Term
| What scabicides SHOULD be used in children? |
|
Definition
| Permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) |
|
|
Term
| What scabicides SHOULD NOT be used in children? Why? |
|
Definition
| Lindane (Kwell) - may be associated with neurotoxicity |
|
|
Term
| What condition has associated findings of Keobner Phenomenon and Auspitz sign? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What clinical sign is described as a removal of a small scale on the lesion causes bleeding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Hallmark sign of Psoriasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What clinical sign is described as lesions induced in areas of local trauma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the common areas of the body affected by Psoriasis? |
|
Definition
| Extensor surface of the extremities, scalp and butt (esp found on knees and elbows) |
|
|
Term
| What skin condition is described as red, well demarcated plaques with dry, thick silvery scales? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What psoriasis occurs after an infection with strep pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition found in infants (aged 1 - 6 months) is described as red, itchy papules and plaques that ooze or crust and are found on the cheeks, forehead scalp, trunk and extensor surfaces? How long does it last? |
|
Definition
| Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema); Lasts 2 - 3 years |
|
|
Term
| What condition is found in children aged 4 - 10 yrs and is described as dry, papular, intensely pruritic circumscribed scaly patches that are found on the wrist, ankles, antecubital and popliteal fossae (MOSTLY FLEXURAL surfaces)? |
|
Definition
| Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) |
|
|
Term
| What is a big difference between atopic dermatitis and Psoriasis? |
|
Definition
| With the exception of infants, atopic dermatitis is found on the FLEXOR surfaces, while psoriasis is found on the EXTENSOR surfaces |
|
|
Term
| Where on the body is atopic dermatitis commonly found in children (4 - 10 y/o)? |
|
Definition
FLEXOR Surfaces
Wrists, ankles, antecubital and popliteal fossa |
|
|
Term
| Where on the body is atopic dermatitis commonly found in infants (1 - 6 mo old)? |
|
Definition
| Cheeks, forehead, scalp, trunk and extensor surfaces |
|
|
Term
| Where on the body is atopic dermatitis commonly found in adults (12 and older)? |
|
Definition
| FLEXOR areas of arms, neck, legs, dorsum of hands/feet - btwn fingers and toes |
|
|
Term
| What dermatologic condition is described as an acute hypersensitivity syndrome that is triggered by drugs, viruses, bacteria, foods, and immunizations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCC of Erythema Multiformes in Children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt presents with recurrent Erythema Multiformes rash, what should you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What rash is described as symmetrical and has target shaped lesions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is E. Multiformes rash generally located? |
|
Definition
| Extensor surfaces of arms and legs |
|
|
Term
| How long does E multiformes rash generally last? |
|
Definition
| 1 - 3 weeks (self-limiting) |
|
|
Term
| What additional symptoms may accompany an E multiformes rash? |
|
Definition
| low-grade fever, malaise, myalagias |
|
|
Term
| Is E. multiformes found on the mucous membranes? |
|
Definition
| Usually SPARES the mucous membranes |
|
|
Term
| Children comes to your clinic with a low grade fever, is very tired and lethargic and complains of being achy all over. You notice red dusky macules or wheals on the pts elbows and knees. What should you suspect? |
|
Definition
| E. multiformes rash due to an infection |
|
|
Term
| What condition seen in pts 3 - 12 mos old, described as dirty brown scales on flanks, elbows and shoulders and sparing the face and flexural areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition that appears in the 1st month of life with the first sign being a colloidian membrane, that then develops into a thick growth gray sheet-like scales with raised edges on the face, trunk, extremities and flexural surfaces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Ichytheoses has a characteristic colloidian membrane present at birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as thick warty scales and intermittent blistering that occurs on the flexure surfaces? |
|
Definition
| Epidermolytic Hyperkeratosis Ichythoses |
|
|
Term
| If a pt has widespread blisters what conditions may this suggest? |
|
Definition
| herpes simplex or epidermolysis bullosa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Moist and Intereginous areas |
|
|
Term
| What is the major difference between contact dermatitis and atopic dermatitis? |
|
Definition
| With contact dermatitis there will be a hx of contact relating to the distribution |
|
|
Term
| Which condition has discreteness of lesions and distribution in a "christmas tree" or "fir tree" distribution that can be either hyper or hypo pigmented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as central clearing with active red border of red papules, vesicles and pustules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition is described as FLAT Topped pruritic polygonal violaceous papules and plaques? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of Lichen planus is described as fine lacy pattern? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What skin condition starts on the dorsal surface of the extremities and can display keoberization at sites of prior trauma and is polygonal violaceous flat-topped papules and plaques? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as flat topped papules that are abrupt, linear or swirled and show lines of Blaschko (skin lines) and are found mostly on the extremities, neck, upper back? What is the cure? |
|
Definition
| Lichen Stiatus; resolves spontaneously in 1 - 2 yrs |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference btwn Lichen Planus and Lichen Striatus based on where it is located? |
|
Definition
| Lichen planus is found on dorsal surfaces of extremities, wile Lichen striatus is found on the extreemities, but also the neck and back |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the appearance of Lichen Planus versus Lichen Striatus? |
|
Definition
Planus is violaceous and are PRURITIC
Striatus has lines of Blaschko (skin lines), |
|
|
Term
| What findings are characteristic of a viral infection of Herpes and Varicella? |
|
Definition
| Multinucleated Giant Cells on Tzank Smear |
|
|
Term
| What condition is characterized by a plane cleavage high in the epidermis that develop thin walled bullae and has a pos Nickolsky sign? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an infant pt has slippage of the top layers of skin when rubbed, what sign is this and what condition does this indicate? |
|
Definition
