Term
| The probabilty that the test will be positive in the presence of disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelet count is also useful for: |
|
Definition
| Assessing a pt. with a bleeding disorder. |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of ABG is to differentiate __________ vs __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BUN/Creatnine Ratio of _____ is indicative of __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal BUN _____
Normal Creatnine _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normal value of Na+ (Sodium) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause excessive Na+ is __________ of IV fluids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of decreased Na+ is ________________ and excessive fluid loss conditions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 2 things increase K+ |
|
Definition
renal dysfunction
and
acidosis |
|
|
Term
| CK-MB is ________ specific and undetectable to ___U/L |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Liver enzymes generally no more than ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Avg. pediatric urine output |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Avg. neonatal urine output |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| High specific gravity is > ______, which indicates fluid loss , nephrosis and diabetes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PT of_____seconds is an indicator for coumadin therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PTT of _____seconds is an indicator for heparin therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Easiest method to break the circle of transmission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The probability that the test will be negative in the absence of disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____ is a bacterial organism, transmitted via ________ ________ and must be ________ by the host. |
|
Definition
TB
respiratory droplets
inhaled |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cough
night sweats
blood tinged sputum
chest pain
pleurisy
fever
anorexia
weight loss |
|
|
Term
| Hepatitis A is transmitted via which route? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hepatitis B is transmitted via ____________________ isolated in blood, saliva, semen and all mucous membranes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lung landmarks: Apex is _____cm above the inner third of the anterior clavicle and the base is ___th rib at the __________ line and ___th rib at __________ line. |
|
Definition
2-4cm
6th midclavicular
8th midaxillary |
|
|
Term
| Two factors important in the generation of breath sounds are distance from the source of the sound to the __________ affected by obesity and __________ including: consolidation, atelectasis and bronchiectasis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
long
short
continous
interrupted. |
|
|
Term
Ausculatory sites:
_____ intercostal space midclavicular
5th intercostal space _____________
_____ intercostal space __________ axillary |
|
Definition
2nd
midaxillary
7th
posterior |
|
|
Term
__________ sounds are abnormal:
wet vs. dry
bronchial vs. __________
resonance - diminished or absent __________
crackles, wheezes, ________, stridor and pleural friction rub. |
|
Definition
Adventitious
vesicular
intensity
rhonchi |
|
|
Term
| Consolidation is ______ or ______ filled spaces, commonly found with ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Perform ________ ________ assessment by palpation of the chest wall while patient is _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cheyne-Stokes respirations are caused by: |
|
Definition
* ^ICP
* CHF
* Renal failure
* meningitis
* drug overdose
|
|
|
Term
| Biot's (ataxic) breathing is caused by: |
|
Definition
* Meningitis
* CNS dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| Kussmal breathing is caused by: |
|
Definition
* Metabolic causes
* Renal Failure |
|
|
Term
| Apneustic caused by repiratory center ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Abnormalities of respiration: (5) |
|
Definition
* Respiratory depression
* Respiratory failure
* Respiratory insufficiency
* Respiratory arrest
* V/Q defect / mismatch |
|
|
Term
| Pulse oximeter false readings include: |
|
Definition
* CO Poisoning
* Temperature extremes
* Vasoconstriction
|
|
|
Term
| End tidal CO2 is attached to artificial airway device with color changes due to __________ reaction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complications of mechanical ventilation are: |
|
Definition
* Barotraumas
* Airway trauma
* atelectasis
* pneumothorax
* O2 toxicity
* Device dependence |
|
|
Term
| RSI preoxygenation should be performed a minimum of ___mins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ will cause chest wall muscle spasm if administered rapidly or in excessive amounts, dose is _____mcg/kg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ is only used in head injury patients with ^ICP, do not use in asthmatics, may cause bronchospasm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a. eyes, face, neck
b. extremities
c. abdomen
d. intercoastals, glottis
e. diaphragm |
|
|
Term
