Term
| Chest pain characterized by pressure, squeezing, tightness, heaviness, burning or indigestions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chest pain characterized by sharp, stabbing knifelike pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chest pain characterized by excruciating, tearing or knifelike pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the big 6 cardiac risk factors? |
|
Definition
| Smoking, HTN, DM, Age, Fam Hx, Dyslipidemia |
|
|
Term
| JNC VII HTN classifications. (Normal, PreHTN, HTN1 and HTN2). |
|
Definition
Normal = Less than 120-80 (both).
PreHTN = 120-139/80-89 (either).
HTN1 = 140-159/90-99 (either).
HTN2 = Over 160/100 (either). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Dyspnea upon assuming the supine posture |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dyspnea occurs only in a lateral decubitus position, most often in patients with heart disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| dyspnea that occurs only in the upright position |
|
|
Term
| What is pulsus differens? What condition is it seen with? |
|
Definition
| Diminished pulses unilaterally or bilaterally. Seen with Coarctation of the Aorta. |
|
|
Term
| Describe Class I-IV of the NTHA classification criteria for heart disease. |
|
Definition
I - Pts have no limitations of activities and suffer no symptoms of ordinary activities.
II - Pts have slight limitation of activity.
III - Pts have marked limitation of activity and are only comfortable at rest.
IV - Cannot do any activity, confined to bed or chair and symptoms occur at rest. |
|
|
Term
| What is hypo and hyper kinetic Pulsus Parvus? |
|
Definition
| Pulsus parvus just means a small, weak pulse. Hypokinetic refers to a decrease in SV and an increase in PVR. Hyperkinetic refers to an increase in SV and a decrease in PVR. |
|
|
Term
| What is Bisferiens pulse? What does it commonly occur in association with? |
|
Definition
| It is a double beat pulse and is common with combo aortic regurgitation/aortic stenosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is Pulsus Alternans and what condition is it commonly associated with? |
|
Definition
| Alternating strong and weak pulses. Associated with LV failure and Aortic Regurgitation. |
|
|
Term
| What is Pulsus Parvus et Tardus? What condition is it commonly seen with? |
|
Definition
| A pulse that is weak and late. Seen with Aortic stenosis. |
|
|
Term
| What is Pulsus Paradoxus? What condition is it commonly seen with? |
|
Definition
| Pulse that has an exaggerated inspiratory drop in BP. Seen with cardiac tamponade, pericarditis and COPD/asthma. |
|
|
Term
| What does an S3 and S4 heart sound correspond to? |
|
Definition
S3 = Ventricular gallop.
S4 = Atrial gallop. |
|
|
Term
| Which common (aortic, pulmonic, mitral and tricuspid) murmurs are diastolic? |
|
Definition
| Diastolic: Aortic regurgitation, Pulmonic regurgitation, Mitral valve stenosis and Tricuspid valve stenosis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the purposes of Amyl Nitrate and Phenylephrine when it comes to murmurs? |
|
Definition
| Amyl Nitrate (Nitroglycerine) will vasodilate and reduce the resistance that the heart pumps against. Phenylephrine is a smooth muscle constrictor and will increase resistance that the heart pumps against. |
|
|
Term
| What does kind of murmurs are accentuated by Inspiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of murmurs are accentuated by Standing? |
|
Definition
| Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and MVP. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of murmurs are accentuated by Squatting? |
|
Definition
| Most murmurs except Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and MVP. |
|
|
Term
| What is Valsalva's affect on most murmurs? Why? |
|
Definition
| It diminished most murmurs (except hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and MVP) because it diminished ventricular filling. |
|
|
Term
| What murmurs will be accentuated by Handgrip exercises (Increases BP and HR)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most cardiospecific cardiac enzyme? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does CK-MB first appear within serum? Peak? Return to normal? |