| Nickolsky's Sign; Scalded Skin Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen is responsible for scalded skin syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is scalded skin syndrome diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| nose or conjunctival swab with positive results for S Aureus |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes blistering distal dactylitis? |
|
Definition
| S. aureus (esp common in children with Atopic Derm) or Grp A hemolytic Strep |
|
|
Term
| What is the condition described as a blister on the anterior volar fat pad of the distal phalynx? What other condition in childhood is it commonly found with? |
|
Definition
| Blistering Distal Dactylitis; AD |
|
|
Term
| What disorder is described as beginning with flu-like symptoms, followed by a painful purple rash that spreads and blisters and eventually causes the top layer of skin to die and shed? What is the common cause of this condition? |
|
Definition
| SJS; hypersensitivity rxtn to meds |
|
|
Term
| What is the severe form of Erythema Multiformes called? |
|
Definition
| Steven Johnson's Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is SJS most commonly caused by? |
|
Definition
| A hypersensitivity to meds |
|
|
Term
| Does E. multiformes affect the palms or feet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What heart condition is characterized by sub-q nodules over bony prominences? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are heart condition is characterized by nontender, macular lesions most commonly involving the palms and soles? What are these lesions called? |
|
Definition
| Bacterial Endocarditis; Janeway Lesions |
|
|
Term
| What heart condition is characterized by small, tender nodules that develop on the finger or toe pads ? What are these lesions called? |
|
Definition
| Infective Endocarditis; Osler Nodes |
|
|
Term
| What heart condition is characterized by narrow, red to reddish-brown lines of blood beneath the nails? What are these lesions called? |
|
Definition
| Acute Bacterial Endocarditis; Splinter Hemorrhages |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart abnormalities are Acyanotic? (6) |
|
Definition
ASD
VSD
PDA
PS
AS
Coarctation of the Aorta |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart abnormalities are Cyanotic? (6) |
|
Definition
Tetralogy of Fallot
Tricuspid Atresia
Transposition of Great Vessels
Truncus Arteriosus
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of cardiomegaly, and increased pulmonary artery vasculature? |
|
Definition
| Atrial Septal Defect; Truncus Arteriosis |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of increased pulmonary artery vasculature and increased pulmonary vein size? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of cardiomegaly, Left atrial enlargement, and increased pulmonary vasculature? |
|
Definition
| Ventricular Septal Defect |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of normal heart size, and post-stenotic dilation of pulmonary artery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of normal pulmonary vasculature, rib-notching post coarctation dilation and cardiomegaly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of a usually normal heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of a boot-shaped heart, normal heart size and decreased pulmonary vascular markings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of a boot-shaped heart with a concave border, a normal heart size and decreased pulmonary vasculature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of Cardiomegaly and an egg-on-a-string appearance, increased pulmonary vasculature and narrowed mediastinum? |
|
Definition
| Transposition of Great Arteries |
|
|
Term
| What other heart defect MUST you have if you have transposition of the great arteries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference in appearance of ASD and Truncus Arteriosis? |
|
Definition
| both have cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vasculature, but Truncus Arteriosis commonly presents with VSD (which would have left atrial enlargement as well) |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of cardiomegaly with snowman appearance and increased pulmonary vasculature? |
|
Definition
| Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection |
|
|
Term
| Which congenital heart condition is characterized by CXR findings of enlarged heart with increased Pulmonary Vascular Markings and Pulmonary Vascular congestion? |
|
Definition
| Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What congenital heart condition has a soft systolic ejection murmur heard at the ULSB, and a low-pitched mid-diastolic rumbling murmur heard at the LLSB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital heart condition is MC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital heart condition has a loud, harsh pansystolic murmur that is loudest at the LSB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MC heart valve abnormality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital heart condition has a murmur described as a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the prophylaxis treatment given to prevent bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| Amoxicillin 50mg/kg one hour before procedure |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are a HIGH risk for bacterial endocarditis developing and are therefore given a prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
Prosthetic Cardiac Valves
Previous Bacterial Endocarditis
Complex Cyanotic Congenital HD
Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary shunts and conduits |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are a MODERATE risk for bacterial endocarditis developing and are therefore given a prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
Most other congenital abnormalities
Acquired Valvular dysfunction
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
MVP w/valvular regurgitation or thickened leaflets |
|
|
Term
| What complication of uncorrected congenital heart anomalies produces a L to R shunt reversal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the MC cardiac anomalies that Eisenmenger's syndrome develops in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for PDA? |
|
Definition
| Ibuprofen/Indomethacin (causes closure, most effective in premies not full-term), ligation |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Ventral Septal Defect? |
|
Definition
Watch and Wait, most close on there own
Surgery indicated if large defect or HF by 2 months |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for mild pulmonic stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for mod to severe pulmonic stenosis? |
|
Definition
| balloon dilation via cath |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
exercise restrictions (avoid contact sports)
balloon valvuloplasty in children
valve replacement in adults |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for tetralogy of fallot? |
|
Definition