| Depolarizing agents substitute for _____ and ______ to receptors causing depolarization, muscle is unable to return to resting state and __________ is achieved. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Non-depolarizing agents block the uptake of _____ and _____ to the receptor but do not __________ __________, does not cause __________ and tend to last a long time. |
|
Definition
ACH
BIND
stimulate depolarization
fasciculation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1.0mg/kg
duration 5-10mins |
|
|
Term
| During transport of a sedated and paralyzed pt., indications that meds are wearing off are: |
|
Definition
*Tachycardia
*^BP
*Muscle movement |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a. IV, pulse oximeter, check equipment
b. preoxygenate
c. premedicate with lido and sedative
d. medicate
e. sellicks maneuver
f. intubate |
|
|
Term
Normal tidal volume = __________
Ventilate with _____ml/kg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sigh is ______ times the VT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Avg. Ventilator trigger sensitivity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ventilatory rate _____ bpm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PIP should be < than ___cm H20, but may be higher in the presence of _____ and obstructive diseases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ requires mechanical ventilation with PEEP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____________ should be set at 10-15 above PIP and the ____________ should be set at 10-15 below PIP. |
|
Definition
High-pressure alarm
Low-pressure alarm |
|
|
Term
| Ventilator set-up procedure: |
|
Definition
(1) FiO2
(2) Select mode of ventilation
(3) Set rate
(4) Set VT
(5) Set flowrate
(6) Connect ventilator
(7) PIP
(8) Set PEEP
(9) Set pressure alarms
(10) Patency of circuit and connections
(11) Monitor and document settings |
|
|
Term
| The signs and symptoms of O2 toxicity are: |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary infiltrates, VQ mismatch with decreased O2 transfer. |
|
|
Term
| When ventilating a head injury patient, you should maintain a PaCO2 of ________mmHg. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Immediately cover the opening of a displaced chest tube with ____________ and monitor for ____________. |
|
Definition
occlusive dressing
tension pneumothorax |
|
|
Term
| The criteria for assessing a chest tube site is to look for: |
|
Definition
*Intact dressing
*signs of infection
*insure tube is securely sutured
*Integrity of tube |
|
|
Term
| The amount of suction in a chest tube can be regulated by changing? |
|
Definition
| the amount of water in the water seal of the device or bottle. |
|
|
Term
| ________ ________ is only for the emergency relief of a tension pneumothorax. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tunneled catheters and porta caths are not to be used with a __________ __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| aVR, aVL, aVF (augmented) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The twelve lead ECG only uses ___ electrodes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By placing the electrodes on the chest, you can only monitor the rhythm. In order to assess axis, hemiblock, and BBB, you must have the leads on __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| V4R is placed on the ___th intercostal space right ____________. This is used for the discovery of _________________. |
|
Definition
5th
mid-clavicular
right ventricular MI. |
|
|
Term
| __________ __________ in the presence of an AMI means 4X greater mortality and indicates proximal occlusion of a ________ ________. |
|
Definition
Anterior hemiblock
coronary artery |
|
|
Term
| Lidocaine and __________ are contraindicated in the presence of a __________ ________. |
|
Definition
procainamide
bifasicular block |
|
|
Term
| You can determine a _____ in a 12lead ECG by V1 with a classic RSR prime. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ is a post-synaptic dopamine antagonist with high potency __________ which allows the patient to process incoming stimuli. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of action(s) of Butyrophonomes such as ________ and ________ block neuromuscular action at the postsynaptic receptor. ________ is achieved by decreasing binding of dopamine to receptor sites. |
|
Definition
Inapsine and Haldol
Sedation |
|
|
Term
| End points of procainamide |
|
Definition
(a) QRS widens by more than 50%
(b) Dysrrhythmia suppressed
(c) Max dosage of 17mg/kg
(d) Hypotension |
|
|
Term
| Adverse effects of Lidocaine |
|
Definition
(a)Parasthesis
(b)Slurred speech
(c)Altered LOC
(d)Muscle twitching
(e)Convulsions
(f)Arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
| Indications for decreased dose of Lidocaine (1/2) |
|
Definition
(a)Age >70
(b)Hepatic dysfunction
(c)CHF
(d)Concurrent medications, cimetidine (Tagamet), beta blockers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bizarre side effect of procainamide is |
|
Definition
| systemic lapis erythematosus. |
|
|
Term
| What do you know about Verapamil? |
|
Definition
(1)Atrial fibrillation, SVT with narrow complexes only
(b)Onset 3-5 mins IV
(c)Half-life 3-7 hrs
(d)dosing 2.5-5mg over 2mins.,no response, 5-10mg every 15-30 minutes up to 20mg.