|
Definition
| CK-MB appears within serum 6-12 hours, peaks around 24 hours, and returns to normal in 3-4 days |
|
|
Term
| When is Troponin I and T detectable within the serum? How long does it remain? What is this enzyme especially good at detecting? |
|
Definition
| Detectable in serum within 1-3 hours and remains for 14-15 days. It is very good at detecting small infarcts and MI's that are later in their course. |
|
|
Term
| When is Myoglobin first detected within the serum? When does it peak? When does it return to normal? |
|
Definition
| Detectable 2 hours after MI, Peaks in 6-8 hours and Returns to normal in 20-36 hours. |
|
|
Term
| When is LDH first detectable within the serum? When does it peak? When does it return to normal? |
|
Definition
| Detectable in 24 hours, Peaks in 3 days and Returns to normal in 8-9 days. |
|
|
Term
| What is Ambulatory Cardiac Monitoring used for? |
|
Definition
| It is used to document suspected arrythmias and to monitor treatment effectiveness, patient is connected to EKG for 24 hours and sent home with machine. |
|
|
Term
| What is the #1 test to rule out endocarditis and to access for LAE? |
|
Definition
| Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) |
|
|
Term
| What is Tilt Testing used for? What does it mean if the patient exhibits symptoms during the test? |
|
Definition
| Used to identify if cause of syncope is cardiogenic. If the patient exhibits syncope during the test then it is considered to be neural and not cardiogenic. |
|
|
Term
| What is the indication and procedure for Electrophysiologic Studies? |
|
Definition
Indication = To detect and analyze arrhythmias and their origins.
Procedure = Catheter with electrode is placed in the right atrium and ventricle and it can record and stimulate arrhythmias. |
|
|
Term
| What involves invasive testing to assess patient hemodynamics and perform coronary angiography with suspected myocardial ischemia and/or valvular abnormalities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best test to obtain information on patients with peripheral vascular disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What instrument is a hemodynamic monitoring device that is used in shock situations and to monitor hemodynamics in critically ill patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics of pathologic murmurs? |
|
Definition
| Diastolic, pansystolic, late systolic, very loud or continuous. |
|
|
Term
| Describe grade 1-6 murmurs. |
|
Definition
1. A very soft murmur only detected after very careful auscultation.
2. A soft murmur that is readily evident.
3. A moderate murmurs but there is no thrill.
4. Loud murmur with an intermittent or without a thrill.
5. Loud murmur with a palpable thrill only heard when stethoscope is on body.
6. Loud murmur with thrill that is audible even when stethoscope is lifted from body. |
|
|
Term
| Which murmurs are continuous? |
|
Definition
| PDA, Arteriovenous Malformation (AVM) and Venous Hum |
|
|
Term
| Describe Aortic Stenosis murmur. Most common cause? |
|
Definition
Midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur ejection murmur.
Most common cause is a calcification of the valve. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of heart failure is seen with Aortic Stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for Aortic Stenosis? |
|
Definition
| Valve replacement is the only provent treatment. They also need antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis though. |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of Aortic Regurgitation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What congenital abnormality is seen with both AS and AR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of murmur is heard with Aortic Regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| Austin Flint murmur (blood entering simultaneously from both the aorta and left atrium) and a diastolic blowing murmur. |
|
|
Term
| Most important test for assessing severity of aortic insufficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for AR in an asymptomatic patient? Symptomatic? |
|
Definition
Asymptomatic = give vasodilators to reduce the afterload (Nifidipine, Hydralazine, ACEi's, etc).
