Term
| How long can the brain survive without oxygen before permanent death of brain cells occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a major cause of preventable death in the prehospital setting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the approach all paramedics should take when dealing with airway management? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What consists of all the structures in the body that make up the airway and help us breathe, or ventilate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the movement of air into and out of the lung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the muscles responsible for the regular rise and fall of the chest that accompany normal breathing? |
|
Definition
| Diapharagm and Intercostal Muscles 712 |
|
|
Term
| What consists of all anatomic airway structures above the level of the vocal cord? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the body are the nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, and phaynx (throat)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is considered that point of division between the upper and lower airways? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major function of ____ are to warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the body through the nose and mouth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is composed of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (hypopharynx)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the lowest portion of the pharynx; it opens into the larynx anteriorly and the esophagus posteriorly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the nasal cavity and it is formed by the union of facil bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three bony shelves that protrude from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and extend into the nasal passageway, parallel to the nasal floor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the nasopharynx divided into by two passages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a rigid partition composed of the ethmoid and vomer bones and cartilage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What prevents contaminants from entering the respiratory tract and act as tributaries for fluid to and from the eustachian tubes and tear ducts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are referred to as the frontal and maxillary sinuses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is CSF drainage from the nose? |
|
Definition
| Cerebrospinal Rhinorrhea 713 |
|
|
Term
| What is CSF drainage from the ears? |
|
Definition
| Cerebrospinal Otorrhea 713 |
|
|
Term
| What forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the entry of fluids or solids into the trachea, bronchi, and lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tongue attached to? |
|
Definition
| Mandible and Hyoid Bone 714 |
|
|
Term
| Bone that is a small, horseshoe-shaped bone to which the jaw, epiglottis, tongue, and thyroid cartilage attach to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of anatomic upper airway obstruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What forms the roof of the mouth and seperates the oropharynx and nasopharynx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is formed by the maxilla and palatine bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the posterior border of the oral cavity and is an extension of the soft palate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a soft-tissue structure that resembles a punching bag, extends into the palatoglossal arch at the base of the tongue in the posterior aspect of the oral cavity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the entrance to the throat, or pharynx? |
|
Definition
| Palatopharyngeal Arch 714 |
|
|
Term
| What are paired structures that lie just behind the walls of the palatoglossal arch, anterior to the palatopharyngeal arch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What else is the pharyngeal tonsils called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is located on the posterior nasopharyngeal wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What tonsils are located at the base of the tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the lower airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a complex structure formed by many independent cartilaginous structures and it marks where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a sheild-shaped structure formed by two plates that join in a "V" shaped anteriorly to form the laryngeal prominence known as the Adam's apple? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lies inferiorly to the thyroid cartilage; it forms the lowest portion of the larynx? |
|
Definition
| Cricoid Cartilage or Cricoid Ring 715 |
|
|
Term
| What is the first ring of the trachea and the only upper airway structure that forms a complete ring? |
|
Definition
| Cricoid Cartilage or Cricoid Ring 715 |
|
|
Term
| What is located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage and is a site for the cricothyrotomy procedure? |
|
Definition
| Cricothyroid Membrane 715 |
|
|
Term
| What is the space between the vocal cords and the narrowest portion of the adult airway? |
|
Definition
| Glottis or Glottic Opening 715 |
|
|
Term
| What are the lateral borders of the glottis and consist of white bands of tough tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leaf-shaped cartilaginous flap that prevents food and liquid from entering the glottis during swallowing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the epiglottis attached to the thyroid cartilage by? |
|
Definition
| Thyroepiglottic Ligament 715 |
|
|
Term
| What is the epiglottis attached to the the base of the tongue by? |
|
Definition
| Glossoepiglottic Ligament 715 |
|
|
Term
| What is the epiglottis attached to the hyoid bone by? |
|
Definition
| Hyoepiglottic Ligament 715 |
|
|
Term
| What is the anatomic space, or "pocket," located between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are at the inferior border of the glottic opening and appear as bumps just below the glottis? |
|
Definition
| Corniculate and Cuneiform Cartilage 716 |
|
|
Term