(e)Give over 3 mins. in elderly or dehydrated pts. |
|
|
Term
| __________ ________ is when the diastolic BP is >120mmHg without the presence of ____________. Goal of therapy is to decrease BP over 24-48 hrs. |
|
Definition
Hypertensive urgency
end organ damage |
|
|
Term
| __________ is less potent than albuterol, available as inj.,P.O., mdi, bronchodilation with onset 5-30 mins. via IH and duration of 4-8 hrs, oral dosing not recommended for acute attacks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Absolute contraindications of Thrombolytic therapy: |
|
Definition
(a)Major surgery within 6wks.
(b)GI bleed within 6/mo.
(c)Intracranial neoplasm
(d)Stroke within 6/mo.
(e)Active bleeding
(f)Head trauma within a month
(g)pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| Relative contraindications of Thrombolytic therapy: |
|
Definition
(a)CPR >10 mins.
(b)Age >75
(c)HTN >180/110
(d)Remote Hx. of stroke |
|
|
Term
| Heparin monitoring parameter is a PTT of ______ times control. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coumadin monitoring parameter is INR of ______ and the antagonist is ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stimulation of Alpha 1 results in |
|
Definition
*Vasoconstriction
*^BP
*Decreased cardiac output |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dose x weight in kg x 60 / [concentration in mcg/ml] |
|
|
Term
| Dopamine low dose at 1-3mcg will ______________ via the __________ receptors. |
|
Definition
dilate renal arteries
dopaminergic |
|
|
Term
| Dopamine dosage greater than 15mcg will result in ________ ________, vasoconstriction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ is the drug of choice in cardiogenic shock with normal heart rates. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Crystalloids require _____ times more volume than __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________________ is used to restore clotting factors for patients with deficiencies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whole blood is used for patients with significant ____________ and ____________. |
|
Definition
| hypovolemia and blood loss. |
|
|
Term
| Packed RBC are indicated for symptomatic __________ and _____ blood loss. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Leveling for the Swan-Ganz is at the _____________, located at the ___th intercostal space ___________. |
|
Definition
phlebostatic axis
4th
mid-axillary. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ MI is the most lethal and __________ MI is the most common. |
|
Definition
Anterior-most lethal
Inferior-most common |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The QRS marks the beginning of _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients with an ICD should avoid: |
|
Definition
| hand-held metal detectors |
|
|
Term
| Haldol is simular to ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A test used to determine the presence of occult blood in the GI tract is the _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemolytic transfusions can occur as long as ___ days after transfusion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| __________ is an ACE inhibitor which has a side effect of cough, hypotension and angioedema. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Quinidine Pronestyl and Norpace |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name an example of a Class IB drug |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which antiarrhythmic is a Class II (beta blocker) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amiodarone and Bretylium are in what Class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amiodarone ________ AV node conduction and ________ function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adenosine is unclassified in the ____________ classification system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(a) Blocks fast sodium channels
(b) ^ QRS and QT
(c) Decreased automaticity
(d) Moderate effects on ERP and APD (end renal perfusion / atrial premature depolarization) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(a) Minimal effects on phase O and ERP
(b) Decreased APD and automaticity
(c) No changes in QRS or QT interval
|
|
|
Term
| Class II - Beta Blockers are: |
|
Definition
(a) Supraventricular and ventricular arrhytmias.
(b) Decreases conduction velocity and automaticity.
