do we stop rotation of the nose gear/main gear after takeoff? |
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Definition
Main: Hydraulic pressure from the nose gear upline (3) is directed to the brake control valves to stop main wheel rotation.
Nose: None. |
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Term
| Landing manual release handle does what? |
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Definition
| Releases the nose gear forward door uplock and the three landing gear uplocks. Hydraulic dump valves are opened to allow the gear to fall under its own weight. The nose gear is assisted down and locked by 2 overcenter springs and by airflow. The MLG is assisted down and locked by auxiliary actuators powered by Hydraulic System 2. |
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Term
| Which combination HYD failure is the worst case scenario and why? |
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Definition
| The combination of systems 2 and 3. This would mean the failure of inboard and outboard brakes as well as both the normal and auxiliary landing gear extension systems. |
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Term
| How does the anti-skid work? |
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Definition
| Wheel speed >35 kt WOW +5 sec, until 10 knots. The Anti- Skid Control System monitors and compares wheel speeds and their deceleration rates. Hydraulic pressure is modulated to prevent lockup and match brake pairs. |
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Term
| How do you test the anti-skid system? |
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Definition
1. Parking Brake - OFF
2. Anti-Skid Test - TEST and hold.
A/SKID INBD + A/SKID OUTBD Caution must display on ED1
3. Anti-Skid Test - Release
Check within 6 seconds both caution messages disappear
4. Parking Brake - ON |
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Term
| How do we get the most accurate brake wear indication? |
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Definition
| With the parking brake ON and Hydraulic Systems 2 & 3 ON. |
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Term
| When does the anti-skid become active? When does it deactivate? |
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Definition
Armed: Parking brake OFF and MLG down and locked.
Operational: Wheels >35kts or WOW +5 secs, until 10 kts. |
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Term
| What is the BTMS? How does it work? What are the color logic ranges? |
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Definition
Monitors the temperature of each brake via thermocouple with temperatures displayed as a color-coded numerical readout on ED2. Each unit is 35 degrees Celcius.
Green: 00 - 05
White: 06 - 11
Red: 11 - 20 |
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Term
| What temperatures does each unit on the BTMS represent? |
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Definition
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Term
| When might the fusible plugs blow? |
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Definition
| If the wheel temperature exceeds a preset limit (due to a RTO), the plugs melt and tire deflates. |
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Term
| Which hydraulic system must be powered in order to open the nose gear door? |
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Definition
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Term
| When fully charged, the brake accumulators will provide ____ brake applications when the respective HYD system is inop? |
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Definition
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Term
| What does the MLG BAY OVHT warning message indicate? |
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Definition
| Overheat condition in the wheel well due. |
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Term
| When must all landing and taxi lights be turned off? |
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Definition
| Anytime aircraft is stationary for more than 10 minutes. |
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Term
| The emergency lights will provide approximately ____ minutes of illumination when the batteries are properly charged. |
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Definition
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Term
| Why are there two nav bulbs in each wingtip? How many are required for flight? |
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Definition
| For dispatch reliability. One may be inop at each wing tip. |
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Term
| How many VOR/DME inputs can the FMS utilize? |
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Definition
| Based on capability of NAVs - Each can receive 1 VOR/DME plus 2 additional DMEs, so 2 VOR/DMEs plus 4 additional DMEs. |
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Term
| How does the EGPWS know what the terrain is around you? |
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Definition
| EGPWS uses two databases (terrain clearance floor (TCF) and terrain/obstacle awareness alerting and display (TAAD) to compare the aircraft's geographical position and altitude to terrain/obstacles in the databases. |
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Term
| When can I overlay radar or terrain? |
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Definition
| NAV SECTOR, FMS MAP and TCAS modes. |
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Term
| At what altitude are windshear advisories enabled/disabled? |
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Definition
| Radio altitudes of 10 to 1500'. |
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Term
| What will you see with a windshear warning on the PFD? |
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Definition
| Red WINDSHEAR, amber AMI indicator, command bars provide escape guidance. |
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Term
| If you get a TCAS Resolution Advisory, what indications will you have? |
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Definition
1. Target becomes solid red square.
2. Aural directive (climb, descend, etc).
3. Red TRAFFIC above VSI.
4. Vertical escape guidance on VSI in green/ red . |
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Term
| On which FMS maps can I overlay TCAS? |
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Definition
| FMS MAP, NAV SECTOR, and TCAS. |
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Term
| How do you display bearing pointers? |
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Definition
| On DCP, upper BRG pointer VOR1/ADF1/FMS single/magenta, lower pointer is VOR2/ADF2. double/cyan. |
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Term
| When will you see a VOR symbol on the MFD? |
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Definition
| FMS Map or FMS Plan pages only w/HI/LO NAVAIDS selected on FMS MFD MENU page. |
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Term
| How do you cancel a 'sink rate' GPWS warning? |
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Definition
| Correct the aircraft condition to recover from the caution envelope. Note: Selecting GND PROX/TERRAIN switch to OFF does not inhibit GPWS modes 1-7 (sink rate is a mode 1 function). |
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Term
| How do pax O2 generators work? |
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Definition
| Chemical oxygen generators create O2 via a chemical reaction. |
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Term
| How are the passenger O2 generators activated? How long will they last? |
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Definition
| Activated by pulling on mask to release pin, lasts approx 13 min. |
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Term
| When do you get the CABIN ALT caution message? CABIN ATL warning message? |
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Definition
CAUTION: Cabin Alt 8500'-10,000'.