| What are pyramidlike cartaginous structures that form the posterior attachment of the vocal cords; they are valuable guides for ET intubation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is sometimes called the voice box? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two pockets of tissue on the lateral borders of the larynx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a spasmodic closure of the vocal cords, which seals off the airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the conduit for air entry into the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a tubular structure that is approximately 10-12 cm long and consists of a series of C-shaped cartilagious rings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What begins immediately below the cricoid cartilage and descends anteriorly down the midline of the neck and chest to the level of the 5th or 6th thoracic vertebra in the mediastinum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the space between the lungs that contains the trachea, the heart, great vessels, and a portion of the esophagus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What divides the trachea into left and right mainstem brochi, which is located approximately at the level of the sternal angle of Louis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the main branches of the trachea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of mucous-producing cell are the trachea and mainstem bronchi lined with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are cells that secrete a sticky lining that traps small particles and other potential contaminants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What move back and forth to sweep foreign materila out of the airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When stimulated it results in bronchodilation. |
|
Definition
| Beta-2 Adrenergic Receptors 716 |
|
|
Term
| What lines the trachea and mainstem brochi? |
|
Definition
| Goblet Cells, Cilia, and Beta-2 Adrenergic Receptors 716 |
|
|
Term
| What do all the blood vessels and the bronchi enter each lung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In total how much air can the lungs hold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many lobes does the right lung have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many lobes does the left lung have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the thin, slippery outer membrane that covers the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What lines the inside of the thoracic cavity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are made of smooth muscle and lined with Beta-2 adrenergic receptors, can dilate or constrict in response to various stimuli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ballonlike clusters of single-layer air sacs where the functional site for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The alveoli are lined with a phospholipid compound call _____, which decreases surface tension on the alveolar walls and keeps them expanded. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a collapse of the alveoli called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What systems work together to ensure that a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients is delivered to every cell in the body and that carbon dioxide and other waste products are removed from every cell? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory and Cardiovascular 717 |
|
|
Term
| What is the process of moving air into and out of the lungs and is necessary for oxygenation and respiration? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary Ventilation 717 |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 phases of ventilation? |
|
Definition
| Inhalation and Exhalation 717 |
|
|
Term
| What is the active, muscular part of breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it called when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli and the tissues of the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the secondary muscles of breathing, and include the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles of the neck? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drawing of air into the lungs; air flow from a region of higher pressure (outside body) to a region of lower pressure (the lungs); occurs during normal unassisted breathing. |
|
Definition
| Negative-Pressure Ventilation 718-719 |
|
|
Term
| What is the forcing of air into the lungs? |
|
Definition
| Possitive-Pressure Ventilation 719 |
|
|
Term
| What states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a term that is used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in liquid, such as the blood and is governed by Henry's law? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What states that the amount of gas in a solution varies directly with the partial pressure of a gas over a solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air residing in the alveoli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Volume of inhaled air that reaches the alveoli and participates in gas exchange; equal to tidal volume minus dead space volume and is approximately 350 mL in an average adult. |
|
Definition
| Alveolar Volume or Alveolar Ventilation 719 |
|
|
Term
| What is a measure of the depth of breathing and is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the respiratory tract during one breath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal tidal volume for a healthy adult? |
|
Definition
| 5-7 mL/kg (about 500mL) 719 |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal tidal volume for infant and children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the portion of the tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and, therefore, does not participate in gas exchange? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What contains air that remains in the mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles, which can add up to approximately 150 mL in a healthy man? |
|
Definition
| Anatomic Dead Space 719-720 |
|
|
Term
| What are additional dead spaces created by intrapulmonary obstructions or atelectasis? |
|
Definition
| Physiologic Dead Space 720 |
|
|
Term
| What is the amount of air moved through the respiratory tract, including the anatomic dead space, in 1 minute, and is calculated by multiplying the tidal volume and respiratory rate? |
|
Definition
| Minute Volume or Minute Ventilation 720 |
|
|
Term
| What is a more precise measurement and represents the actual volume of air that reaches the alveoli and participates in pulmonary gas exchange each minute? |
|
Definition
| Alveolar Minute Volume 720 |
|
|
Term
| What can be calculated by subtracting the dead space volume from the tidal volume, then multiplying that number by the respiratory rate? |
|
Definition
| Alveolar Minute Volume 720 |
|
|
Term
| What is the number of times a person breathes in 1 minute? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a term related to inspiration and is the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume; it is normally about 3000 mL in a healthy adult? |
|
Definition
| Inspiratory Reserve Volume 720 |
|
|
Term
| Following an optimal inspiration, the amount of air that can be forced from the lungs in one exhalation is called the ______. |
|
Definition
| Functional Reserve Volume 720 |
|
|
Term
| The amount of air that can be exhaled following normal (relaxed) exhalation is called the _____. |
|
Definition
| Expiratory Reserve Volume 720 |
|
|
Term
| How much is the normal expiratory reserve volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a full inhalation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the vital capacity in a healthy adult man? |
|
Definition
| Approximately 4800 mL 720 |
|
|
Term