| Blalock-Taussig Procedure |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for tricuspid atresia? |
|
Definition
| Blalock-Taussig shunt or prostaglandin |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Transposition of great arteries? |
|
Definition
| emergency surgery if inadequate shunting = balloon atrial septostomy |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for truncus arteriosus? |
|
Definition
digitalis/diuretics
Surgery - remove PA from TA, replace trunchal valve, close VSD if open |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for hypoplastic L heart syndrome? |
|
Definition
Prostaglandins (help dilate DA)
Diuretics
Surgery |
|
|
Term
| What is the MCC of acute bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as an acute viral infection of the lower respiratory tract in infants and young children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the peak age of incidence of acute bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Are most pneumonias viral or bacterial? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a 3 mon old pt presents with wheezing, crackles, expiratory obstruction and respiratory distress, what condition do you suspect? |
|
Definition
| Acute Bronchiolitis most likely caused by RSV |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for acute bronchiolitis? What do you avoid? |
|
Definition
place in cool, humidified oxygen area
May use albuterol, epinephrine or ribavirin
Avoid sedatives (as they cause respiratory depression) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of pneumonia is most serious bacterial or viral? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely organisms causing lower respiratory infections in neonates (0-1mon)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely organisms causing lower respiratory infections in Infants (1-6 mon)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely organisms causing lower respiratory infections in Children (6 mon - 5yr)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely organisms causing lower respiratory infections in Children (5 - 15yr)? |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Influenza Virus Type A |
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely organisms causing lower respiratory infections in Young Adults (16 - 30 yrs)? |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Strep pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| What are the most likely organisms causing lower respiratory infections in Older Adults (>30y/o)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If pt is asymptomatic but has a +PPD, what is your dx? What is the tx? |
|
Definition
Latent TB
INH 300mg/d x 6-9 mo (Consider pyridoxine -B6, to prevent neuropathies)
Monitor LFTs every mon |
|
|
Term
| What med can cause orange tears or orange colored pee? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for active TB in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt presents with persistent coughing, with phlegm at times, wheezing or SOB, excessive appetite but poor wt gain, greasy, bulky stools and very salty skin. What condition do you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What may be a clue on HEENT exam that the pt has cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If newborn is deemed failure to thrive and has a hx of meconium ileus and intestinal obstruction, what condition might you suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the diagnostic test to confirm a dx of CF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On CXR there is hyperinflation of lungs, increased AP diameter on lateral view and scattered consolidation, what condition is consistent with these findings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On CXR of a child there is mediastinal adenopathy, segmental hyperinflation , alveolar consolidation, interstitial densities and a cavitation. What condition are you suspecting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for diagnosing TB? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard fro diagnosing pertussis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is asthma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as lower airway obstruction that is partially or fully reversible either spontaneously or with a bronchodilator or anti-inflammatory tx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchial hyperactivity, swelling, spasm or sputum production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to FVC, FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio with asthma? |
|
Definition
FVC - Normal
FEV1 - decreased
FEV1/FVC ratio = <80% |
|
|
Term
| With a pulmonary function test what finding is suggestive of asthma? |
|
Definition
| increase in absolute FEV1 of >12% after bronchodilator |
|
|
Term
| What type of med is albuterol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are long-acting B agonists used in asthma treatment? |
|
Definition
optional in moderate persistant
Mostly used in severe pts |
|
|
Term
| What are long-acting B agonists used in conjunction with? |
|
Definition
| anti-inflammatory drugs (eg salmeterol) |
|
|
Term
| When does extrinsic (allergic) asthma onset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of asthma has characteristics including allergic shiners, hx of eczema, has predominant sx of a cough, is IgE associated and will have pos skin tests? |
|
Definition
| Extrinsic (allergic) Asthma |
|
|
Term
| What is the age of onset of intrinsic asthma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of asthma has neg Fhx, no hx of childhood eczema, skin tests are neg, not IgE associated and has dyspnea with exercise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of asthma may be more chronic or severe, may require more extensive therapy and may become corticosteroid dependent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of persistent asthma do exacerbations possibly affect activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of persistent asthma do exacerbations limit activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of persistent asthma do exacerbations severely limit physical activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of asthma has FEV1 or PEF > 80% and PEF variability < 20%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of asthma has FEV1 or PEF > 80% and PEF variability < 20% - 30%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of asthma has FEV1 or PEF 60% - 80% and PEF variability > 30%? |
|
Definition
| Moderate Persistent Asthma |
|
|
Term
| Which stage of asthma has FEV1 or PEF < 60% and PEF variability > 30%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes Hand, foot and Mouth disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogen causing herpangina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt presents with conjunctivitis, pharyngeal MEMBRANE, "bullneck" and severe myocarditis, what condition do you suspect? What is the causative pathogen? |
|
Definition
| Diptheria; Corneybacteria Diptheria |
