Term
|
Definition
| To attain the goal of a healthy and fit force, all airmen should be perceived as |
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Term
|
Definition
| A healthy and fit force increases resiliency to overcome |
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Term
|
Definition
| In health services management, who has the intermediate level of leadership? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Promoting the health, safety, and morale of Air Force people is best described as a part of the USAF Medical Service’s |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following values best describes the act of completing a job skillfully to the best of one’s ability? |
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Term
|
Definition
| How many general goals have been established to help reach the USAF Medical Service vision? |
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Term
| Director, USAF Medical Readiness and Nursing Services |
|
Definition
| Who directly serves as an advisor and principal to consultant to the AF Surgeon General on all matters pertaining to the nurse corps? |
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Term
|
Definition
| How many approved flights are in the medical support squadron? |
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|
Term
| Medical operations squadron |
|
Definition
| Aerospace medical service technicians normally are assigned to the |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which figure in an AFSC identifies career grouping? |
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Term
|
Definition
| At which skill level would an individual be responsible for conducting disaster training, fire drills, and evacuation procedures? |
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Term
| Justify budget and manning allotments |
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Definition
| Accurate Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System (MEPRS) data is important to |
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Term
|
Definition
| What is the primary document used to reflect the positions authorized to accomplish the mission? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Who is responsible to ensure all Air Force personnel have a safe and healthy work environment? |
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Term
|
Definition
| One of the most common sources of accidents in the hospital is |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which expendable item loses its identity when used, cannot be reused for the same purpose, or is not durable enough to last one year? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Equipment-medical has a life expectancy of |
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Term
|
Definition
| A list of equipment items authorized for use by a section is called |
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Term
|
Definition
| Discrepancies noticed on the monthly activity issue/turn-in summary should be promptly reported to the |
|
|
Term
| Validate that items on the list are still needed |
|
Definition
| What should custodians do when a backorder report is received? |
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Term
| An annual or more frequent basis |
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Definition
| Air Force training involving safety and policy issues often is mandated on |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following is the best example of a factor that is paramount to the success of a mission |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| Where can information pertaining to skill level training requirements be found in the CFETP? |
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Term
|
Definition
| A change to the mandated guidance pertaining to the six-part folder can only be changed by |
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Term
|
Definition
| Where are all AF Forms 623a, OJT Record Continuation Sheet, maintained in the six-part folder? |
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|
Term
| Rules and a standard of conduct |
|
Definition
| A code of ethics includes which of the following? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following defines nonmaleficence? |
|
|
Term
| Demonstrate care and professionalism |
|
Definition
| When a family member of a dying patient verbally targets his or her frustrations toward a technician, the technician should |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| A written plan that reflects the standard of care to follow in a specific situation is called |
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Term
|
Definition
| Visibility of a living will is possible in unexpected emergencies by ensuring a copy of the document is maintained |
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Term
|
Definition
| When talking to patients, which of the following is a barrier to effective communtion? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Providing a comfortable environment, allowing independent function, and establishing achievable healing process goals are measures that help |
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Term
|
Definition
| During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Prioritizing high-risk patients is the responsibility of which PCM team member? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual’s eligibility for medical care in DEERS? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which information system is responsible for capturing, editing, and maintaining sponsor/family demographics? |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which population health management principle is enrollee focused? |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Who is responsible for completing all diagnosis information for the KG-ADS? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Rest is included in which basic human need category? |
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Term
|
Definition
| A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age |
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Term
|
Definition
| The preschool stage of life begins at which age? |
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Term
|
Definition
| A risk factor for heart disease that cannot be controlled is |
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|
Term
| Blood pressure screenings |
|
Definition
| Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program? |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| What is the body’s most necessary nutrient? |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Bland diets are given to patients who have |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Which food is not permitted for a patient who is on a low fat diet? |
|
|
Term
| Refer to the patient’s concerns to the provider in a timely manner |
|
Definition
| When talking with a patient regarding personal concerns, it is important for the medic to |
|
|
Term
| Away from the midline of the body or body part |
|
Definition
| Which statement defines the anatomical term lateral? |
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Term
|
Definition
| A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes |
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Term
|
Definition
| Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow (as in the doing a curl with a weight) is an example of |
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Term
|
Definition
| Which prefix is used to make the gram smaller? |
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Term
|
Definition
| Five dL is the equivalent of |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Where is the greatest barometric pressure found? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| At what altitude is density of the atmosphere the greatest? |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| As altitude increases, barometric pressure will |
|
|
Term
| It explains the effects of altitude on the middle ear, sinuses and G.I. tract |
|
Definition
| The physiological significance of Boyle’s law is |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What gas law explains altitude-induced decompression sickness? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is the main contributing factor to in-flight noise? |
|
|
Term
| Increases with airspeed and decreases with altitude |