| What is the vital capactiy plus the residual volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the total lung capacity in a healthy man? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does not normally require muscular effort; therefore, it is a passive process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A protective mechanism that terminates inhalation, thus preventing overexpansion of the lungs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it called when the diaphragm and intercostal muscle relax, which increases intrapulmonary pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary involuntary respiratory center? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ controls the rate, depth, and rhythm (regularity) of breathing in a negative feedback interaction with the pons. |
|
Definition
| Medulla Respiratory Centers 720 |
|
|
Term
| What is the secondary control center if the medulla fails to initiate breathing? |
|
Definition
| Apneustic Center of the Pons 720 |
|
|
Term
| ____ influences the respiratory rate by increasing the number of inspirations per minute. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sense organs that monitor the levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and the pH of the CSF and blood and provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any give time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are the chemoreceptors that affect respiratory function located? |
|
Definition
| Carotid Bodies, Aortic Arch, and Central Chemoreceptors 721 |
|
|
Term
| Where are the chemoreceptors that measure the amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood located? |
|
Definition
| Carotid Bodies and Aortic Arch 721 |
|
|
Term
| Chemoreceptors sense tiny changes in the carbon dioxide level and send signals to the respiratory center via the _______ and _______. |
|
Definition
| Glossopharyngeal (9) and Vagus Nerve (10) 721 |
|
|
Term
| What is responsible for initiating inspiration based on the information received from the chemoreceptors? |
|
Definition
| Dorsal Respiratory Group 721 |
|
|
Term
| What is primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles? |
|
Definition
| Ventral Respiratory Group 721 |
|
|
Term
| The normal stimulus to breathe; based on fluctuations in Paco2 and pH of the CSF. |
|
Definition
| Primary Respiratory Drive 721 |
|
|
Term
| Secondary control of breathing that stimulates breathing based on decreased arterial oxygen levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should never be withheld from any patient who needs it? |
|
Definition
| High Concentration of Oxygen 722 |
|
|
Term
| What is a powerful stimulus to breathe and would result in increased respirations in an effort to bring more oxygen into the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What increases respirations as a compensatory response t promote the elimination of excess acids produced by the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the percentage of oxygen in inhaled air? |
|
Definition
| Fraction of Inspired Oxygen 722 |
|
|
Term
| What is a protein that is necessary for life, is an ironcontaining molecule that has a great affinity for oxygen molecules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Approximately how much of the protein in a red blood cell is hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is proportional to the amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma component of the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the chemical processes that provide the cells with energy from nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, allows the body a regular means of providing the cells with oxygen and disposing of waste. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ______ is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries? |
|
Definition
| External Respirations (Pulmonary Respiration) 723 |
|
|
Term
| How much oxygen, under normal circumstance, do the hemoglobin receptors contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of oxygen does exhaled air contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the systemic circulation and the cells of the body is called _____. |
|
Definition
| Internal Respirations 724 |
|
|
Term
| In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convery glucose into energy through a process called ______. |
|
Definition
| Aerobic Metabolism (Aerobic Respirations) 724 |
|
|
Term
| Without adequate oxygen, the cells do not completely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid and other toxings accumulate in the cell. |
|
Definition
| Anaerobic Metabolism (Anaerobic Respirations) 724 |
|
|
Term
| What is a dangerous condition in which the tissues and cells do not receive enough oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the early signs of hypoxia? |
|
Definition
| Restlessness, Irritablitiy, Apprehension, Tachycardia, and Anxiety. 726 |
|
|
Term
| What is shortness of breath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the late signs of hypoxia? |
|
Definition
| Mental Status Change, Weak (Thready) Pulse, and Cyanosis 726 |
|
|
Term
| An imbalance in the amount of oxygen received in the alveoli and the amount of blood flowing through the alveolar capillaries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal resting minute volume in most people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the resting alveolar volume in most people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions such as infection, allergic reactions, and unresponsiveness (possibly leading to airway obstruction by the tongue) can significantly restrict the ability to maintain a patent airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes degeneration of muscle fibers, slowing motor development, and loss of muscle contractility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a viral disoder that can affect the nerves, including those that regulate ventilation, and result in paralysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an airway obstruction due to swelling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors affecting pulmonary ventilation can include trauma and foreign body airway obstruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it called when a patient purposely breathes shallowly in an attempt to alleviate the pain caused by the injury? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory Splinting 727 |
|
|
Term
| What is a condition in which a decreased amount of air enters the alveoli; CO2 production exceeds the body's ability to eliminate it by ventilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a condition in which an increased amount of air enters the alevoli; CO2 elimination exceeds CO2 production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a lower amount of carbon dioxide in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carbon monoxide (CO) has a much greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen, how much more? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the attachment of CO molecules to the hemoglobin molecules form? |
|
Definition
| Carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) 727 |
|
|
Term
| What could inhibit the proper transport of oxygen to the tissues and can cause false pulse oximetry reading? |
|
Definition
| Carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) 727 |
|
|
Term
| What is the blood entering the lungs from the right side of the heart bypassing the alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state? |
|
Definition
| Intrapulmonary Shunting 727 |
|
|
Term
| What is an abnormal decrease in blood volume, because bleeding, that causes inadequate oxygen delivery to the body? |
|
Definition
| Hemorrhagic Shock (form of Hypovolemic Shock) 728 |
|
|
Term
| What is not caused by a decrease in blood volume, but by an increase in the size of the blood vessels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pressure gradient against which the heart must pump? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pressure of the blood that is returned to the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause disruptions in the acid-base balance in the body that may lead to rapid deterioration in a patient's condition and death? |
|
Definition
| Hypo/Hyperventilation and Hypoxia 728 |
|
|
Term
| What is the tendency toward stability in the body's internal environment and requires a balance between the acids and bases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term adventitious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a blue or purple skin color and is a clear indicator of a low blood oxygen content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is positional dyspnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it when the skin is pulling between and around the ribs during inhalation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is it when one side of the chest moves less than the other and indicates that airflow into one lung is decreased? |
|
Definition
| Asymmetric Chest Wall Movement 729 |
|
|
Term
| What is defined as a low level of oxygen in arterial blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a lack of oxygen that results in tissue and cellular death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory rate for an adult. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory rate for children. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Respiratory rate for an infant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is suspended from the hyoid bone by the thyroid ligament and is directly anterior to the glottic opening. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For most people, the drive to breathe is based on ____ changes in the blood and CSF. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Central chemoreceptors,which monitor pH of the CSF, are located adjacent to the respiratory center in the ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The chemoreceptors that measure the amout of carbon dioxide in arterial blood are located in the _________. |
|
Definition
| Carotid Bodies and Aortic Arch 721 |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary control of ventilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of patient will usually have an hypoxic drive? |
|
Definition
| End-Stage COPD Patients 721 |
|
|
Term
| Energy in the form of ATP is produced through a series of processes known as the ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
| Kreb Cycle and Oxidative Phosphorylation 724 |
|
|
Term
| What is lactid acid the by-product of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are neuromuscular blocking agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Evaluation of a patient with a respiratory complaint include? |
|
Definition
| Visual Observations, Palpation, and Auscultation 729 |
|
|
Term
| What is shortness of breath while lying down or positional dyspnea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Appears to be working hard to breathe. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What requires effort and may involve the use of accessory muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What include the sternocleidomastoid muscles (neck muscles), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the inward movement of a segment of the chest during inhalation and outward movement of the chest during exhalation, opposite normal chest movement and an indication of a flail chest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a clinical finding in which the systolic blood pressure drops more than 10 mm Hg during inhalation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a spastic pharyngeal and esophageal reflex caused by stimulation of the posterior pharynx to prevent foreign bodies from entering the trachea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a fairly reliable indicator of the presence or absence of an intact gag reflex in an unresponsive patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a slow, deep inhalation followed by a prolonged and sometimes quite audible exhalation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many times does the average person sigh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a sudden inhalation, due to spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm,cut shor by closure of the glottis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What serves no physiologic purpose and if persistent may be clinically significant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gradually increasing rate and depth of respirations followed by a gradual decrease of respirations with intermittent periods of apnea; associated with brainstem insult. |
|
Definition
| Cheyne-Stokes Respirations 731 |
|
|
Term
| Deep, rapid respirations; seen in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. |
|
Definition
| Kussmaul Respirations 731 |
|
|
Term
| Irregular pattern, rate, and depth of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea; results from increased ICP. |
|
Definition
| Biot (Ataxic) Respirations 731 |
|
|
Term
| Prolonged, gasping inhalation followed by extremely short, ineffective exhalation; associated with brainstem insult. |
|
Definition
| Apneustic Respirations 731 |
|
|
Term
| Slow, shallow, irregular, or occasional gasping breaths; results from cerebral anoxia. May be seen when the heart has stopped but the brain continues to send signals to the muscles of respiration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are heard by placing the stethoscope over the trachea or over the sternum? |
|
Definition
| Tracheal Breath Sounds (Bronchial Breath Sounds) 731 |
|
|
Term
| What are you accessing tracheal breath sounds for? |
|
Definition
| Duration, Pitch, and Intesity 731 |
|
|
Term
| What are softer, muffled sounds and have been described as wind blowing through the trees and the expiratory phase is barely audible? |
|
Definition
| Vesicular Breath Sounds 731 |
|
|
Term
| What is a combination of the tracheal and vesicular breath sounds; heard where airways and alveoli are found, the upper part of the sternum and between the scapulas? |
|
Definition
| Bronchovesiular Sounds 731 |
|
|
Term