|
|
Term
| What is the routine dosage schedule to protect a child from Diptheria, Pertussis and Tetanus? |
|
Definition
DTap @
- 2mon
- 4 mon
- 6 mon
- 15 - 18 mon |
|
|
Term
| If a pt has never received a vaccination against Tetanus, what is the schedule to catch-up? |
|
Definition
First Dose
4 wks later Second Dose
6 - 12 mons later Third Dose
Booster dose q 10 yrs there after |
|
|
Term
| If a 8 year old pt has no record of Tetanus vaccinations, what is important to note about the first shot in their catch up series? |
|
Definition
| Since they are <10y/o you want to give them Tdap as their first shot in the series. |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes whooping cough? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 y/o pt presents with a hx of a runny nose, sneezing, and a low-grade fever for the last 2 weeks. But now she is having coughing spells in which she turns purple to red at the end and she sometimes vomits after the spells. What condition do you suspect? |
|
Definition
| Whooping Cough (Pertussis) |
|
|
Term
| Which vaccinations are LIVE viruses? |
|
Definition
| MMR, Rotavirus, Varicella |
|
|
Term
| Can MMR be given to a pregnant women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the schedule for MMR? |
|
Definition
1st = 12 - 15 mo
2nd = 4 - 6 y/o |
|
|
Term
| Can you give a pt MMR before they are 12mo old? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When can the second dose of MMR be given? |
|
Definition
| given anytime 4 weeks after 1st dose |
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as an acute, contagious viral dz consisting of painful swelling of the salivary glands, MC the parotid glands and post-pubertal males may have accompanying orchitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MC complication of Mumps in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum interval between each dose of Hib? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is a child 'too old' to receive a Hib vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal schedule for Hib vaccination? |
|
Definition
1st = 2 mon
2nd = 4 mon
3rd = 6 mon
4th = 12 - 15 mon |
|
|
Term
| If a child is between the ages of 15 - 59 mon, and have not had their Hib vaccinations, how many doses do they need? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Hib protect against? |
|
Definition
| Haemophilus influenzae type B; Used to be the LEADING cause of bacterial meningitis in children < 5y/o prior to the vaccine, also causes pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of Pneumococcal Vaccines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pneumococcal vaccine is used for children? What ages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what ages is the PPV vaccine not effective? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the PPV vaccine recommended for adults? When is it recommended for children? |
|
Definition
Adults > 64y/o, HIV pts and immunocompromised adults
High-risk children > 2y.o (Asplenia, Sickle Cell dz) |
|
|
Term
| When is the normal PCV schedule? |
|
Definition
1st = 2 mon
2nd = 4 mon
3rd = 6 mon
Booster = 12 - 15 mon |
|
|
Term
| What is pneumococcal vaccine used to prevent? |
|
Definition
| Used to prevent SEVERE pneumococcal pneumonia |
|
|
Term
| What does a newborn infant whose mother is Hep B pos need as a prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does a newborn infant whose mother is Hep B status is unknown need as a prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
| Hep B vaccine, test the mother and give HBIg within 7 days of delivery if mom is pos |
|
|
Term
| What does a PRE-TERM infant whose mother is Hep B status unknown need as a prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the routine schedule for Hep B? |
|
Definition
1st = Birth
2nd = 1 - 2 mon
3rd = 6 - 18 mon |
|
|
Term
| What is the Adolescent dosing for Hep B vaccination if the pt is between 11 and 15 and have never had a Hep B vaccination? |
|
Definition
| Use Recombivax give 1st dose then 2nd dose 4 - 6 mon later |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum spacing of the Hep B vaccine? |
|
Definition
1st and 2nd dose = 4 week in between
2nd and 3rd dose = 8 weeks in between (at least 16 weeks after 1st dose; infant MUST be at least 24y/o before giving 3rd dose) |
|
|
Term
| What is the adult schedule for hep B? |
|
Definition
1st dose
2nd dose = 4 weeks later
3rd dose = 8 weeks later (at least 16 weeks between 1st and 3rd dose) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pts are post-vaccination serologic testing recommended? |
|
Definition
Infants born to HBsAG + women
Sex Partners of chronic HBV infection
Certain Healthcare personnel
Immunodeficient Persons
Hemodialysis Pts
Hemodialysis Pts |
|
|
Term
| If healthcare personnel is exposed to blood and possibly HBV, when should you get a titer? |
|
Definition
| 1 - 2 months after 3 month shot series |
|
|
Term
| When is Hep A vaccination administered? What is the schedule? |
|
Definition
| Given between 12mon and 24 mon; given at least 6 mon apart |
|
|
Term
| Can Hep A vaccine be given to pts who have previously been infected with Hep A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCC of nonspecific febrile illness with abrupt onset and no prodrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of exanthems in children in summer and fall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After one dose of IPV is there immunity? After 2 doses? After 3 doses? |
|
Definition
Little Immunity after 1 dose
90% immunity after 2 doses
99% immunity after 3 doses |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal schedule for IPV? |
|
Definition
1st = 2 mon
2nd = 4 mon
3rd = 6 - 18 mon
4th = 4 - 6 y/o |
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|
Term
| What are the mandatory intervals between the IPV doses? How early can the 4th dose of IPV be given? |
|
Definition
| 4 weeks; 4th dose can be given as early as 18 w/o |
|
|
Term
| When should Polio vaccination of adult be considered? |
|
Definition
| Only if adults are traveling to Polio endemic areas |
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Term
| Pt presents with vesicular tender lesions varying in size from 3 - 7 mm occurring on tongue and dorsal surfaces of hands and feet. What condition do you suspect? What is it caused by? |
|
Definition
| Hand, foot and mouth dz; Cocksackie Virus A16 |
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|
Term
| What is the MC place that Herpangina sores are located? |
|
Definition
| Anterior Tonsillar Pillars |
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Term