|
Definition
| The best description of in-flight noise is it |
|
|
Term
| Reduces the incidence of gas pains |
|
Definition
| Special diet control is important to many aircrew members because it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What causes an aircrew member’s circadian rhythm to be affected on a cross-country flight? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What does the “B” stand for in the “BICEPS” approach to treating patients suffering combat fatigue? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Extreme blood loss will lead to what type of hypoxia? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The cardiovascular and respiratory systems may compensate for hypoxia at altitudes up to how many feet? |
|
|
Term
| Increase, causing an excessive loss of carbon dioxide |
|
Definition
| Hyperventilation is best described as a condition in which respiratory rates |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which cause of hyperventilation is characterized by the reversing of your breathing cycle? |
|
|
Term
| Reducing the rate and depth of breathing |
|
Definition
| What is the most effective treatment for hyperventilation? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hypoxia is most frequently caused by |
|
|
Term
| Sudden reduction in pressure applied to the body |
|
Definition
| The initial condition leading to decompression sickness is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following is not a factor of decompression sickness? |
|
|
Term
| Shoulders, elbows, knees, and ankles |
|
Definition
| What are the usual sites for bends pain? |
|
|
Term
| Immediate descent to ground level |
|
Definition
| What is the best method for treating the chokes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What key symptom differentiates chokes and false chokes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The skin symptoms of decompression sickness, such as a skin rash, are believed to be caused by bubbles evolving |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What process can protect an aircrew member against decompression sickness? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is the best way to administer oxygen while treating decompression sickness? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is the maximum flying altitude for unpressurized aircraft when transporting a patient suffering decompression sickness? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In what direction are negative G forces applied? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In what direction are negative G forces applied? |
|
|
Term
| Hemorrhage within the eye |
|
Definition
| What presents the primary source of damage associated with negative G forces? |
|
|
Term
| Counter pressure below heart level |
|
Definition
| The anti-G suit increases the human tolerance of G forces by applying external |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the senses of orientation is considered to be reliable in flight? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A vestibular input of rotation in the opposite direction of the original rotation is characteristic of which sensory illusion? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Who owns the health record? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What must occur to ensure health records are maintained according to the Air Force and JCAHO standards? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Into how many sections is the outpatient record devided? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In which section of the outpatient record is every completed SF 600 filed? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which method of health record documentation is used to chronologically document the entire patient care process? |
|
|
Term
| Database, problem list, care plan, and progress notes |
|
Definition
| The various components of the POMR include |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| IMR status green means the IMR requirements are |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How often is the DNA lab test required and recorded in the PIMR data base? |
|
|
Term
| Preventative-based screening grid |
|
Definition
| The minimum recommended examinations that an individual needs are based on the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The final review of the PHA is accomplished by |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Care extender protocols are developed as an overprint by utilizing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How many general parts does a cell have? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The tubular system within the cell that transports molecules is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The first stage of mitosis is |
|
|
Term
| Continuation of cell growth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What type of tissue is the major component of glands? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What type of tissue can change its shape? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The third layer of the epidermis is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sebaceous glands are located in the |
|
|
Term
| Blood vessel constriction |
|
Definition
| Lower external temperatures result in |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A localized skin elevation that lasts less than 24 hours is a |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following conditions is caused by a parasite? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What percentage of body surface area is affected if an adult has burns on the chest and abdomen? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The term used to describe the joining of two or more bones is |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The epimysium is located beneath the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What type of joint joins the sternum and first rib? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Osteoarthritis is commonly seen in patients who are |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A break that extends straight across a bone is classified as what type of fracture? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which area is most likely to be affected by tendonitis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the |
|
|
Term
| Absence of antigen A and antigen B. Rh factor D is present |
|
Definition
| What are the characteristics of type O+ blood? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the |
|
|
Term
| Efferent lymphatic vessels |
|
Definition
| Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The largest lymphatic organ is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Lymph is transported through the lymphatic trunk directly to |
|
|
Term
| Lymphocytes and macrophages |
|
Definition
| What are the 2 infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A blood clot that breaks free and travels through the circulatory system until it becomes lodged in |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The pain associated with angina pectoris normally lasts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following is a symptom of cardiac tamponade? |
|
|
Term
| Size and extent of the injury |
|
Definition
| The seriousness of a puncture wound or laceration to the heart of blood vessels is dependent upon the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the Eustachian tubes is the |
|
|
Term
| 3 single and 3 paired cartilages |
|
Definition
| The larynx is composed of |
|
|
Term
| Forward and slightly upward |
|
Definition
| During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each natural respiration is known as |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Asperation of fluid into the lungs is most likely to cause |
|
|
Term
| 3 or more ribs fractured in at least 2 places |
|
Definition
| A flair chest is characterized by |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Tracheal deviation to the uninjured side of the chest is most likely a sign of |
|
|
Term
| Left lower quadrant (LLQ) of the abdominal cavity |
|
Definition
| The sigmoid colon is located in the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement substances through the canal is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What part of the alimentary canal is between the pharynx and the stomach? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Beneficial water is absorbed for use by the body by the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A patient who complains of having the sensation of incomplete bowel movement is exhibiting a symptom of |