(c) ^ ERP and PR interval. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(a) ^APD and ERP
(b) ^PR, QRS, and QT intervals |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(a) ^ PR interval
(b) Decreased conduction velocity in SA and AV nodes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
*Cardiogenic shock
*Unstable angina
*Impending infarction
*LVF
*Sepsis
*Acute ischemia |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the IABP is to ________ coronary artery perfusion, ________ myocardial oxygen demand and ________ the workload of the left ventricle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Correct placement of the IABP catheter is at the level of the __________, 1-2cm distal to the __________, above the renal arteries, viewed on a chest film; the distal end will be seen at the ___ or ___ intercostal spaces. |
|
Definition
aortic arch
subclavian
2nd or 3rd |
|
|
Term
| ____________ should be monitored during transport to assure that the distal tip of the IABP has not migrated into the ____________ or occluded the __________. |
|
Definition
Left radial pulse
left subclavian
subclavian |
|
|
Term
| The normal and desired trigger is _______ on the ECG, and the back-up trigger is _______, used during CPR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Breath sound pitch or _________ is normally ______ and abnormally _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Breath sound intensity is determined by: (4) |
|
Definition
1)Air flow rate
2)Position of pt.
3)Consistency of flow
4)Ausculatory site |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1)Salicyate toxicity (ASA poisioning)
2)Lesions to respiratory center
3)Fever (pyrexia) |
|
|
Term
| Fever will increase respiratory rate ________ for each degree. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1)Full stomach theory
2)^ICP
3)Overdose
4)Burns
5)Chest trauma
6)UGI bleed |
|
|
Term
Ketamine:
*Strong __________ with hypnotic effect.
*May be used in ______ ________.
*Emergence reaction up to ___ hrs post administration.
*Dose? |
|
Definition
bronchodilator
status asthmaticus
24
2 mg/kg |
|
|
Term
| Standard ventilator flow rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causes of pt. bucking ventilator: (3) |
|
Definition
1)Hypoxia
2)Suctioning required
3)Additional sedation requried |
|
|
Term
Lidocaine:
Bolus dose:_____ followed by _____ every 10mins.
Max dosage _____ for pulseless arrest, Class _____.
______ and repeat in ______ minutes for pulseless arrest.
|
|
Definition
1)1-1.5mg/kg for VT, followed by .5-1.5mg/kg every 10mins.
2)Max dose 3mg/kg, Class IB
3)1-1.5mg/kg and repeat in 3-5 minutes |
|
|
Term
| Bretylium uses are ______ and ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 5-10mg/kg, repeat q5 up to 3 times. |
|
|
Term
| VAD potential complications: (5) |
|
Definition
1)inf
2)Thrombosis
3)Migration
4)extravasation
5)air embolism |
|
|
Term
| Two responsibilities of the CCEMTP during transport, to avoid liability are: |
|
Definition
Provide appropriate care
Function within scope of practice
Inform medical control or receiving facilty of changes or extenuating circumstances
Document thoroughly and stay available to answer questions post transfer. |
|
|
Term
| Never deactivate a pacemaker/AICD without: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| GCS<8 and positive CT scan |
|
|
Term
| The law requiring that patients be provided written information on the right to make medical decisions. |
|
Definition
| The Patient Self Determination Act |
|
|
Term
| Types of urinary diversion (5) |
|
Definition
1)ideal conduit
2)ureterostomy
3)nephrostomy
4)cystostomy
5)Indiana Pouch |
|
|
Term
| ________ is black,tarry stool indicative of an _____________,____________ or _____________. |
|
Definition
Malena
upper GI bleed,peptic ulcer or small bowel disease. |
|
|
Term
| Factors affecting hemodynamic monitoring: |
|
Definition
1)HR
2)Preload
3)Afterload
4)Contractility |
|
|
Term
| Subtle indicators of a transfusion reaction are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| LVF, hypervolemia and pulmonary HTN |
|
|
Term
| All pressures are elevated and equalized in the presence of __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vent off __________ prior to air transport. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All NG/OG tubes should be left open to air during ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Complications of PAC are: (6) |
|
Definition
1)Balloon rupture
2)PA perforation
3)Pneumothorax
4)Hemorrhage
5)Dysrhythmias
6)Infection |
|
|
Term
| Contraindications of gastric tubes are: (3) |
|
Definition
1)Esophageal varices
2)Nasal insertion in the presence of a head injury of facial trauma
3)Must be able to control their own airway unless intubated. |
|
|
Term