Symptomatic = Valve replacement/repair. |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of Mitral Stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the murmur heard with Mitral Stenosis. |
|
Definition
| Opening snap followed by an early diastolic rumble. |
|
|
Term
| What is a common CXR finding with Mitral Stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to diagnose Mitral Stenosis? |
|
Definition
| Echocardiogram (TTE or TEE) |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatment options for Mitral Stenosis? |
|
Definition
| Balloon valvotomy or valve replacement |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of Mitral Regurgitation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the murmur heard with Mitral Regurgitation. |
|
Definition
| Holosystolic apical murmur that radiates to the axilla. |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of Mitral Regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| Surgical repair or replacement of the valve. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the murmur heard with mitral valve prolapse. |
|
Definition
| A mid systolic click and late systolic murmur. |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of Mitral Valve Prolapse? |
|
Definition
| Antibiotic endocarditis prophylaxis, BBs to relieve palpitations and aspirin to reduce risk of stroke in patients with redundant leaflets. |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of Pulmonic Stenosis? |
|
Definition
| Fusion of the pulmonic valve cusps. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Pulmonic Stenosis? |
|
Definition
| If pressure gradient is less than 25mmHg then none is needed, if it is greater than 50mmHg then valve balloon commissurotomy is effective. |
|
|
Term
| Most are the most common causes of Tricuspid Regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| Hemodynamic load on the right ventricle from pulmonary backup and infective endocarditis are most common. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Tricuspid Regurgitation? |
|
Definition
| Usually aimed at whatever the cause of right ventricular overload is, (LV failure or Pulmonary disease). |
|
|
Term
| Describe Acute bacterial endocarditis. Most common cause? |
|
Definition
| Affects patient with normal hearts and damaged hearts. MCC = Staph aureus |
|
|
Term
| Describe Subacute bacterial endocarditis. Most common cause? |
|
Definition
| Usually affects an already damaged heart. MCC = Strep viridans |
|
|
Term
| Characteristic Signs seen on physical exam with bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| Osler’s nodes ( small tender nodules on the finger and toes), Janeway lesions ( small hemorrhages on the palms and soles) and splenomegaly. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the Duke Criteria for endocarditis. |
|
Definition
Major - 2 positive blood cultures and evidence on echocardiogram of vegetation.
Minor - predisposing condition, fever, PE signs, 1 positive blood culture, and a positive echocardiogram that does not meet major criteria.
*Need 2 major, 1 major and 3 minor, or 5 minor to diagnose. |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat endocarditis? |
|
Definition
| 4 weeks of antibiotics (PCN, Cephalosporin or Macrolide) |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of anticoagulants, antithrombotics and thrombolytics? |
|
Definition
Anticoagulant: inhibit blood coagulation.
Antithrombotic: inhibit platelet aggregation.
Thrombolytic agent: degrade clots that have already formed. |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for Heparin? |
|
Definition
| Prevent DVT and PE and immediate anticoagulation. |
|
|
Term
| How is Heparin monitored? |
|
Definition
| Monitored by PTT every 4-6 hours |
|
|
Term
| What is used to reverse a Heparin OD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anticoagulant is used in long term anticoagulation and DVT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test is used to monitor Warfarin (Coumadin) levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be given to reverse a Warfarin (Coumadin) OD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is Aspirin? What are its indications? |
|
Definition
| It is an antithrombotic. Used in those with a history or risk of Stroke, MI or TIA. |
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is Ticlopidine (Ticlid)? Indications? |
|
Definition
| It is an antithrombotic. It is used prescribed as a post cardiac intervention in those with a history of Stroke or MI. |
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is Clopidogrel (Plavix)? Indications? |
|
Definition
| It is an antithrombotic. It is prescribed as a post cardiac intervention in those that have a history of Stroke or MI. |
|
|
Term
| What class of drug is Tirofiban (Aggrastat)? Indications? How is it administered? |
|
Definition
| It is an antithrombotic. Its indications are in unstable angina and MI. It is only given IV. |
|
|
Term
| What is Eisenmenger's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Reversal of a left to right shunt to a right to left shunt. |
|
|
Term
| What is released during birth that causes the PDA to close? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are the fetal foramen functionally closed? Anatomically? |
|
Definition
Functional closure in 72 hours post-partum.