|
|
Term
| An abdominal evisceration |
|
Definition
| If organs of the abdomen are protruding outside the body, the patient has |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is a common symptom of an esophageal perforation? |
|
|
Term
| Thoracic to the lumbar spinal region |
|
Definition
| Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The length of a ureter in an adult is approximately |
|
|
Term
| A flap of mucous membrane |
|
Definition
| Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An increased production of urine is known as |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The presence of stones in a kidney is known as |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is a common symptom of renal failure? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The testes are 2 oval-shaped structures that are made of |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The coiled tubule located on the top and side of each testis is the |
|
|
Term
| Secondary sex characteristic |
|
Definition
| Growth of body hair on a male is a |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| How many main parts does each ovary have? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The lower third of the uterus is called the |
|
|
Term
| An ovum is released from one of the ovaries |
|
Definition
| The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when |
|
|
Term
| 6 weeks to 6 months after infection |
|
Definition
| Secondary syphilis usually occurs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which untreated sexually transmitted disease can result in infections of the prostate and/or epididymis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An infection that usually spreads from the urinary tract or prostate gland to the epididymis is |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Painful menstruation is known as |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Abnormal growth of the uterine tissue outside of the uterus is indicative of |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The auditory ossicles is located in the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the |
|
|
Term
| Seven primary odors, or a combination of 2 of them |
|
Definition
| Odors are described as one of the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which condition is an infection of an eyelash follicle? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What condition results from increased pressure within the eye? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Twenty-five percent of all foreign body eye injuries affect the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Presbycusis is the loss of hearing attributed primarily to |
|
|
Term
| An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane |
|
Definition
| Rhinitis is best described as |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What nasal condition is considered to be a resulting complication of an upper respiratory infection? |
|
|
Term
| Anterior lobe and the posterior lobe |
|
Definition
| The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the |
|
|
Term
| Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted by the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which gland is shaped like a pyramid? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on blood sugar level? |
|
|
Term
| Portion of the pancreas that has an endocrine function |
|
Definition
| The Islets of Langerhans is the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pituitary tumors often directly affect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hyperparathyroidism is most common in |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Kussmaul’s respirations are a sign of |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Organisms that cause infection and disease are called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which term is used to describe the host’s ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which term is used to describe the measurement of the pathogenicity or ability of the organism to invade host tissues, withstand defenses and cause infection? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infectious agents, which are primitive one-celled, plant-liked organisms that reproduce rapidly are called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The classification of organisms responsible for the disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever is called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The classification of organisms known to cause the disease malaria is called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which infectious agent is considered parasitic? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What organism harbors or allows an agent to grow and reproduce? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The stage of infection when systemic and localized symptoms appear is called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Hepatitis is best defined as inflammation of the |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What communicable diseases are readily transmitted by casual contact and are difficult to control or prevent? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The Air Force uses the Enzyme-Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) and Western Blot tests to detect |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Report communicable diseases to which one of the following offices? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which one of the following offices is responsible for preparing a list of reportable diseases? |
|
|
Term
| Completing an AF Form 570, Notification of Patient’s Medical Status |
|
Definition
| A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which medical term means the freedom of infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which substance is used to reduce the number of microorganisms on living tissue? |
|
|
Term
| Protect patients, co-workers and self |
|
Definition
| Medical aseptic hand washing is done to |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Surgical aseptic hand washing is done to prevent infecting |
|
|
Term
| Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism’s known method of transmission |
|
Definition
| Why were transmission-based precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored negative air pressure? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in which of the following types of isolation? |
|
|
Term
| Put a gown, mask and gloves on the patient; alert personnel, then transport |
|
Definition
| What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department? |
|
|
Term
| Use the same precautions that you used when the patient was alive |
|
Definition
| Which guideline should you follow when providing postmortem care to a patient who was in isolation? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for isolation unit is the |
|
|
Term
| When doing a sterile procedure |
|
Definition
| When should sterile gloves rather than non-sterile gloves be worn when working with a patient in isolation? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which sterilization classification refers to instruments or objects introduced directly into the bloodstream? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which sterilization classification is applied to equipment used to perform a fiberoptic endoscope? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is the first step when preparing objects for sterilization? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What is the first step when preparing objects for sterilization? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| High-level disinfection will destroy all the following except |
|
|
Term
| Items in “peel-packed” wrapper |
|
Definition
| Under the time related (traditional) method, which locally sterilized package would have a shelf life of 6 months? |
|
|
Term
| When package integrity is compromised |
|
Definition