| In sepsis you have high ___ and low ____,which is treated with fluids and vasopressors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______________ is the smallest lumen, single or multiple lumens inserted centrally or peripherally and used for short-term therapy, high risk of infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______________ are large bore, thick walled silicone catheters for long-term continuous or intermittent therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Brain 80%, Blood 10% and CSF 10% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ____ is the only catheter, which allows you to drain CSF and you never drain more than ___ml/hr. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The preferred sites for placement of the Swan-Ganz catheter are the ____________ and the _______________. |
|
Definition
| subclavian and the internal jugular vein. |
|
|
Term
| The Head of the bed should be elevated to ______ degrees in most cases, but you need to choose a position that optimizes ____ and minimizes _____, maintain head neck alignment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The transfusion rate for blood products is initially at a rate of ______ and evaluate for _____________, monitor vitals every 15 mins. and after 30 mins. adjust the flow rate per order, then monitor vitals every ___ mins. |
|
Definition
1ml/min
hemolytic reaction
30 mins. |
|
|
Term
| The primary intracellular cation is __________ and the primary extracellular cation is __________. |
|
Definition
Potassium (K+)
Sodium (Na+) |
|
|
Term
| ____________ is when there is hemoglobin present in the urine, unattached to ____________. |
|
Definition
Hemoglobinuria
red blood cells (RBC) |
|
|
Term
| A culture test is used to identify __________, while a __________ test is used to determine the best antibiotic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lab values for ____ will show abnormalties in clotting tests. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transmission of the Herpes Zoster virus is a disease called __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sux cannot be reversed with ________, Sux dose is ______ and indicated in patients with agonal respirations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sux is a __________ muscle relaxant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The correct procedure for a tracheostomy incision is ____ superior to the _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Low values on hemodynamic monitor may be caused by the ___________ being above the ________________ or air bubbles or clot in the catheter. |
|
Definition
transducer
phlebostatic level |
|
|
Term
| ____________ decrease the risk of volume overload with multiple infusions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diastole is a phase that is ______ as long as systole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The sympathetic nervous system controls the heart by ________ of the heart via the ______ ______. |
|
Definition
innervation
cardiac plexus |
|
|
Term
| ______________ can be indicated on the ECG by an elevated ST segment. Ischemia is noted by by ST depression without _____________. |
|
Definition
Myocardial injury
reciprocal change |
|
|
Term
| The ICD analyzes the heart rhythm by: (3) |
|
Definition
*Consideration of rate
*Onset of rate increase
*Stability of the complex. |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 indications for intra-aortic balloon pump counter pulsation. |
|
Definition
1)Cardiogenic shock
2)Postoperative left ventricular failure
3)Severe unstable angina. |
|
|
Term
| Romazicon and ___________ are used to reverse the effect of sedation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Propofol is a ________________ used to induce and maintain anesthesia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Romazicon and ____________ are used to reverse the effects of sedation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____________ has no chronotropic effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name an example of a Class III antidysrhythmic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Diltiazem is a ________________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Streptokinase and TPA both convert __________ to plasmin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________________ is not a major component of a neuro exam. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary risk factor ____________ is diabetes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ and ________ are colloid solutions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Left ventricular afterload is also known as ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| BP, HCT and pH are altered by ______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ and ________ will help decrease ICP. (Medications) |
|
Definition
| Methylprednisone and thiopental |
|
|
Term
| Ketamine, diazepam and nitroprusside will cause _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Venous access ports such as porta-caths require the use of a ______ or ______ needle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Liver ailments can cause patients to present with __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False:
Migraines can be treated with beta blockers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vecuronium is a ________________ used to maintain paralysis following intubation, and lasting approx. 30 mins. |
|
Definition