WARNING: Cabin Alt > 10,000'. |
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Term
| When will the O2 masks deploy? |
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Definition
| CPAM deploys when cabin alt > 14,000', or manually by PASS OXY switchlight. |
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Term
| How many PBE's are installed? |
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Definition
| Three. 1 on the flight deck and 2 in the cabin (fore/aft). |
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Term
| What is the minimum crew O2 dispatch pressure? To Canada? |
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Definition
| 1410/960 or Appendix A, 1650 Canada or lower approved by Mx. |
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Term
| When does the OXY LO PRESS caution illuminate? |
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Definition
| CREW oxygen bottle pressure < 1410/960 psi. |
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Term
| What is the purpose of the SOP Appendix A O2 masks chart? |
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Definition
| To determine if oxygen on-board is sufficient to dispatch when pressure is less than the standard minimum. |
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Term
| On the pilot O2 mask, what is the function of the Normal/100% Emergency Flow Switch? |
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Definition
Normal: O2 mixed with ambient air, on demand.
100%: O2 only, on demand to 30,000', then continuous above.
Emergency Flow: 100% continuous. |
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Term
| What does the OXY LO PRESS caution message indicates? |
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Definition
| CREW oxygen bottle pressure < 1410/960 psi. |
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Term
| When does the engine ATS normally cutout? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is APR? How is it armed? |
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Definition
| Automatic Performance Reserve. During takeof/climb, if either N1 drops below 67.6%, APR system automatically increases N1 approx 2% on the good engine for 5 minutes. APR switches to ARM, ENG Speed switches ON, WOW, N1 both engines >79%. |
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Term
| Do you have APR on the Go-Around? |
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Definition
No, APR is not triggered due to arming logic (no WOW). However, the GA thrust settings are roughly 2% N1 higher than the TO thrust settings.
700/900: APR is available on the GA. |
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Term
| How is the APR activated? |
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Definition
| Once armed, during takeoff/climb, if either N1 drops below 67.6%, the other N1 is automatically increased approx 2%. |
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Term
| You gain an additional ____ % or ____ lbs. of thrust with APR? |
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Definition
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Term
| What do the engine speed switches do? |
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Definition
ON: Arms FCU to respond to thrust lever input using N1 "electronic fan speed" mode for power settings >79%, or N2 "hydro-mechanical" mode for lower power settings.
OFF: N2 mode only. |
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Term
| What would happen if the right engine speed switch was selected OFF during climb out? |
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Definition
| Rapid increase of N2 due to N1/N2 thrust lever position difference (N2 is greater for same position), which may result in exceedance of RPM and ITT limitations. |
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Term
| When do you need continuous ignition? |
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Definition
1. Takeoffs and Landings on contaminated runways.
2. Takeoffs with high crosswind components >10 knots. (CRJ 200 only)
3. Flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain.
4. Flight through moderate or heavier intensity turbulence.
5. Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms. |
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Term
| When will continuous ignition be automatically activated? |
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Definition
| High AoA, approaching stall. |
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Term
| When does the thrust lever auto-retard? |
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Definition
| When the reverser inadvertently deploys in flight. |
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Term
| What does the UNLK light mean on the Thrust Reverse panel? |
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Definition
| Thrust reverser is unlocked. |
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Term
| What does L or R REV UNSAFE caution message mean? |
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Definition
| Reverser is unsafe to arm in flight. |
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Term
| Normal N1 thrust is displayed on ED1 in what color? Flex thrust? |
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Definition
| Thrust reverser is unsafe to arm in-flight, Thrust reverser deploy switches have failed in a commanded deploy state but thrust reversers are not locked and are not armed. |
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Term
| When do we check engine oil? How much oil can be added? |
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Definition
| 3 min to 2 hrs after shutdown, 2 quarts w/o dry motoring. |
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Term
| If needed, when can you add engine oil? |
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Definition
| 15 min to 2 hrs after shutdown. |
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Term
| When do you have to dry motor an engine after adding oil? |
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Definition
| f the system has to be replenished to maximum capacity and the replenishment period has been exceeded, the engine(s) must be dry motored. |
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Term
| When taxiing onto the runway, you receive a ____ caution message. What is the appropriate response in regards to maintenance action per the current FOM procedure? |
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Definition
| See SP 3100 Mechanical Irregularities |
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