| What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which method of sterilization is preferable for items that are delicate? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| For what type of patients are rectal temperatures contraindicated? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When taking the rectal temperature of an adult patient, how far into the rectum should the thermometer be inserted? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which pulse point persists when stroke volume is low? |
|
|
Term
| Left side of the body, fourth of fifth intercostals space, midclavicular line |
|
Definition
| What is the anatomical location of the apex of the heart, which is used for auscultating the apical pulse? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which term is used to define difficult or painful breathing? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Slow or irregular shallow respiration called hypoventilation can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, which can result in a condition called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rapid, deep breathing, referred to as hyperventilation, depletes the carbon dioxide level in the blood and can result in a condition called |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Which breathing pattern is characterized by an increase in both depth and rate of respiration and is associated with metabolic acidosis and renal failure? |
|
|
Term
| Frothy, blood-tinged sputum |
|
Definition
| Which sign, associated with the respiratory system, would be an indication of pulmonary edema? |
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Term
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Definition
| When performing a health history, which factor would you suspect did not contribute to a patient’s hypertension? |
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Term
| Raising systolic, falling diastolic |
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Definition
| Which blood pressure reading would be noticeable if a patient has suffered trauma to the head? |
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Term
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Definition
| What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? |
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Term
| Increased intracranial pressure |
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Definition
| Neurological checks should be performed on a patient with suspected |
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Term
| Carbon monoxide poisoning |
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Definition
| A pulse oximetry machine can give a false high reading when a patient being tested is suffering from |
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Term
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Definition
| Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient’s oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below |
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Term
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Definition
| The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs during normal breathing is called |
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Term
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Definition
| When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the predicted FEV or FVC? |
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Term
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Definition
| When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, what is the minimum percentage standard for the FEV1/FVC ratio? |
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Term
| Smoked within the past hour |
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Definition
| Before administering the pulmonary function test, ensure the patient has not |
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Term
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Definition
| During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are |
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Term
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Definition
| Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate? |
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Term
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Definition
| Where do the electrical impulses terminate within the heart? |
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Term
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Definition
| Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate? |
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Term
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Definition
| Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called |
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Term
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Definition
| What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? |
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Term
| Left side of sternum, fourth intercostals space |
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Definition
| When you do an electrocardiogram, where do you place the V2 chest lead on the individual? |
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Term
| USAF Central electrocardiographic library |
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Definition
| If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the |
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Term
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Definition
| When converting pounds to kilograms, one kilogram is equal to how many pounds? |
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Term
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Definition
| When taking an individual’s measurements, standing height is recorded to the nearest |
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Term
| Flying training physicals |
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Definition
| A sitting height measurement is required on all |
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Term
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Definition
| An individual’s sitting height measurement is recorded to the nearest |
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Term
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Definition
| An individual’s weight measurement is recorded to the nearest |
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Term
| Distance around a body part |
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Definition
| What is a girth measurement? |
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Term
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Definition
| Which symbol is used when recording a temperature on an SF 511, Vital Sign Record? |
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Term
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Definition
| When performing a urine test, a sample with specific gravity of 1.030 suggests that a patient is experiencing |
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Term
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Definition
| How much fecal material is required to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen? |
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Term
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Definition
| Which site is not recommended for skin puncture to obtain a blood sample? |
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Term
| It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results |
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Definition
| During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away? |
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Term
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Definition
| The normal fasting blood glucose level is |
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Term
| Ensure the ulner artery can maintain a blood supply to the hand |
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Definition
| What is the purpose of performing an “Allen Test” before performing an arterial blood gas (ABG) test? |
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Term
| Rinse mouth with hot water |
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Definition
| What should you instruct a patient to do before coughing up a sputum culture? |
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Term
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Definition
| The rapid strep tests can only detect the presence of |
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