| What is an expression for comparing the length of inspiration with the length of expiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does adventitious mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a continuous sound as air flows through a constriced lower airway and is a high-pitched sound that may be heard on inspiration, expiration, or both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are continuous sounds, although they are low pitched; they indicate mucus or fluid in the larger lower airways (pulmonary edema and bronchitis)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occur when airflow causes mucus or fluid in the airways to move in the smaller lower airways? Tend to clear with coughing. |
|
Definition
| Crackles (Formly Rales) 732 |
|
|
Term
| What may also be heard when collapsed airways or alveoli pop open and produce discontinuous sounds and may occur early or late in the inspiratory cycle? |
|
Definition
| Crackles (Formly Rales) 732 |
|
|
Term
| What results from foreign body aspiration, infection, swelling, disease, or trauma within or immediately above the glottic opening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What produces a loud, high-pitched sound that is typically heard during the inspiration phase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What results from inflammation that causes the pleura to thicken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a simple, rapid, safe, and noninvasive method of measuring, minute by minute, how well a person's hemoglobin is saturated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What measures the amount of hemoglobin (Hb) in the arterial blood that is saturated with oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A normally oxygenated, normally perfused patient should have an SPO2 of greather than ____ while breathing room air. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an SPO2 reading of less than 95% in a nonsmoker suggest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of hemoglobin normally found? |
|
Definition
| Oxyhemoglobin (Hbo2) and Reducded Hemoglobin 734 |
|
|
Term
| What is hemoglobin that is occupied by oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is hemoglobin after the oxygen has been released to the cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What a compound formed by oxidation of the iron on the hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| Methemoglobin (metHb) 734 |
|
|
Term
| What is hemoglobin loaded with carbon monoxide (CO)? |
|
Definition
| Carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) 734 |
|
|
Term
| What is an approximation of the extent of bronchoconstriction; used to determine whether therapy is effective? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the peak expiratory flow rate of a healthy adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What detects the presence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air and are important adjuncts for determining ventilation adequacy? |
|
Definition
| End-Tidal CO2 (ETCO2) Monitors 735 |
|
|
Term
| ETCO2 is approximately how much lower than arterial PaCO2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is ETCO2 detector a reliable and essential method for confirming and monitoring advanced airway placement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides quantitative information, in real time, by displaying a numeric reading of exhaled carbon dioxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides a graphic representation of exhaled carbon dioxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides quantitative, real-time information regarding the patient's exhaled carbon dioxide level and displays graphic waveform on the portable cardiac monitor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A portable cardiac monitor that provide a numeric reading and a waveform reading of carbon dioxide. |
|
Definition
| Digital/Waveform Capnography 736 |
|
|
Term
| What provides qualitative information regarding the presence of carbon dioxide in the patient's exhaled breath? |
|
Definition
| Colorimetric Capnographer 736 |
|
|
Term
| How many breaths will it take to turn the colormetric capnographer from purple to yellow? |
|
Definition
| 6-8 Positive-Pressure Breaths 736 |
|
|
Term
| It should be noted that the colorimetric capnographer is a _____ device and shoud be used during initial confirmation of ET tube placement and replaced as soon as possible with a quantitative device. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a good option for suctioning the pharynx in adults and the perferred device for infants and children? |
|
Definition
| Yankauer or Tonsil-Tip Catheter 740 |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for the Yankauer catheter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is another name for the French catheter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Soft plastic, nonrigid catheters and can be placed in the oropharynx, nasopharynx, or ET tube. |
|
Definition
| French or Whistle-Tip Catheter 740 |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum suction time for an adult, children, and infant? |
|
Definition
| 15 sec, 10 sec, and 5 sec 741 |
|
|
Term
| How do you measure a patient for suction catheter? |
|
Definition
| Corner of mouth to earlobe 741 |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the nasal airways? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the inability to speak? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is difficulty speaking? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What results in spasmodic closure of the vocal cords, completely occluding the airway? |
|
Definition
| Laryngeal Spasm (Laryngospasm) 748 |
|
|
Term
| What can cause laryngeal spasms? |
|
Definition
| Intubation trauma and Immediately on Extubation 748 |
|
|
Term
| What causes the glottic opening to become extremely narrow or totally closed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause laryngeal edema? |
|
Definition
| Epiglottis, Anaphylaxis, or Inhalation Injury (Upper Airway Burns). 748 |
|
|
Term
| What is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn into the lungs during negative-pressure ventilation or pushed into the lungs during positive-pressure ventilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is visualization of the airway with a laryngoscope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much oxygen is in a D cylinder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much oxygen is in a M cylinder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an indication that it is unsafe to use that oxygen cylinder? |
|
Definition
| Safe Residual Pressure 750 |
|
|
Term
| When should you replace you oxygen cylinder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is oxygen cooled to its aqueous state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do not store oxygen cylinders above what temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A device that attaches to the stem of the oxygen cylinder and reduces the high pressure of gas to a safe range of about 50 psi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are usually permanently attached to the therapy regulator, allow the oxygen deliverd to the patient to be adjusted within a range of 1-25 L/min? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of flowmeters? |