| Which condition is characterized by fever and vesicular lesions in the mouth surrounded by an erythematous ring that varies in size and is found on the anterior tonsillar pillars, soft palate, uvula, tonsils, posterior pharyngeal wall, and other surfaces in the mouth, child may also c/o HA, backache and vomiting? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which condition has a rash that is characterized by erythematous papules that develop into clear-filled vesicles, then lesions become umbilicated then become crusted and fall off (as a side note the rash is intensely pruritic? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the Varicella rash begin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is characterized by vesicular lesions in different stages of evolution in the same area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Varicella Zoster? |
|
Definition
Acyclovir
Treat pruritis with calamine or oatmeal baths |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria are the MC pathogens for causing superinfections in Varicella Zoster? |
|
Definition
Grp A Beta Hemolytic
Staph and Strep |
|
|
Term
| What is the schedule for the Varicella vaccination? |
|
Definition
1st dose = 12 to 15 mon
2nd dose = 4 to 6 yrs |
|
|
Term
| Can the Varicella vaccine be given to pregnant women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Zostavax used to prevent? Who gets this vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Used for prevention or decreased severity of Varicella Zoster reactivation (Shingles); Given to pts >60y/o |
|
|
Term
| When is the highest incidence of RSV seen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the schedule for rotavirus vaccine? What is the MOD? |
|
Definition
1st = 2mon
2nd = 4 mon
3rd = 6mon
Oral Route |
|
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Term
| What is the earliest age you can give the rotavirus vaccine? What is the latest age you can initiate the series? At what age is the child too old to receive the rotavirus vaccine? |
|
Definition
Earliest = 6 wks
Latest Initiation of Series = 15 weeks
Oldest Age = 8 weeks |
|
|
Term
| What is the MC cause of diarrhea in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MC type of Rotavirus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for rotavirus? |
|
Definition
HYDRATION
Managing symptoms (V/D and fever) |
|
|
Term
| In what ages can HPV vaccine be given? Can you give to pts within this age group who are already sexually active? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the general age that HPV is given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the general spacing schedule for HPV vaccination series? What is the MINIMUM intervals for this series? |
|
Definition
0, 2m, 6m spacing
1st and 2nd = 4 weeks
2nd and 3rd = 12 wks
Between 1st and 3rd = Minimum 24 weeks |
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|
Term
| In what ages is the Meningicoccal vaccine licensed for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should the Meningicoccal vaccine be given to 2 - 10 y/o? |
|
Definition
Child with Asplenia and complement def
Pts in outbreak zone or area where N. Meninigitidis is endemic |
|
|
Term
| What age is meningicoccal vaccine generally recommended for? How many doses should be given? |
|
Definition
| 11 - 18 y/o; given 1 dose |
|
|
Term
| What med should be avoided in children with fever? Why? |
|
Definition
| ASA; b/c can cause Reye syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is the general vaccine schedule for the flu vaccination? |
|
Definition
| 6 mo old, then every year thereafter |
|
|
Term
| Who needs 2 doses of the flu vaccine? |
|
Definition
| Give 2 dose to first-time vaccines age 6mo-8yo (separated by 28 days) |
|
|
Term
| Which vaccines cannot be given to pts with egg allergies? |
|
Definition
| Varicella and Flu vaccines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pregnant women
Pts with CV or Pulmonary Dz
Pts with CAD
Pts with asthma |
|
|
Term
| What component of the vaccines was the concern for causing autism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What virus may cause a BLANCHING, erythematous maculopapular generalized rash that may have accompanying sx of rhinitis, nonpurulent CONJUNCTIVITIS, PHARYNGITIS, and pre-auricular lymphadenopathy as well as low-grade fever and malaise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are forchheimer spots? What dz are they associated with? What day are they seen? |
|
Definition
| small reddish spots on the soft palate; Associated with Rubella; Day 1 |
|
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Term
| Which condition has an exanthem that begins on the face and SPREADS from Head to Rear (Cephalocaudally) an is described as discrete, pinkish red, fine maculopapular eruption? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the pathognomic exanthem described as tiny bluish white dots surrounded by red halos that appear on the bucchal mucosa? What dz are they associated with? |
|
Definition
Koplik Spots
Associated with Rubeola ("Ordinary Measles") |
|
|
Term
| Which type of measles exanthem spreads from the head to the tail (Cephalocaudally) and will eventually involve the palms and soles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of measles can be transmitted to the baby in the womb? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what time frame can the MMR vaccine be given to a pt who was exposed to Rubeola to prevent the illness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogen responsible for Roseola Infantum? What age group of children does it affect? |
|
Definition
| HH6 (Human Herpes Virus 6); affects infants 6 - 36mon |
|
|
Term
| Which condition affecting infants begins with sx including an abrupt rise in temp, anorexia and irritability that is followed by an erythematous, maculopapular exanthem that BEGINS on the TRUNK and spread to the face, neck, and extremities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogen responsible for Erythema Infectiosum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition begins with LARGE, bright red erythematous patches on both of the CHEEKS that are non-tender, macular and with circumscribed borders that fade and are followed by slightly raised LACY erythematous rash on the EXTENSOR surfaces of the extremities, then on the flexor surfaces, buttocks and trunk? |
|
Definition
| Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth's Dz) |
|
|
Term
| What can be a complication of E Infectiosum in a pt with sickle cell dz? |
|
Definition
| May cause aplastic crisis |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes Mono? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt presents with on going fatigue for 1 week, low grade fever, lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. What condition would you suspect? What test would confirm the dx? |
|
Definition
| Mono; positive Heterophile antibody response |
|
|
Term
| What HEENT finding is common (found in 50% of pts) in children who have MONO? What other HEENT sx are important to note? |
|
Definition
| Eyelid Edema; Tonsilar swelling, erythematous parynx that may have exudates |
|
|
Term
| What condition has characteristic small yellow oral ulcerations with red halos? |
|
Definition
| Herpetic Gingivostomatitis |
|
|
Term
| Is ocular herpes benign? Explain? |
|
Definition