| nondepolarizing-blocking agent |
|
|
Term
| ____________ can cause an allergic reaction and last up to 2 days. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Left upper quadrant pain and referred pain to the scapula are signs of a damaged _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ during or following dialysis is a sign of excessive filtation of the blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _________ _________ is a significant concern for patients with renal failure, elderly patients and patients receiving positive chronotropic drugs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When obtaining a PAWP the balloon shouldnot remain inflated longer than _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a hypertensive emergency, you may administer a _______________ known as Nifedipine, or an ____________, known as Captopril. |
|
Definition
calcium channel blocker
ACE inhibitor |
|
|
Term
| The reversal agent for non-depolarizing NMBA is ____________. |
|
Definition
| Endrophonium Chloride (Tensilon) |
|
|
Term
| __________ are normally found in urine, abnormal findings include WBC, RBC and albumin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The definition for __________ is muscle twitching that occurs just prior to paralysis with NMBA agents. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The dosage of Vecuronium (Norcuron) is ______ and is a _______________. |
|
Definition
| .1mg/kg and is a long acting non-depolarizing agent. |
|
|
Term
| Peritoneal dialysis involves the concept of ________ and ________ of waste products within the ______________. |
|
Definition
osmosis and diffusion
peritoneal cavity. |
|
|
Term
| Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of ______ concentration, to an area of ______ concentration. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fistula graft rejection is not a risk factor for peritoneal dialysis because it uses the patient's own vessels to surgically form an __________ between an artery and vein. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Side effects of Anectine (Sux) are hyperkalemia, muscle fasciculation, ^ICP and _____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The continous flush solution delivers a volume of _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pressure infuser should be inflated to ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Side effects of beta blockers: (5) |
|
Definition
1)Bradycardia
2)Heart blocks
3)Hypotension
4)Impotence
5)Bronchoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| Contraindications of beta blockers: (4) |
|
Definition
1)Bradycardia
2)Heart block
3)Hypotension
4)Asthma |
|
|
Term
| Side effects of ACE inhibitors are ________ and ________. |
|
Definition
| hypotension and angioedema. |
|
|
Term
| Cardizem (Diltiazem) is useful in the treatment of ________ and ________. |
|
Definition
| Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter. |
|
|
Term
| Calcium Channel Blockers are contraindicated in the presence of _____, identified by a ________. |
|
Definition
| WPW, identified by a delta wave. |
|
|
Term
| ___________ is indicated in the presence of narrow complex tachycardia when it is refractory to adenosine, normal dosage is ____________. |
|
Definition
Verapamil
2.5-5mg over 2 mins. |
|
|
Term
O2 cylinder capacity
D cylinder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
O2 cylinder capacity
E cylinder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
O2 cylinder capacity
M cylinder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
O2 cylinder capacity
G cylinder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
O2 cylinder capacity
H cylinder |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Calcium Channel Blocker side effects: (3) |
|
Definition
1)Hypotension
2)Weakness
3)Chronic edema |
|
|
Term
| The Big Four critical moments in critical care transport are: |
|
Definition
1)Contact with referring staff
2)Contact with patient
3)Touch, procedure and equipment
4)Contact with receiving staff |
|
|
Term
| Beta-blockers that may be administered via IV route: (4) |
|
Definition
*Lopressor (Metoprolol)
*Labetolol (Normodyne)
*Inderal (Propanolol)
*Tenormin (Atenolol)
* Note: Most beta-blockers end in "ol" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a)Apply monitors (SpO2 and ECG)
b)Pre-oxygenate
c)Medicate with sux
d)Intubate
e)Medicate with Norcuron |
|
|
Term
| Procedure for deactivating an AICD: |
|
Definition
1)Palpate the boundaries
2)Approach from directly above with cardiac magnet
3)Synchronous tone lasts 30 seconds followed by a continous tone=unit off
4)Remove magnet straight up. |
|
|
Term
| The normal SVR is ________ dynes/sec/cm5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pull the PAC back into the __________ if you note an RVP waveform and PVC's. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Balloon Pumps:
Dicrotic notch is when the _________ closes and the beginning of _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thermodilution,___ml given in less than __ secs. |
|
Definition
| 10ml in less than 4 seconds |
|
|
Term