|
Definition
| Pressure-Compensated Flowmeter and Bourdon-Gauge Flowmeter 752 |
|
|
Term
| What incorporates a float ball within a tapered calibrated tube; this float rises or falls based on the gas flow in the tube? |
|
Definition
| Pressure-Compensated Flowmeter 752 |
|
|
Term
| What is not affected by gravity and can be place in any position. This pressure gauge is calibrated to record the flow rate? |
|
Definition
| Bourdon-Gauge Flowmeter 752 |
|
|
Term
| What should be used if nasal cannula is to be used for a prolong period to prevent mucosa drying and irritation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nasal Cannula flow rate and O2 delivery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| NRBM flow rate and O2 delivery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BVM with reservoir flow rate and O2 delivery. |
|
Definition
| 15 L/min and Nearly 100% 755 |
|
|
Term
| Mouth-to-mask device flow rate and O2 delivery. |
|
Definition
| 15 L/min and Nearly 55% 755 |
|
|
Term
| Parial rebreathing mask flow rate and O2 delivery. |
|
Definition
| 6-10 L/min and 35-60% 755 |
|
|
Term
| What draws room air into the mask along with the oxygen flow, allowing for the administration of highly specific oxygen concentrations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depending on the adapter, what percentage of oxygen can the venturi mask flow? |
|
Definition
| 24%, 28%, 35%, or 40% 755 |
|
|
Term
| What is amoung the most important skills in EMS at any level? |
|
Definition
| Artificial Ventilations 756 |
|
|
Term
| What is the skill of providing assisted ventilation to a patient who is breathing spontaneously, or by ventilating a patient who is not breathing at all? |
|
Definition
| Artificial Ventilations 756 |
|
|
Term
| How much gas does the adult reservoir bag on the BVM contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much gas does the pediatric reservoir bag on the BVM contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much gas does the infant reservoir bag on the BVM contain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Volum of air (O2) to deliver to the patient is based on one key observation _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 negative effects of breath that are too forceful? |
|
Definition
| Gastric Distention and Decreased Venous Return to the Heart (Prelaod) 760 |
|
|
Term
| What is the formula to set tidal volume on the Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress? |
|
Definition
| Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) 763 |
|
|
Term
| What increases pressure in the lungs, opens collapsed alveoli and prevents further alveolar collapse (atelectasis), pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane, and forces interstitial fluid back into the pulmonary circulation? |
|
Definition
| Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) 763 |
|
|
Term
| Mechanical maintenance of pressure in the airway at the end of expiration to increase the volume of gas remaining in the lungs. |
|
Definition
| Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) 764 |
|
|
Term
| How long will a D cylinder last with CPAP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most CPAP devices are set to deliver a fixed FIO2 of _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A tube that is inserted into the stomach to remove its contents. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What involves insertin a gastric tube into the stomach adn removing the contents with suction? |
|
Definition
| Invasive Gastric Decompression 766 |
|
|
Term
| Tube remaining in the esophagus without entering the stomach. |
|
Definition
| Supragastric Placement 766 |
|
|
Term
| What is a procedure in which the stomach is decontaminated following a toxic ingestion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a surgical opening into the trachea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a surgical procedure in which the larynx is removed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an orifice that connects the trachea to the outside air and located in the midline of the anterior part of the neck? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a surgical removal of the entire larynx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the max suction time when suctioning a stoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma) and it requires a 15/22-mm adapter to be compatible with ventilatory devices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is potenially life-threatening because of soft-tissue swelling decreases the stoma's diameter and impairs the patient's ventilatory abiltiy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many airways in the prehospital setting are considered difficult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Look Externally 775
Evaluate 3-3-2
Mallampati
Obstruction
Neck Mobility |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to mouth opening 775 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Length from tip of chin to hyoid bone 775 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Distance from hyoid bone to thyroid notch 775 |
|
|
Term
| A system for predicting the relative difficulty of intubation based on the amount of oropharyngeal structures visible in an upright, seated patient who is fully able to open his mouth. |
|
Definition
| Mallampati Classification 775 |
|
|
Term
| Class I Mallampti classification. |
|
Definition
| Entire posterior pharynx is fully exposed. 776 |
|
|
Term
| Class II Mallampti classification. |
|
Definition
| Posterior pharynx is partially open 776 |
|
|
Term
| Class III Mallampti classification. |
|
Definition
| Posterior pharynx cannot be seen; base of uvula is exposed 776 |
|
|
Term
| Class IV Mallampti classification. |
|
Definition
| No posterior pharyngeal structures cn be seen 776 |
|
|
Term
| What is defined as passing an ET tube through the glottic opening adn sealing the tube with a cuff inflated against the tracheal wall? |
|
Definition
| Endotracheal Intubation 776 |
|
|
Term
| What enables ventilation to occur even if the tip of the ET tube becomes occluded by blood, mucus, or the traceal wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the inside size of the ET tubes range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the ET tubes range for in length? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are ET tubes 5-9 mm equipped with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What size ET will a woman usually require? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What size ET will a man usually require? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What size ET will a pediatric usually require? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some ways to measure the patient for an ET tube size? |
|
Definition
| Internal Diameter of the Nostril, Diameter of the Little Finger, or Size of Thumbnail 777 |
|
|
Term