| Ocular herpes may involve only the lids and periorbital skin but can spread to deeper structures, with devastating results. |
|
|
Term
| Which condition has a hallmark of dermatomal distribution of lesions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes Lyme dz? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What exanthem is common with Lyme dz? |
|
Definition
| Erythema migrans; large erythematous plaque which has central clearing |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for Lyme dz in children < 8 y/o? What is the tx for children >8y/o? |
|
Definition
| amoxicillin or cefuroxime (Ceftin); Amoxicillin (for children > 8 ) |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does the rash associated with Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever Begin? What ocular findings accompany this rash? |
|
Definition
| Begins distally on the wrists, ankles, palms and soles ; conjunctival erythema and photophobia |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
| Doxycycline (Vibramycin) BID until 3 days after the fever subsides |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes folliculitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes Impetigo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition has characteristic lesions described as "honey" colored crusts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MCC of Ecthyma? Where is it most often found? How does it differ from Impetigo? |
|
Definition
| Grp A Beta Hemolytic Strep; Found in tropical areas; Lesions are more painful, crusts are harder, thicker and more adherent than Impetigo |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of a Paronychia? |
|
Definition
| Staph/Strep from traumatized hangnail |
|
|
Term
| What is the causative pathogen of a Furucle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a furuncle? |
|
Definition
| Bactrim, Clinda, Rifampin |
|
|
Term
| What pathogen is responsible for cat-scratch fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic is given to tx cat-scratch fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the MC pathogens of Osteomyelitis? What about in sickle cell pts? What about MC in puncture wounds of the foot? |
|
Definition
| S. aureus and B hemolytic Strep; In SC pt Salmonella is MC; In puncture wounds Pseudomonas |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of septic arthritis in 90% of the cases? What is the tx for septic arthritis? |
|
Definition
| PNA or Meningitis; Tx is IV Antibiotic |
|
|
Term
| What is the leading cause of heart dz in children? What is the underlying cause? |
|
Definition
| Kawasaki's dz; AI disease |
|
|
Term
| Pt presents with persistent fever for five days at 104F, bright red cracked lips, red mucous membranes in mouth, extremely bloodshot eyes, red palms and soles of the feet that are swollen and tender, skin rash on the trunk of the body, peeling skin in the genital region, on the hands and feet, andswollen cervical lymphnode. What condition do you suspect? What is the tx? |
|
Definition
| Kawasaki's dz; IV gammaglobulin |
|
|
Term
| In what condition are purplish hyperpigmented plaques and nodules are characteristic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what condition is there a sandpaper-like tender exanthem and perioral fissures that are weeping? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should the PPD test be read? What is a pos test in pts w/out risk factors? What is a pos test in members of high-incidence pop? What is a pos test in HIV pts? |
|
Definition
| 48 - 72 hrs; 15mm; 10mm; 5mm |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for Hiradenitis Suppurativa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What four criteria distinguish muscular dystophy from all other neuromuscular diseases? |
|
Definition
1- Has a genetic basis
2- Primarily affects the muscles
3- Progressive worsening of sx
4 - Degeneration and death of muscle fibers occur at some stage |
|
|
Term
| What is the MC hereditary neuromuscular dz? |
|
Definition
| Duchenne muscular dystrophy |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between Duchenne and Becker MD? |
|
Definition
| Becker is a milder and more protracted (lasts longer) course; learning disabilities are less frequent, can walk into late adolescence; death occurs in mid to late 20s |
|
|
Term
| What is Gower's sign? What is this a clinical sign of? When is this sign seen? |
|
Definition
Getting up from the ground by widening legs and walking hands back towards them; Sign of MD; Seen at around age 3
Clinical sign of MD |
|
|
Term
| What type of gait is associated with MD? When is this seen? |
|
Definition
| Trendelenburg gait; seen at age 5 or 6 |
|
|
Term
| By what age are the MD kids most likely confined to a wheel chair? |
|
Definition
| 7 y/o or with lots of physical therapy, bracing and minor surgeries they may make it until 12y/o |
|
|
Term
| What is the generally age of death in Duchenne's MD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lab test is significantly elevated in MD? What is the diagnostic test for MD? |
|
Definition
| Serum CK extremely elevated; Muscle biopsy is diagnostic |
|
|
Term
| Which type of MD is the 2nd MC? |
|
Definition
| Myotonic MD aka Steinert Dz |
|
|
Term
| Which type of MD is characterized by inverted V-shaped upper lip, thin cheeks, scalloped concave temporalis muscle (general facial wasting and hypotonia are early signs)? |
|
Definition
| Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy |
|
|
Term
| When do the initial signs and symptoms of Limb-girdle MD usually occur, distinguishing it from other forms? |
|
Definition
| Initially occur after middle or late childhood |
|
|
Term
| In what form of MD is cardiac and respiratory involvement significant as well as impaired intellect and seizure activity present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Limb-girdle MD affect the cardiovascular system or the intellect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form of dystrophy shows the earliest and most severe weakness of the face and shoulder girdle and has characteristics facial features including puckered lips, inability to close eyes when sleeping, and extraocular muscle weakness but generally spares the tongue? |
|
Definition
| Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy (FSH) |
|
|
Term
| In which type of MD is scapular winging prominent, even in infancy? |
|
Definition
| Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy (FSH) |
|
|
Term
| Which MD has severe findings at birth including thin muscle mass, contractures, diffuse hypotonia, poor head control, and hypoactive or absent tendon stretch reflexes? |
|
Definition
| Congenital Muscle Dystrophy |
|
|
Term
| What is the MC c/o Tuberous Sclerosis? 2nd MC complaint? |
|
Definition
| Seizures; Cutaneous Lesions |
|
|
Term
| Pt presents with a plaque of thickened skin with a cobblestone appearance on the dorsal aspect of the trunk. What is this called? What could this be a clinical sign of? |
|
Definition
| Shagreen Patch aka Ash leaf; Linked to Tuberous Sclerosis (one of the common cutaneous manifestations) |