Anatomic closure in 4-8 weeks. |
|
|
Term
| What is Ebstein's Anomaly? |
|
Definition
| It is a small right ventricle due to a large right atria. |
|
|
Term
| Describe Coarctation of the aorta. What is a common congenital defect associated with coarctation of the aorta? Most common extracardiac abnormality seen with coarctation of the aorta? |
|
Definition
| It is a fibrotic narrowing of the aortic lumen. 25% of them have a biscuspid valve. Most common extracardiac abnormality is aneurysm of the circle of Willis. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of pulses are seen with coarctation of the aorta? |
|
Definition
| Strong UE pulses with weak LE pulses. |
|
|
Term
| What are the preferred diagnostic methods for coarctation of the aorta in adults? |
|
Definition
| MRI or cardiac catheterization |
|
|
Term
| Treatment of Coarctation of the aorta? |
|
Definition
| Surgical repair and bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis. |
|
|
Term
| Descrieb the murmur heard with pulmonic valve stenosis. |
|
Definition
| Opening click and systolic. |
|
|
Term
| Most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 components of Tetralogy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonic stenosis, RVH, VSD, Overriding aorta across the VSD |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What arrhythmia is most common with ASD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the murmur heard with a VSD. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are ASDs, VSDs and PDAs diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for VSD if Eisenmenger's has already taken place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). |
|
Definition
| Arterial duct that connects the aorta and pulmonary artery during fetal life fails to close within 24 to 48 hrs. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the murmur heard with PDA. |
|
Definition
| Continuous machinery-like murmur. |
|
|
Term
| What does Acute Rheumatic Fever follow? |
|
Definition
| Follows Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis infection. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major Jones criteria for Acute Rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
| Carditis, Polyarthritis, Chorea, Erythema marginatum and SQ nodules. |
|
|
Term
| What are the minor Jones Criteria for Acute Rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
| Arthralgias, Fever, Elevated ESR or CRP, Prolonged PR interval and Prior Hx of ARF. |
|
|
Term
| What is required of the Jones Criteria to make an Acute Rheumatic Fever diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor criteria PLUS evidence of a recent streptococcal infection. |
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Acute Rheumatic Fever? |
|
Definition
| Antibiotics and Anti-inflammatories |
|
|
Term
| What is Malignant Hypertension? |
|
Definition
| Sudden development of extremely Elevated BP (diastolic is often above 130) associated with papilledema (optic disc swelling that is caused by increased intracranial pressure). |
|
|
Term
| What are some causes of secondary HTN? |
|
Definition
| Renal artery stenosis, Pheochromocytoma, Cushing's Syndrome and Conn's disease (Hyperaldosteronism). |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug class of choice for initial treatment of HTN per JNC VII? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe a positive Orthostatic Hypotension result. |
|
Definition
| Drop in systolic pressure of more than 10-20 mm HG, Increase in pulse more than 15, or If symptomatic in any of the three positions. |
|
|
Term
| What is cardiogenic shock? |
|
Definition
| Pump failure related to cardiac dysfunction. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| They inhibit synthesis of cholesterol by cells and promote LDL clearance to lower LDL levels. |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA for Cholesterol absorption inhibitors (Ezetimibe)? |
|
Definition
| They prevent the formation of LDL. |
|
|
Term
| What LDL level needs Drug and TLC? LDL goal? |
|
Definition
| Over 130 mg/dL. Goal is under 100 mg/dL. |
|
|
Term
| What is defined as a low HDL level for men and women? |
|
Definition
| Less than 40 mg/dL for men and less than 50 mg/dL for women. |
|
|
Term
| What is Prinzmetal's (Variant) angina? |
|
Definition
| Angina that is unpredictable and is due to coronary vasospasm. |
|
|
Term
| How is angina pain relieved? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gold standard diagnostic exam for Angina? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA for Nitroglycerine? |
|
Definition
| Dilates myocardial arteries and venodilates. |
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for unstable angina? |
|
Definition
| Heparin, IV Nitroglycerine and Plavix (Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor). |
|
|
Term
| What class of drug has been shown to prolong life in patients with CAD post-MI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug has been shown to be effective at preventing future attacks of ischemic heart disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the treatments for Prinzmetal's angina (Acute and Chronic)? |
|
Definition
Acute = Nitrates.