| What is a procedure in which the vocal cords are directly visualized for placement of the ET tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What laryngoscope blade is perferred in children because they have a long floppy epiglottis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the space between the epiglottis and the base of the tongue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long should you ventilate a patient before an intubation attempt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 axes of the airway? |
|
Definition
| Mouth, Pharynx, and Larynx 780 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Backward 783
Upward
Rightward
Pressure |
|
|
Term
| What is performed by locating the lower third of the thyroid cartilage and applying pressure back, up, and to the right? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is not stopping ventilations to deliver chest compressions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the ventilation rate of an apneic adult with a pulse? |
|
Definition
| 10-12 Breaths/Min (1 breath every 5-6 seconds) 784 |
|
|
Term
| What is the ventilation rate of an apneic infant or child with a pulse? |
|
Definition
| 12-20 Breaths/Min (1 breath every 3-5 seconds) 784 |
|
|
Term
| What is the ventilation rate in any patient in cardiac arrest? |
|
Definition
| 8-10 Breaths/Min (1 breath every 6-8 seconds) 784 |
|
|
Term
| It is a bulb or syringe with a 15/22 mm adaptor to confirm placement of the ET tube. |
|
Definition
| Esophageal Detector Device 784 |
|
|
Term
| What is the average depth for an adult entubation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main contraindication for nasotracheal intubation? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory or Cardiac Arrest 786 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common complication associated with nasotraceal intubation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is slighty more flexible than a standard ET tube and is equipped with a "trigger" that is attached to a piece of line, which is itself attached to the tip of the tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the nasotracheal tube most likely if there is a soft-tissue bulge on either side of the airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ involves directly palpating the glottic structures and elevating the epiglottis with your middle finger while guiding the ET tube into the trachea by using the sense of touch. |
|
Definition
| Digital Intubation (Blind or Tactile Intubation) 791 |
|
|
Term
| What is the major complication of the ET tube placement by digital intubation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a device that emits a bright, well circumscribed light that is visible on the outside of the trachea and the external soft tissue that overlies it? |
|
Definition
| Transillumination Intubation 794 |
|
|
Term
| What is the main complication with transillumination intubation? |
|
Definition
| Esophagus Misplacement 797 |
|
|
Term
| Once a bright, tightly circumscribed light is visible at the midline and just below the thyroid cartilage, hold the stylet in place and advance the tube approximately ____ into the trachea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A technique in which a wire is placed through the trachea and into the mouth with a neddle via the cricoid membrane; the ET tube is then placed over the wire guieded into the trachea. |
|
Definition
| Retrograde Intubation 798 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Performing intubation at the same level as the patient's face; used when the standard position is not possible. Laryngoscope is held in the provider's right hand and the ET tube in the left. |
|
Definition
| Face-to-Face Intubation (Tomahawk) 801 |
|
|
Term
| What is the estimated failed intubation rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ involves passing a suction catheter into the ET tube to remove pulmonary secretions. |
|
Definition
| Tracheobronchial Suctioning 803 |
|
|
Term
| What is the first rule in Tracheobroncial suctioning? |
|
Definition
| Do Not Do It if You Dont Have To! 803 |
|
|
Term
| How much sterile water down the ET tube before suctioning through the tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long should the blade be in pediatric intubation? |
|
Definition
| Mouth to Tragus of the Ear 805 |
|
|
Term
| What can be used to estimate the size of ET tube needed for a pediatric intubation? |
|
Definition
| Nares, Nail of Litte Finger, and Length-Base Resuscitation Tape 805 |
|
|
Term
| Cuffed ET tubes are not generally used in the field until the child is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Endotracheal tubes smaller than ____ generally do not have a cuff. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the appropriate depth of insertion of the ET tube in a pediatric? |
|
Definition
| 2-3 cm Beyond the Vocal Cords 806 |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric population? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory Failure or Arrest 806 |
|
|
Term
| What may be administered to a pediatric to prevent vagal nerve induced bradycardia due to parasympathetic stimulation? |
|
Definition
| Atrophine Sulfate .02 mg/kg 807 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Displacement 807
Obstruction
Pneumothorax
Equipment Failure |
|
|
Term
| The adult colorimetric ETCO2 detector cannot be used in children weighing less than _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The esophageal bulb or syringe cannot be used in children weighing less than _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ is used in airway management to reduce a patient's anxiety, induce amnesia, and decrease the gag reflex. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are complications of sedation? |
|
Definition
| Undersedation and Oversedation 810 |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary contraindication of a sedation drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 major classes of sedatives that are commonly used? |
|
Definition
| Analgesics and Sedative-Hypnotics 810 |
|
|
Term
| What sedative decreases the perception of pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sedative induces sleep and decreases anxiety; does not reduce pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ are potent, effective sedatives. Include haloperidol (haldol) and droperidol (inapsine). Commonly used in emergency situations for anxiolysis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the relief of anxeity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are sedative-hypnotic drugs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Includes Diazepam (Valium) and midazolam (Versed). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs provide muscle relaxation and mild sedation and are used extensively as anxiolytic and antiseizure medications? |
|
Definition
| Diazepam (Valium) and Midazolam (Versed) 810 |
|
|
Term
| An inability to remember events after the onset of amnesia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are potential side effects of benzodiazepines? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory Depression and Slight Hypotension 810 |
|
|
Term
| What is a benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the effects of diazepam and midazolam? |
|