|
|
Term
| Which condition is associated with six or more cafe-au-lait spots, axillary or inguinal freckling, lisch nodules (iris hamartomas), optic gliomas, neurofibromas and distinctive osseous lesions? |
|
Definition
| NF-1 aka vonRecklinghausen disease |
|
|
Term
| Which condition has characteristic findings including presenile lens opacities, impaired hearing or hearing loss, tinnitus, unsteadiness and facial weakness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is associated with a significant increase in the risk of CP in normal birth weight infants? |
|
Definition
| Intrauterine exposure to maternal infection |
|
|
Term
| Which disease has early signs including poor sucking/ feeding, decreased passive tone with brisk DTRs without concomitant weakness, and motor delays? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the criteria of diagnosis of CP? |
|
Definition
P = Posturing and abnl movements
O = Oropharyngeal problems
S = Strabismus
T = Tone (Increased or Decreased)
E = Evolutional responses
R = Reflexes Increased |
|
|
Term
| What is the MC type of CP? |
|
Definition
| Spastic - tense, contracted muscles |
|
|
Term
| Which condition is characterized by a port-wine stain on the face, located over the cutaneous distribution of the opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, a high incidence of mental retardation and ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomatosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizures affect one area of the brain, in one hemisphere? |
|
Definition
| Partial (Focal) Seizures aka Jacksonian Seizures |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference btwn simple partial and complex partial seizures? |
|
Definition
| consciousness retained in simple partial seizures |
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizure affects both sides of the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizure is described as sudden loss of consciousnes lasting 10 seconds in which the pt may have rapid eye blinking and does not lose muscle tone? |
|
Definition
| Absence (Petit Mal) Seizures |
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizures are characterized by a sudden shock like contraction of a muscle? |
|
Definition
| Myoclonic generalized seizure |
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizure is characterized by increased tone or rigidity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizure consists of rhythmic muscle contraction and relaxation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizure may begin with a scream or “epileptic cry” f/b stiffening of limbs, a fall and cyanosis then after 60-90 secs, will begin an extremity jerk, then will have a postictal period (deep sleep)? |
|
Definition
| Tonic Clonic Seizure (Grand Mal) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of seizure is characterized by flaccidity or by lack of movement during a convulsion resulting in falls and injuries? |
|
Definition
| Atonic seizures (drop attacks) |
|
|
Term
| In which type of seizure is clothes picking common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which type of seizure in which the pt remains conscious and they have asynchromous clonic or tonic mvments that tend to involve the face, neck or extremities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can abrupt w/d of seizure meds lead to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as occurring in infants and is characterized by brief contractions of the neck, trunk and extremities (can be either flexion or extension)? |
|
Definition
| West Syndrome (Infantile Spasms) |
|
|
Term
| What syndrome is described as a life-long epileptic encephalopathy that manifests with atonic seizures, tonic seizures, and atypical absence seizures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do infantile spasms often transform into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What differentiates Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome from benign absence epilepsy? |
|
Definition
| The slow spike and wave activity on the EEG |
|
|
Term
| What is the MC seizure d/o in childhood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the MCC of febrile seizures? |
|
Definition
| Fever assoc w/Viral infections from URIs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ethosuximide and Valproic Acid |
|
|
Term
| Tx for Myoclonic Epilepsy? |
|
Definition
| Valproate, lamotrigine, topiramate, or levetiracetam |
|
|
Term
| Tx for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures? |
|
Definition
DOC for epilepsy- Valproate
Phenytoin |
|
|
Term
| Tx for simple partial seizure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tx of Complex partial seizures? |
|
Definition
| Valproate, Phenytoin, Carbamazapine |
|
|
Term
| Pt present with c/o of re-occurring HA lasting for apprximately 1 hr at a time. During HA pain is described as unilateral and throbbing. HA is associated with N/V, closing of the eyes and dark circles under the pts eyes. Before the HA the child is irritable and becomes withdrawn. What type of HA is your dx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MC type of aura accompanying migraine HA? |
|
Definition
| Visual Auras (ex - blurry vision, scotomata, scintillations, kaleidoscope patterns) |
|
|
Term
| Which type of migraine with aura has accompanying ataxia, tinnitus, hyperascusia, paresthesias and visual disturbances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the OTC tx options for Migraines? |
|
Definition
Acetaminophen (10 - 15 mg/kg/dose)
Ibuprofen (10mg/kg/dose)
Naproxen Sodium -Aleve (5 mg/kg) |
|
|
Term
| What are some prescription meds used to treat migraines in children? |
|
Definition
Almotriptan
Sumatriptan
Zolmitriptan
Rizatriptan |
|
|
Term
| What is the prophylactic dose for bacterial endocarditis for a child? What if pt has PCN allergies? |
|
Definition
| Amoxicillin 50mg/kg; Clindamycin 20mg/kg |
|
|
Term
| What are the major criteria for the Jones criteria? |
|
Definition
Polyarthritis
Carditis
Chorea (Syndenham Dz)
Erythema Marginatum
Subcutaneous Nodules |
|
|
Term
| What are the minor criteria for the Jones criteria? |
|
Definition
Fever
Arthralgia
Previous Rheumatic fever
Elevated Acute Phase Reactants
Increased ESR or CRP
Leukocytosis
Prolonged P-R interval on EKG |
|
|
Term
| Which acquired heart condition is seldom seen in children? |
|
Definition
| Restrictive Cardiomyopathy |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for Rheumatic heart dz? |
|
Definition
| Penicillin to eradicate B-hemolytic strep |
|
|
Term
| Tx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| B-blocker, Ca-Channel blocker |
|
|
Term
| Tx for dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| tx for restrictive cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| Dopamine, Dobutamine, Digoxin |
|
|
Term