Chronic = CCBs. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of MI? |
|
Definition
| Ruptured Atherosclerotic stenosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the time frame goal for getting an MI patient in for angioplasty? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for Thrombolytics in an MI? |
|
Definition
| CP longer than 30 min and less than 6 hours with ST elevation in at least 2 leads. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment of choice for an MI that is more than 6 hours old? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common location of MIs? Next? |
|
Definition
| Anterior, then Inferior/Posterior and Lateral is least likely. |
|
|
Term
| Is an MI relieved with Nitro? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which diagnostic exam is best for assessment of where the infarct is occuring and can help determine whether PTCA or CABG is needed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the standard treatment regimen for an MI? |
|
Definition
| MONA (Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrates and Aspirin). Also use BBs and Thrombolytics if necessary. |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of Thrombolytics? Which is the best one? |
|
Definition
| t-PA, streptokinase, Retaplase, Antistreplase and Urokinase. Best is t-PA. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment regimen for a Non-Q-Wave MI? |
|
Definition
| Aspirin, BBs, CCBs and cardiac cath to determine need for PTCA vs. CABG. Thrombolytics are not recommended. |
|
|
Term
| What is Dressler's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Pericarditis that is a results from an MI. |
|
|
Term
| What treatment do you NOT want to give a Right Ventricular MI? |
|
Definition
| Nitroglycerine bc it will venodilate and further decrease cardiac output. |
|
|
Term
| When are ACEi/ARBs indicated for post MI management? |
|
Definition
| In patients with decreased LV function to prevent LV dilation. |
|
|
Term
| What drug is recommended post MI to patients with large anterior wall MIs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of patients is silent ischemia/infarction common in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2 most common causes of CHF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of dysfunction is most common with CHF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What LVEF corresponds to systolic vs. diastolic CHF? |
|
Definition
| LVEF over 40% = Diastolic. LVEF under 40% = Systolic. |
|
|
Term
| Etiologies of Diastolic dysfunction? |
|
Definition
| HTN, Hypertrophic and Restrictive cardiomyopathies, Amyloid, Sarcoidosis, Hemochromatosis and Radiation Fibrosis. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of cardiac remodeling occurs with pressure overload? Volume overload? |
|
Definition
Pressure = Hypertrophy.
Volume = Dilation. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of dysfunction is seen with dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of dysfunction is seen with Restrictive cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of dysfunction is seen with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment for Hypertrophic cardiomyopathies? |
|
Definition
| BBs and CCBs to decrease myocardial contractility. |
|
|
Term
| What do Kerley lines on CXR represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the acute treatment regimen for CHF? |
|
Definition
| LMNOP - Lasix, Morphine, Nitrates, Oxygen and Patient Position. |
|
|
Term
| What is the role of diuretics in CHF? |
|
Definition
| used as initial therapy to achieve euvolemia only. |
|
|
Term
| If you had one drug to use for CHF what should it be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are beta blockers role in CHF treatment? |
|
Definition
| Chronic CHF causes a decreased baroreflex leading to increased sympathetic activity. BBs block the increased sympathetic activity. |
|
|
Term
| Do BBs reduce mortality in CHF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the only diuretic shown to reduce mortality with CHF? |
|
Definition
| Spironolactone due to its aldosterone blocking affects |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs can be given to CHF patients that improve their subjective feeling but may actually decrease survival? |
|
Definition
| Intermittent Inotropic Infusions |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the bypass tract seen with WPW? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the treatment options for WPW? |
|
Definition
| IV procainamide, electrical cardioversion (if unstable) and ablation is curative. |
|
|
Term
| What class of drugs can be used to treat PVCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the treatment options for ventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
| Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator, BBs and Amiodarone. |
|
|
Term
| How is Sick Sinus Syndrome treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the difference between 2nd degree Type 1 and Type 2 AV blocks. |
|
Definition
Type 1 - Wenckebach - Progressive lengthening of the PR interval.