Definition
| Flumazenil (Romazicon) 810 |
|
|
Term
| Includes Thiopental (Pentothal, Trapanal) and Methohexital (Brevital). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___ are sedative-hypnotic medications that have a long history of use. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is short acting and causes a rapid onset of profound sedation. |
|
Definition
| Thiopental (Pentothal, Trapanal) 811 |
|
|
Term
| ____ is ultra-short acting and twice as potent as thiopental. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Barbiturates can cause significant respiratory depression and a drop in blood pressure of ______ in normovolemic patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ are potent analgesics with sedative properties. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ are used in emergency airway management as a premedication, during induction, and in maintenance of sedation or amnesia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two most commonly used narcotics for airway management? |
|
Definition
| Fentanyl (Sublimaze) and Alfentanil (Alfenta) 811 |
|
|
Term
| What is a narcotic antagonist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is a nonnarcotic, nonbarbiturate hypnotic-sedative drug often used in the induction of general anesthesia. It is fast-acting agent of short duration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ can make an ordinarily docile person combative, aggresive, belligerent, and uncooperative, resulting in a difficult and potentially dangerous situation-for the patient and paramedics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is clenching of the patient's teeth due to spasm of the jaw muscles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a neuromuscular blocking agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After recieving an IV dose of a paralytic, how long before patient becomes totally paralyzed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent? |
|
Definition
| Succinylcholine Chloride (Anecitne) 812 |
|
|
Term
| Brief, uncoordinated twitching of small muscle groups in the face, neck, trunk, and extremities; may be seen after the administration of succinylcholine. |
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Definition
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Term
| ____ competitively binds with the ACh receptor sites but is not affected as quickly by acetylcholinsterase. |
|
Definition
| Depolaring Neuromuscular Blocker 812 |
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Term
| What is the defasciculating dose for a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most common nondepolarizings neuromuscular blocking agents? |
|
Definition
| Vecuronium Bromide (Norcuron), Pancuronium Bromide (Pavulon), and Rocuronium Bromide (Zemuron) 812 |
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Term
| ____ has a rapid onset of action (2 min) and a duration of action of about 45 minutes. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ has a rapid onset of action < (2 min) and a duration of action of 45-60 minutes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ also has a rapid onset of action (3-5 min) and a duration of action of 1 hour. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| A specific set of procedures, combined in rapid succession, to induce sedation and paralysis and intubate a patient quickly. |
|
Definition
| Rapid-Sequence Intubation (RSI) 812 |
|
|
Term
| What should be administered with succinylcholine if time permits? |
|
Definition
| Defasciculating Dose (10% of Normal Dose) and Atropine Sulfate |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 types of multilumen airways? |
|
Definition
| Combitube and Pharyngotrachel Lumen 814 |
|
|
Term
| What is the proximal balloon suppose to be filled to on the combitube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the distal balloon suppose to be filled to on the combitube? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| A device that surrounds the opening of the larynx with an inflatable silicone cuff positioned in the hypopharynx; an alternative to BVM. |
|
Definition
| Laryngeal Mark Airway (LMA) 817 |
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|
Term
| What are are obese, pregnant, and patient with hiatal hernia at an increased risk for when using a LMA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main disadvantage of the LMA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is a latex-free, single-use, single-lumen airway that is blindly inserted into the esophagus and can be used to provide positive-pressure ventilation to apneic patients and maintain a patent airway in spontaneously breathing patients who require advanced airway management. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of King LT airways? |
|
Definition
| King LT-D and King LTS-D 820 |
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|
Term
| A supraglottic airway device with a shape that allows the device to slide easily along the hard palate and to hold the soft tissue away from the laryngeal inlet. |
|
Definition
| Cobra Perilaryngeal Airway (CobraPLA) 821 |
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Term
| ___ uses a needle and guide wire or guide catheter for tube placement in blood vessels or other hollow organs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ occurs when air infiltrates the subcutaneous (fatty) layers of the skin and is characterized by "crackling" sensation when palpated. |
|
Definition
| Subcutaneous Emphysema 826 |
|
|
Term
| A method used in conjuction with neddle cricothyrotomy to ventilate a patient; requires a high-pressure jet ventilator. |
|
Definition
| Translaryngeal Catheter Ventilation 828 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| After the pop is felt while doing a neddle cricothryrotomy how far should you insert it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary control of ventilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens if the levels of the hormone insulin decrease in the body? |
|
Definition
| Cellular uptake of glucose will decrease 727 |
|
|
Term
| What is a deficiency of red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is one or two word dyspnea? |
|
Definition
| Staccato speech pattern 729 |
|
|
Term
| What is known as the respiratory baseline,is the intitial stage of exhalation, and is dead space gas free of carbon dioxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a mixture of alveolar gas with dead space gas, resulting in an abrupt rise in carbon dioxide levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is called the expiratory upslope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the expiratory or alveolar plateau? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximal ETCO2 level and is the best reflection of the alveolar carbon dioxide level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is fresh gas introduced down the inspiratory downstroke? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often should oxygen tanks be hydorstat tested? |
|
Definition
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