| tx for cardiac tamponade? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which benign murmur is present in 3 - 6 y/o, occasionally is in infants and is heard at the LMSB or btw LLSB & apex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which benign murmur is common in 8 - 14 y/o and is heard as a blowing murmur on the LUSB? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary Ejection Murmur |
|
|
Term
| Which benign murmur is heard in premature and full-term infants and disappears at 3 - 6 mon and is heard at the LUSB, axilla and back? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which benign murmur is heard in 3 - 6y/o and is heard in the supra and infra clavicular regions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What benign murmur can be heard at any age and is located above the right clavicular region? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pathogen causes scarlet fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MC viral cause of pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the oppenheimer technique? How is it done? |
|
Definition
| A replacement technique for the babinski reflex as it gives a more interpretable response; running the thumb down the medial surface of the tibia |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of retinal lesions seen in tuberous sclerosis? |
|
Definition
| Mulberry Tumor Nodular and Hamartomas (phakomas) |
|
|
Term
| What retinal lesion is described as astrocytoma of the retina on or about the optic nerve head? What condition is it associated with? |
|
Definition
| Mulberry Tumor Nodular; Assoc with tuberous sclerosis |
|
|
Term
| What type of retinal lesion is described as Round or oval gray-yellow glial flat patches found centrally or peripherally? What condition are they associated with? |
|
Definition
| Hamartomas; asoc with tuberous sclerosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum w/u for a febrile seizure? |
|
Definition
fasting glucose
calcium
magnesium
serum electrolyte levels |
|
|
Term
| Which type of cerebral palsy is described as Dysfunction of the LEs with normal or limited UE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of cerebral palsy is described as Dysfunction of both the UEs and LEs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of CP is described as Upper extremities more greatly affected than LEs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of CP is described as Involuntary mvmts noted after 1 year of age, Hypotonic and normoreflexive, and Delayed motor milestones? |
|
Definition
| Athetoid or Ataxic Cerebral Palsy |
|
|
Term
| Which type of CP is described as Severe motor and intellectual disability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition is described as a birth defect in which one or more of the vertebrae fail to form properly in the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What is the MC type of spina bifida? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of spinda bifida is described as no sac or protrusion of spinal cord, Failure of one vertebra in the lower back to fuse properly and is associated with skin changes including dimple, hairy patch or birthmark? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the MC type of overt spina bifida? |
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Definition
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Term
| What condition is described as spinal cord stays within spinal canal, but meningeal sac protrudes through the opening in the vertebrae but are nevertheless well covered by skin? |
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Definition
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Term
| What condition is described as the sac or cyst includes not just the coverings of the spinal cord but also the cord’s nerve roots, and often the cord itself, bulging out and often not covered by skin? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the MC cause of spina bifida? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the DOC for treating bacterial pneumonia? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the MC presenting symptom of a pt with CF? |
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Definition
| Acute or persistent respiratory symptoms |
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Term
| How is Epidermolytic Hyperkeratosis treated? |
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Definition
| keratolytics, lubricants, oral retinoids, & antibiotics for secondary infections |
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Term
| What condition has thick warty scales with occasional blistering and skin lesions that are more prominent on the flexural surfaces? |
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Definition
| Epidermolytic Hyperkeratosis |
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Term
| Patient is highly involved in sports. He complains of itchiness and scaling of the feet. What is your diagnosis? |
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Definition
| Juvenile Plantar Dermatosis-“Sweaty Sock Syndrome |
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Term
| How do you treat lick licking Eczema? |
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Definition
Elidel and protopic ointment ( T-cell suppressor)
try to avoid steriods on facial skin because will cause hyper vascularization, striae, discoloration |
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Term
| What is the MC irritant in contact dermatitis? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you treat irritant contact dermatitis? |
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Definition
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Term
| How do you treat tinea versicolor? |
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Definition
| Topical antifungal or Oral Ketoconazole 1 time dose |
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Term
| What is the MC pathogen of diaper dermatitis? What is the tx? |
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Definition
| Candida; Tx is Nystatin cream |
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Term
| What is the most common cause of recurrent E multiforme lesions in children and adults? |
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Definition
| In children and adults recurrent EM is caused by Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection |
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Term
| Child complains of itchiness that worsens at night. The lesions are located in the intertriginous regions of the hands and feet. What is your dx and tx? |
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Definition
Scabies
Permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) |
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Term
| Child presents with complaints of an itchy scalp and nits. Other children in the classroom have the same complaints.What is your diagnosis and treatment? |
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Definition
| Head lice, Pediculicide (Permethric 1% or 5%)or Ovide |
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