Type 2 - Mobitz - Set ratio of P waves to QRS complexes. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the main function of the 4 classes of anti-arrythmic agents. |
|
Definition
I - Sodium channel blockers.
II - BBs.
III - Potassium channel blockers.
IV - Calcium channel blockers. |
|
|
Term
| Which classes of anti-arrythmic agents prolong the QT interval? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are class 1a anti-arrythmic agents? |
|
Definition
| Quinidine, Procainamide and Disopyramide |
|
|
Term
| Which anti-arrythmic drug has a toxicity that resembles a lupus like syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anti-arrythmic agents primary use is prevention of recurrent ventricular tachyarrythmias? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anti-arrythmic drug is limited to the treatment of digitalis induced arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for Amiodarone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which anti-arrhythmic drug is used for the acute conversion of A fib/flutter of recent onset? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most effect drug for rapid termination of a PSVT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 most common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
| Alcohol, peripartum and post-viral |
|
|
Term
| How is dilated cardiomyopathy most commonly diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What values are indicative of pulmonary HTN at rest and at exercise? |
|
Definition
Rest = over 25mmHg.
Exercise = over 30mmHg. |
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of Pulmonary HTN? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Treatment regimen for pulmonary HTN? |
|
Definition
| Treat the underlying cause, oxygen, coumadin and CCBs |
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|
Term
| What condition will get better if you have the patient lean forward and will be worse when they lay down? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Most common causes of acute pericarditis? |
|
Definition
| Viral, TB, bacterial and fungal |
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|
Term
| Describe the pain seen with acute pericarditis. |
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Definition
| Retrosternal chest pain that is pleuritic and sharp and may radiate to the back, neck or shoulder. |
|
|
Term
| What will you hear on auscultation with pericarditis? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How does pericarditis appear on EKG? |
|
Definition
| ST elevation and a depressed PR interval. |
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|
Term
| What is the treatment of acute pericarditis? |
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Definition
| Most cases are self limiting so treatment is aimed at pain relief. |
|
|
Term
| How much fluid do you need for the cardiac silhouette to be enlarged on CXR with a pericardial effusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is a pericardial effusion usually diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If pericardial effusion becomes large enough and it causes hemodynamic compromise it is called? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How is a cardiac tamponade treated? |
|
Definition
| Immediate pericardiocentesis |
|
|
Term
| What condition will have a calcified ring on CXR? |
|
Definition
| Constrictive pericarditis |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most common causes of myocarditis? |
|
Definition
| Viral infections (Coxsackie and echovirus) |
|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard diagnosis of Myocarditis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Name and describe the two types of true aneurysms of the aorta. |
|
Definition
Fusiform = Equal pressure on the walls.
Saccular = A lump sticking out of the side of one of the walls. |
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|
Term
| Is an AAA or a TAA more common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When would you do surgery for an Ascending TAA, Descending TAA and AAA aneurysm? |
|
Definition
ATAA = 5-6cm.
DTAA = 6-7cm.
AAA = 5.5cm.
Or growth rate of more than 1cm/year. |
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|
Term
| Where is Aortic Dissection most common? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Diagnostic test for an aneurysm? |
|
Definition
| CT with contrast is best. |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are given to help with aneurysms? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| In a pt with PAD where is the vessel occlusion with claudication in the (buttock, thigh, upper calf, lower calf and foot)? |
|
Definition
Buttock = Aortoiliac.
Thigh = Common femoral or aortoiliac.
Upper Calf = Superficial femoral.
Lower Calf = Popliteal.
Foot = Tibial or Peroneal. |
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|
Term
| What ABI corresponds to Mild, Moderate and Severe PAD? |
|
Definition
Mild = (0.60-0.89).
Moderate = (0.40-0.59).
Severe = (Less than 0.40). |
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|
Term
| What condition is seen most commonly with MAT (Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the uses of Quinidine? |
|
Definition
| PACs, PVCs and conversion of AFib/AFlutter to NSR. |
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