| Nipride must be ______________ and NTG must be in a _____________, be sure to saturate the IV tubing. |
|
Definition
wrapped in foil
glass bottle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Information only, not a question
LVEDP=PAWP=PCWP=LAP=PAD (PRELOAD) |
|
Definition
| No answer, information only! |
|
|
Term
| Cardiac Index (CI) is __________/_____, normal values are 2.5-5 L/m/m2, a value of less than ____ is indicative of cardiogenic shock. |
|
Definition
cardiac output (CO) / body surface area (BSA)
1.8 L/m/m2 |
|
|
Term
| Describe the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines. |
|
Definition
| Inhibits pre and postsynaptic dopamine and opens chloride channels in the cell membrane, leading to hyperpolarization and decreased neuronal response. |
|
|
Term
| An example of a non-tunneled catheter is a: |
|
Definition
| Peripherally Inserted Central Venous Catheter (PICC) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The volume is directly proportional to the pressure if the temperature remains constant. Increase in pressure = Decrease in volume. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The pressure of a gas equals the sum of the partial pressures, making up the mixture. |
|
|
Term
| ________ and ________ will prolong the QT interval and are useful in the treatment of A-fib. |
|
Definition
| Quinidine and Procardia (Nifedipine) |
|
|
Term
| The __________ __________ is palpated between the first and second prominent structures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It is hard to see newer pacer spikes because, they are bipolar, what are the two best ways to see these? |
|
Definition
1) 12 Lead ECG, best seen in V4
2) Turn off filter on monitor |
|
|
Term
Information only, not a question!
Inflated balloon sails into distal pulmonary circulation, lodges in small branch of pulmonary artery and occludes it. |
|
Definition
| Review for information only! No answer! |
|
|
Term
Information only, not a question!
Reposition the patient if you note a dampened waveform suggesting wedge without the balloon inflated and be prepared to pull back slightly into the PA. |
|
Definition
| Review for information only! No answer! |
|
|
Term
ISAL (I See All Leads)
List them: |
|
Definition
Inferior=II,III,aVF
Septal=V1,V2
Anterior=V3,V4
Lateral=V5,V6,I and aVL |
|
|
Term
| Indications for urinary catheter: (4) |
|
Definition
1)Relief of urinary tract obstruction
2)Urinary drainage in pts. who have bladder dysfunction with urinary retention (eg, some pts. with neurogenic bladder or spinal cord injuries)
3)Urologic surgery
4)Strict measurement of urinary output in critically ill patients. |
|
|
Term
| The technique used in conjunction with NMBAs to determine the desired degree of pt. paralysis: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dopamine wheel with concentration of 800mg/500ml for an 80kg individual, infused with a micro drip set will equal: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To interpret the heart rhythm, the ICD: |
|
Definition
| Considers rate, onset of rate increase, and stability of the complex. |
|
|
Term
Pacemaker codes:
O=_____
A=_____
V=_____
D=_____
P=_____
S=_____
,which will include: |
|
Definition
O=none
A=atrium
V=ventricle
D=dual
P=pacing
S=shock
which will include in the following order: chambers paced, chambers sensed, response to sensing, programmability (rate,modulation), antidysrhythmia function. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Pressure gradient driving blood flow and delivery of nutrients to the brain. |
|
|
Term
| An abnormal wave formation involving plateau waves resembling a pattern simular to VF and indicating impending herniation and neurolgical deterioration: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Systolic + 2(diastolic)/3 |
|
|
Term
The purpose of DTR evaluation is to rule out lesions affecting the spinal nerves,
0=_____
1=_____
2=_____
3=_____
4=_____. |
|
Definition
0=no response
1=slow
2=brisk or expected
3=slightly hyperreflexive
4=greatly hyperreflexive |
|
|
Term
| ____________ produce bronchodilation in cholinergic mediated bronchodilation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Augmented diastolic should be more than the ________ ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first use of helicopters for air medical transport occurred as a result of: |
|
Definition
| The Korean conflict of 1950 |
|
|
Term
| A Critical Care Transport Team is composed of: |
|
Definition
| EMT driver, RN, Paramedic |
|
|
Term
| A common problem of specimen collection associated with the breakdown or RBCs and subsequent release of hemoglobin is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary intracellular cation important for repolarization of cardiac cells: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neurogenic shock will result in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mean arterial pressure (MAP), minus intracranial pressure (ICP), equals: |
|
Definition
| Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) |
|
|
Term
T/F:
A trauma pt. with a suspected basilar skull FX is a good candidate for an NG tube. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A decrease in hematocrit and hemaglobin is likely to be seen with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An inappropriate motor response in a comatose pt. charaterized by flexion of the arms, wrists, and fingers, adduction of the upper extremeties, and extension, medial rotation and planter flexion of the lower extremities is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Shock can occur as a result of fluid shifting from the intravascular space to the extravascular space. This can result from: |
|
Definition
| Decreased colloidal osmotic pressure |
|
|
Term
| The initial signs and symptoms of __________ shock will be hindered if the pt. is taking beta-blockers: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
Antigens are a major component of the immune system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
Venous blood never passes through the lungs during right to left cardiac shunting. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In assessing a pt. with asthma, the PaO2 will assist in obtaining information of what nature: |
|
Definition
| The efficiency of gas exchange |
|
|
Term
| Hemoglobin is not a component of _____ measurement. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In regard to pleural decompression, the "Angle of Louis" is: |
|
Definition
| used to locate the second intercostal space. |
|
|
Term
| 200cc of clear amber fluid have been withdrawn from the right pleural space of a pt. who has just undergone pleural decompression. Which of the following positions would maximize the pts. oxygenation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chest tube pts. should ideally be transported in what position? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
Most automatic ventilators can be safely used in all age groups. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most serious drawback of using positive pressure/demand valves? |
|
Definition
| High airway pressures are created |
|
|
Term
| Sterile technique is indicated when using which ET suctioning catheter. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To perform retrograde intubation, the guide wire must be: |
|
Definition
| Approximately 70cm in length |
|
|
Term
| Wedging a PA catheter reveals what information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A Swan-ganz catheter is in place. If no waveform shows on the monitor you should? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Zero referencing balances the transducer to _______________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of blood preparation would eliminate disease transmission and the possibilty of transfusion reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
The normal electrical state of the cardiac cells is known as the action potential. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The shape and appearance of a waveform is referred to as the ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
Calculation of the electrical axis of the T wave and P wave are a primary component of 12Lead ECG interpretation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Haliperidol is indicated for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism of action for Benzodiazepines: |
|
Definition
| Inhibits pre and post synaptic dopamine |
|
|
Term
| Flumazenil antagonizes ___________ receptor sites. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
Morphine is not a CNS stimulant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ________ catheter must be in place to monitor proper timing of the balloon pump. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The proper position of the intra-aortic balloon is in the ______________, distal to the left subclavian artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pt. presenting with profuse hematemesis with frank red blood, and a history of significant alcohol abuse is most likely caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enteral feeding sets should be changed ____________ to prevent diarrhea and other gastrointestinal complications. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The intracranial volume-pressure curve demonstrates the relationship between: |
|
Definition
| Changes in volume and intracranial pressure. |
|
|
Term
An intracranial pressure of 19 mmHg indicates the ICP is:
a. normal
b. slightly elevated
c. moderately elevated
d. severely elevated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ketamine
Diazepam
Nitroprusside
will _________ ICP. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The circulating blood volume of a neonate is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An early sign of shock in the pediatric pt. is? |
|
Definition
| Prolonged capillary refill |
|
|
Term
| The antihypertensive medication of choice for managing severe pre-eclampsia is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An alternative method for measuring total BSA burned: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F:
A chest tube should be placed when a pulmonary embolus is suspected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to confirm proper chest tube positioning? |
|
Definition
|
|
